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Last-Minute Revision Quiz for OSSSC RI, ARI, AMIN, SFS, ICDS Supervisor 2024: 09 October 2024

The OSSSC RI, ARI, AMIN, SFS, ICDS Supervisor 2024 Practice Test is designed to help candidates prepare for the upcoming competitive exams conducted by the Odisha Subordinate Staff Selection Commission (OSSSC) . This test covers key topics such as reasoning, general knowledge, mathematics, and subject-specific questions relevant to each post. It provides candidates with a comprehensive understanding of the exam pattern, time management, and difficulty level. By practicing regularly, candidates can enhance their problem-solving skills and boost confidence, improving their chances of success in the OSSSC 2024 exams.

Last-Minute Revision Quiz for OSSSC RI, ARI, AMIN, SFS, ICDS Supervisor 2024

  1. I. x2 + 9x + 20 = 0,
    II. y2 + 5y + 6 = 0 to solve both the equations to find the values of x and y?
    A. If x < y
    B. If x > y
    C. If x ≤ y
    D. If x ≥ y
    Ans: A. If x < y
    I. x2 + 4x + 5x + 20 = 0
    =>(x + 4)(x + 5) = 0 => x = -4, -5
    II. y2 + 3y + 2y + 6 = 0
    =>(y + 3)(y + 2) = 0 => y = -3, -2
    = x < y.
  2. 9000 + 16 2/3 % of ? = 10500
    A. 1500
    B. 1750
    C. 9000
    D. 7500
    Ans: C. 9000
    Explanation:
    9000 + 16 2/3 % of ? = 10500 => 9000 + 50/3 % of ? = 10500
    50/(3 * 100) of ? = 1500 => ? = 1500 * 6
    ? = 9000
  3. Two pipes A and B can fill a cistern in 37 1/2 minutes and 45 minutes respectively. Both pipes are opened. The cistern will be filled in just half an hour, if the pipe B is turned off after?
    A. 5 min
    B. 9 min
    C. 10 min
    D. 15 min
    Ans: B. 9 min
    Explanation:
    Let B be turned off after x minutes. Then, part filled by (A + B) in x min + part filled by A in (30 – x) min = 1.
    x(2/75 + 1/45) + (30- x) 2/75 = 1
    11x + 180 – 6x = 225 => x = 9
  4. Two pipes can fill a tank in 20 and 24 minutes respectively and a waste pipe can empty 3 gallons per minute. All the three pipes working together can fill the tank in 15 minutes. The capacity of the tank is?
    A. 60 gallons
    B. 100 gallons
    C. 120 gallons
    D. 180 gallons
    Ans: C. 120 gallons
    Explanation:
    Work done by the waste pipe in 1 minute = 1/15 – (1/20 + 1/24) = – 1/40
    Volume of 1/40 part = 3 gallons\
    Volume of whole = 3 * 40 = 120 gallons.
  5. I. a3 – 988 = 343,
    II. b2 – 72 = 49 to solve both the equations to find the values of a and b?
    A. If a > b
    B. If a ≥ b
    C. If a < b
    D. If a ≤ b
    Ans: B. If a ≥ b
    Explanation:
    a3 = 1331 => a = 11
    b2 = 121 => b = ± 11
    a ≥ b
  6. Which of the equations below doesn’t qualify the criteria of a quadratic equation?
    A. (x + 2)2 = 2(x + 3)
    B. x2 + 3x = (–1) (1 – 3x)2
    C. (x + 2) (x – 1) = x2 – 2x – 3
    D. x3 – x2 + 2x + 1 = (x + 1)3
    Ans. (c) (x + 2) (x – 1) = x2 – 2x – 3
    Explanation: We know that a quadratic equation has a degree of two.
    By double-checking the selections,
    (a) (x + 2)2 = 2(x + 3)
    x2 + 4x + 4 = 2x + 6
    x2 + 2x – 2 = 0
    Thus, This is an example of a quadratic equation.
