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Must Attempt Quiz Before Exam For OSSSC RI, ARI, AMIN, SFS, ICDS Supervisor 2024

The Odisha Subordinate Staff Selection Commission (OSSSC) exams for posts like Revenue Inspector (RI), Assistant Revenue Inspector (ARI), Amin, SFS, and ICDS Supervisor require focused preparation to secure a good score. With the exams approaching, it is essential to follow a structured plan and attempt a few strategies that can boost your chances of success.

Must Attempt Quiz Before Exam For OSSSC RI, ARI, AMIN, SFS, ICDS Supervisor 2024

  1. If P(E) = 0.07, then what is the probability of ‘not E’?
    (a) 0.93
    (b) 0.95
    (c) 0.89
    (d) 0.90
    Answer: (a) 0.93
    Explanation: P(E) + P(not E) = 1
    Since, P(E) = 0.05
    So, P(not E) = 1 – P(E)
    Or, P(not E) = 1 – 0.07
    ∴ P(not E) = 0.93
  2. A bag has 3 red balls and 5 green balls. If we take a ball from the bag, then what is the probability of getting red balls only?
    (a) 3
    (b) 8
    (c) ⅜
    (d) 8/3
    Answer: (c) ⅜
    Explanation: Number of red balls = 3
    Number of green balls = 5
    Total balls in bag = 3+5 = 8
    Probability of getting red balls = number of red balls/total number of balls
    = ⅜
  3. A bag has 5 white marbles, 8 red marbles and 4 purple marbles. If we take a marble randomly, then what is the probability of not getting purple marble?
    (a) 0.5
    (b) 0.66
    (c) 0.08
    (d) 0.77
    Answer: (d) 0.77
    Explanation: Total number of purple marbles = 4
    Total number of marbles in bag = 5 + 8 + 4 = 17
    Probability of getting purple marbles = 4/17
    Hence, the probability of not getting purple marbles = 1-4/17 = 0.77
  4. Fifteen solid spheres are made by melting a solid metallic cone of base diameter 2cm and height 15cm. The radius of each sphere is:
    (a) ½
    (b) ¼
    (c) 1/3√2
    (d) 1/3√4
    Answer: (d) 1/3√4
    Explanation: Volume of 15 spheres = Volume of a cone
    15 x (4/3) π r3 = ⅓ πr2h
    5×4 π r3 = ⅓ π 12(15)
    20r3 = 5
    r3 = 5/20 = ¼
    r = 1/3√4
  5. The radius of the top and bottom of a bucket of slant height 35 cm are 25 cm and 8 cm. The curved surface of the bucket is:
    (a) 4000 sq.cm
    (b) 3500 sq.cm
    (c) 3630 sq.cm
    (d) 3750 sq.cm
    Answer: (c) 3630 sq.cm
    Explanation: Curved surface of bucket = π(R1 + R2) x slant height (l)
    Curved Surface = (22/7) x (25 + 8) x 35
    CSA = 22 x 33 x 5 = 3630 sq.cm.
  6. The area of the square that can be inscribed in a circle of radius 8 cm is
    (a) 256 cm2
    (b) 128 cm2
    (c) 642 cm2
    (d) 64 cm2
    Answer: (b) 128 cm2
    Explanation: Radius of circle = 8 cm
    Diameter of circle = 16 cm = diagonal of the square
    Let “a” be the triangle side, and the hypotenuse is 16 cm
    Using Pythagoras theorem, we can write
    162= a2+a2
    256 = 2a2
    a2= 256/2
    a2= 128 = area of a square.
  7. 11th term of the A.P. -3, -1/2, 2 …. Is
    (a) 28
    (b) 22
    (c) -38
    (d) -48
    Answer: (b) 22
    Explanation: A.P. = -3, -1/2, 2 …
    First term a = – 3
    Common difference, d = a2 − a1 = (-1/2) -(-3)
    ⇒(-1/2) + 3 = 5/2
    Nth term;
    an = a+(n−1)d
    a11 = 3+(11-1)(5/2)
    a11 = 3+(10)(5/2)
    a11 = -3+25
    a11 = 22
  8. The number of multiples of 4 between 10 and 250 is:
    (a) 50
    (b) 40
    (c) 60
    (d) 30
    Answer: (c) 60
    Explanation: The multiples of 4 after 10 are:
    12, 16, 20, 24, …
    So here, a = 12 and d = 4
    Now, 250/4 gives remainder 2. Hence, 250 – 2 = 248 is divisible by 2.
    12, 16, 20, 24, …, 248
    So, nth term, an = 248
    As we know,
    an = a+(n−1)d
    248 = 12+(n-1)×4
    236/4 = n-1
    59 = n-1
    n = 60
  9. In an AP, if d = -4, n = 7, an = 4, then a is
    (a) 6
    (b) 7
    (c) 20
    (d) 28
    Answer: (d) 28
    Solution;
    Given,
    d = -4, n = 7, an = 4
    We know that,
    an = a + (n – 1)d
    4 = a + (7 – 1)(-4)
    4 = a + 6(-4)
    4 = a – 24
    ⇒ a = 4 + 24 = 28
  10. The point which divides the line segment of points P(-1, 7) and (4, -3) in the ratio of 2:3 is:
    (a) (-1, 3)
    (b) (-1, -3)
    (c) (1, -3)
    (d) (1, 3)
    Answer: (d) (1, 3)
    Explanation: By section formula we know:
    x = [(2 × 4) + (3 × (-1))]/(2 + 3) = (8 – 3)/5 = 1
    y = [(2 × (-3)) + (3 × 7)]/(2 + 3) = (-6 + 21)/5 = 3
    Hence, the required point is (1, 3).
  11. Find the odd one out. Must Attempt Quiz Before Exam For OSSSC RI, ARI, AMIN, SFS, ICDS Supervisor 2024_3.1
    a) Figure A
    b) Figure B
    c) Figure C
    d) Figure D
    Answer: c
    Explanation: Here, the figures present inside the box have even number of edges.
    That is:
    A ➔ 6 edges
    B ➔ 4 edges
    D ➔ 10 edges
    But, in figure C the number of edges of the figure present inside the box is 3 (That is an odd number).
    Hence, figure C is the answer.

     

  12. Find the odd one out.
    a) Dinar
    b) Kwanza
    c) Taka
    d) Gaborone
    Answer: d
    Explanation: Here, Dinar is the currency of Kuwait, Kwanza is the currency of Angola and Taka is the currency of Bangladesh.
    But Gaborone is not a currency of any country but it is a capital city of Botswana.
    Hence, Gaborone is the answer.
  13. In a certain code “STAMP” is written as “TVDQU”. How is “FLAME” written in that code?
    a) SRLFE
    b) JDKAL
    c) GNDQJ
    d) UDQKA