    (b) x2 + 3x = (–1) (1 – 3x)2
    x2 + 3x = -1(1 + 9×2 – 6x)
    x2 + 3x + 1 + 9×2 – 6x = 0
    10×2 – 3x + 1 = 0
    Thus, This is an example of a quadratic equation.
    (c) (x + 2) (x – 1) = x2 – 2x – 3
    x2 + x – 2 = x2 – 2x – 3
    x2 + x – 2 – x2 + 2x + 3 = 0
    3x + 1 = 0
    This is not an example of a quadratic equation.
  7. 11th term of the A.P. -3, -1/2, 2 …. is
    A. 28
    B. 22
    C. -38
    D. -48
    Ans. (b) 22
    Explanation: A.P. = -3, -1/2, 2 …
    First-term a = – 3
    Common difference, d = a2 − a1 = (-1/2) -(-3)
    ⇒(-1/2) + 3 = 5/2
    Nth term;
    an = a+(n−1)d
    a11 = 3+(11-1)(5/2)
    a11 = 3+(10)(5/2)
    a11 = -3+25
    a11 = 22
  8. The following words are missing from AP: __, 13, __, 3:
    A. 11 and 9
    B. 17 and 9
    C. 18 and 8
    D. 18 and 9
    Ans. (c) 18 and 8
    Explanation: a2 = 13 and
    a4 = 3
    The nth term of an AP;
    an = a+(n−1) d
    a2 = a +(2-1)d
    13 = a+d ………………. (i)
    a4 = a+(4-1)d
    3 = a+3d ………….. (ii)
    When we subtract equation I from equation (ii), we obtain
    – 10 = 2d
    d = – 5
    Fill in the value of d in equation 1 now.
    13 = a+(-5)
    a = 18 (first term)
    a3 = 18+(3-1)(-5)
    = 18+2(-5) = 18-10 = 8 (third term).
  9. ∠B = ∠E, ∠F = ∠C and AB = 3 DE in triangles ABC and DEF. The two triangles are
    A. congruent but not similar
    B. similar but not congruent
    C. neither similar nor congruent
    D. similar as well as congruent
    Ans. (b) similar but not congruent
    Explanation: In ΔABC and ΔDEF,
    ∠B = ∠E, ∠F = ∠C and AB = 3 DE
    By AA similarity criterion,
    ΔABC ~ ΔDEF
    AB = 3DE
    ⇒ AB/DE = 3
    ⇒ AB/DE = BC/EF = AC/DF = 3
    Triangles must have a side ratio of 1 to be congruent.
    Therefore, triangles are similar but not congruent.
  10. ΔABC ~ ΔDFE, ∠A = 30°, ∠C = 50°, AB = 5 cm, AC = 8 cm and DF = 7.5 cm are provided. If that’s the case, then the following is correct:
    A. DE = 12 cm, ∠ F = 50 degrees
    B. DE = 12 cm, ∠ F = 100 degrees
    C. ∠D = 100°, EF = 12 cm
    D. ∠D = 30°, EF = 12 cm
    Ans. (b) DE = 12 cm, ∠F = 100°
    Explanation: Given,
    ΔABC ~ ΔDFE, ∠A =30°, ∠C = 50°, AB = 5 cm, AC = 8 cm and DF= 7.5 cm
    In triangle ABC,
    ∠A + ∠B + ∠C = 180°
    ∠B = 180° – 30° – 50° = 100°
    The corresponding angles are equivalent because ΔABC ~ ΔDFE,
    Thus, ∠D = ∠A = 30°
    ∠F = ∠B = 100°
    ∠E = ∠C = 50°
    And
    AB/DF = AC/DE
    5/7.5 = 8/DE
    DE = (8 × 7.5)/5 = 12 cm
  11. Assertion (A): Earth rotates on its axis.
    Reason (R): Earth is a planet.
    A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C. A is true but R is false.
    D. A is false but R is true.
    Solution:
    Both are true, but R does not explain A.
    Correct Answer: B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  12. Three friends, A, B, and C, are sitting in a row. B is to the right of A, and C is to the right of B. Who is sitting in the middle?
    A. A
    B. B
    C. C
    D. Cannot be determined
    Solution:
    The order is A, B, C. So, B is in the middle.
    Correct Answer: B. B
  13. In a certain code, ‘123’ means ‘sweet and cold’, ‘147’ means ‘drink is sweet’, and ‘325’ means ‘hot and cold’. Which digit means ‘hot’?
    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 5
    Solution:
    ‘325’ and ‘123’ have ‘2’ in common which means ‘cold’. ‘325’ means ‘hot and cold’, so ‘5’ must mean ‘hot’.
    Correct Answer: D. 5
  14. At what time between 4 and 5 o’clock will the hands of the clock be at right angles?
    A. 4:20
    B. 4:30
    C. 4:40
    D. 4:45
    Solution:
    At 4:32, the hands of the clock will be at right angles.
    Correct Answer: B. 4:32
  15. How many times in a day, are the hands of a clock in a straight line but opposite in direction?
    A. 20
    B. 22
    C. 24
    D. 48
    Solution:
    Hands are opposite 22 times in 24 hours.
    Correct Answer: B. 22
  16. If 15th August 2021 is Sunday, what was the day on 15th August 2020?
    A. Friday
    B. Saturday
    C. Sunday
    D. Monday
    Solution:
    2020 was a leap year, so 15th August 2020 was Saturday.
    Correct Answer: B. Saturday
  17. If today is Monday, what day of the week will it be 50 days from now?
    A. Wednesday
    B. Thursday
    C. Friday
    D. Saturday
    Solution:
    50÷7=7 weeks and 1 day. So, 50 days from Monday is Tuesday.
    Correct Answer: A. Tuesday
  18. Find the missing number in the series: 5, 11, 23, 47, ?A. 95
    B. 101
    C. 99
    D. 103
    Solution:
    Series doubles and subtracts 1:
    (5×2+1,11×2+1,23×2+1).
    Next term:47×2+1=95.
    Correct Answer: A. 95
  19. What is the missing number in the sequence: 2, 4, 12, 48, ?A. 120
    B. 192
    C. 240
    D. 336
    Solution:
    Each term is multiplied by increasing natural numbers:
    2×2=4,4×3=12,12×4=48,48×5=240.
    Correct Answer: C. 240
  20. Which letter is midway between the 4th letter from the left and the 18th letter from the right in the alphabet?
    A. K
    B. L
    C. M
    D. N
    Solution:
    The 4th letter from the left is D, the 18th letter from the right is I. Midway letter: (D, E, F, G, H, I) → G.
    Correct Answer: B. G
  21. Nakti Bird Sanctuary, a Ramsar site, is located in which state?
    (a) Bihar
    (b) Haryana
    (c) Himachal Pradesh
    (d) Assam
    Ans: (a) Bihar
  22. The headquarters of the International Maritime Organisation (IMO) is located in:
    (a) Geneva, Switzerland
    (b) New York, USA
    (c) London, United Kingdom
    (d) Paris, France
    Ans: (c) London, United Kingdom
  23. Thol Lake, a Ramsar site, is located in which state?
    (a) Gujarat
    (b) Haryana
    (c) Himachal Pradesh
    (d) Assam
    Ans: (a) Gujarat
  24. The State of Palestine became the 194th member of the UN on:
    (a) May 10, 2024
    (b) June 10, 2024
    (c) July 10, 2024
    (d) August 10, 2024
    Ans: (a) May 10, 2024
  25. The headquarters of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) is located in:
    (a) Jakarta, Indonesia
    (b) Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia
    (c) Bangkok, Thailand
    (d) Hanoi, Vietnam
    Ans: (a) Jakarta, Indonesia
  26. Which organization has its headquarters in Gland, Switzerland?
    (a) World Health Organisation (WHO)
    (b) World Trade Organisation (WTO)
    (c) Worldwide Fund for Nature (WWF)
    (d) United Nations Children’s Emergency Fund (UNICEF)
    Ans: (c) Worldwide Fund for Nature (WWF)
  27. Which organ is responsible for pumping blood throughout the body?
    (a) Liver
    (b) Heart
    (c) Kidneys
    (d) Lungs
    Ans: (b) Heart
  28. What is the longest bone in the human body?
    (a) Femur
    (b) Radius
    (c) Tibia
    (d) Humerus
    Ans:(a) Femur
  29. Which of the following is not a part of the human digestive system?
    (a) Stomach
    (b) Liver
    (c) Kidney
    (d) Small Intestine
    Ans: (c) Kidney
  30. What is the primary function of the respiratory system?
    (a) Pump blood
    (b) Filter waste
    (c) Exchange gases
    (d) Digest food
    Ans: (c) Exchange gases
  31. କେଉଁଟି ବିଶେଷଣ ପଦ ନୁହେଁ ?
    (a) ଉରମ
    (b) ସନ୍ତୋଷ
    (c) ପରମାର୍ଥୀ
    (d) ଶୁରଙ୍କର
    Ans: (b) ସନ୍ତୋଷ
  32. ସେ ଅତ୍ୟନ୍ତ ଚତୁରତାର ସହିତ କାର୍ଯ୍ୟ ସଂପାଦନ କଲେ । ଏହି ବାକ୍ୟରେ କେତୋଟି ବିଶେଷ୍ୟ ପଦ ଅଛି ?
    (a) ଏକ
    (b) ଦୁଇ
    (c) ତିନି
    (d) ଚାରି
    Ans: (b) ଦୁଇ
  33. ଭିନ୍ନ ଜାତୀୟ ଶବ୍ଦଟିକୁ ବାଛ ।
    (a) ପଣ୍ଡିତ
    (b) ପାଣ୍ଡିତ୍ୟ
    (c) ଧୈର୍ଯ୍ୟ
    (d) ଦୟା
    Ans: (a) ପଣ୍ଡିତ
  34. ତକ ବାକ୍ୟରେ ଥିବା ପଦଗୁଡ଼ିକ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ କେଉଁଟି ବିଶେଷଣର କାମ କରୁଛି ?
    ବାବୁ ସୁନା ମୁଦି ପିନ୍ଧିଛନ୍ତି ।
    (a) ବାବୁ
    (b) ସୁନା
    (c) ମୁଦି
    (d) ପିନ୍ଧିଛନ୍ତି
    Ans: (b) ସୁନା
  35. ବିଛିନ୍ନତା ସୂଚନାରେ କେଉଁ କାରକ ହୁଏ?
    (a) କର୍ମକାରକ
    (b) ଅଧିକରଣ କାରକ
    (c) କର୍ତ୍ତାକାରକ
    (d) ଅପାଦାନ କାରକ
    Ans: (d) ଅପାଦାନ କାରକ
  36. ‘ସୁଦର୍ଶନ’ ଶବ୍ଦର ‘ସୁ’ ଉପସର୍ଗ କେଉଁ ଅର୍ଥରେ ବ୍ୟବହୃତ?
    (a) ସୁନ୍ଦର
    (b) ଅନାୟାସ
    (c) ମଂଗଳ
    (d) ସହଜ
    Ans: (a) ସୁନ୍ଦର
  37. କେଉଁ ବର୍ଗର ବର୍ଣ୍ଣ ସହିତ ମିଳିତ ହେଲେ ‘ନ୍’, ‘ଣ’ ହୁଏ।
    (a) ପ
    (b) ଟ
    (c) କ
    (d) ତ
    Ans: (b) ଟ
  38. ‘ଝିଅ ଦେବା’ କେଉଁ ପ୍ରକାରର ଋଢ଼ି?
    (a) କ୍ରିୟାହୀନ
    (b) କ୍ରିଯାଯୁକ୍ତ
    (c) ଉପମାଯୁକ୍ତ
    (d) ସାଧାରଣ
    Ans: (b) କ୍ରିଯାଯୁକ୍ତ
  39. ଯେଉଁ ପଦ ବିଶେଷ୍ୟ ପଦର ଗୁଣ, ଅବସ୍ଥା, ପରିମାଣ କିମ୍ବା ସଂଖ୍ୟାକୁ ବୁଝାଏ, ତାକୁ କ’ଣ କହନ୍ତି?
    (a) ବିଶେଷଣ
    (b) ସର୍ବନାମ
    (c) କାରକ
    (d) ବିଭକ୍ତି
    Ans: (a) ବିଶେଷଣ
  40. ‘ଅତିବୃଷ୍ଟି’ ଓ ‘ଶେଷ’ ଶବ୍ଦକୁ ପଦରେ ପ୍ରକାଶ କର।
    (a) ସମାପ୍ତ-ପରିସମାପ୍ତ
    (b) ଈତି-ଇତି
    (c) ଆଦ୍ୟ-ସମାପ୍ତ
    (d) ଅଭାବ-ଦୁର୍ଭିକ୍ଷ
    Ans: (b) ଈତି-ଇତି
  41. What does the idiom “burning the midnight oil” mean?A) Working late into the night
    B) Creating a disaster
    C) Wasting time
    D) Traveling quickly
    Answer: A) Working late into the night
  42. Choose the active voice form of the sentence: “The meal was prepared by the chef.”A) The chef prepares the meal.
    B) The chef had prepared the meal.
    C) The chef prepared the meal.
    D) The chef has prepared the meal.
    Answer: C) The chef prepared the meal.
  43. Choose the passive voice form of the sentence: “The dog chased the cat.”A) The cat was chased by the dog.
    B) The cat was chasing the dog.
    C) The cat chased the dog.
    D) The cat has been chased by the dog.
    Answer: A) The cat was chased by the dog.
  44. Choose the active voice form of the sentence: “The book was written by the author.”A) The author is writing the book.
    B) The author wrote the book.
    C) The author will write the book.
    D) The author writes the book.
    Answer: B) The author wrote the book.
  45. Choose the active voice form of the exclamatory sentence: “How exciting was the game played by them!”A) What a game they played!
    B) How exciting the game they played!
    C) How exciting the game was played by them!
    D) What a game by them!
    Answer: A) What a game they played!
  46. Choose the passive voice form of the sentence: “He cleans the house every weekend.”A) The house is being cleaned by him every weekend.
    B) The house has been cleaned by him every weekend.
    C) The house was cleaned by him every weekend.
    D) The house is cleaned by him every weekend.
    Answer: D) The house is cleaned by him every weekend.
  47. Choose the passive voice form of the interrogative sentence: “Did the manager approve the proposal?”A) Was the proposal approved by the manager?
    B) Is the proposal approved by the manager?
    C) Has the proposal been approved by the manager?
    D) Will the proposal be approved by the manager?
    Answer: A) Was the proposal approved by the manager?
  48. Choose the active voice form of the interrogative sentence: “Was the concert enjoyed by you?”A) Did you enjoy the concert?
    B) Have you enjoyed the concert?
    C) Are you enjoying the concert?
    D) Do you enjoy the concert?
    Answer: A) Did you enjoy the concert?
  49. Choose the correct homonym in the sentence:”He ate his ______ for breakfast.”
    A) serial
    B) cereal
    C) sirial
    D) seriel
    Answer: B) cereal
  50. Choose the correct homonym in the sentence:”The train is on ______.”
    A) track
    B) tract
    C) tracted
    D) tracked
    Answer: A) track

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OSAP IRB Constable Mock Test 2024

Last-Minute Revision Quiz for OSSSC RI, ARI, AMIN, SFS, ICDS Supervisor 2024: 09 October 2024_5.1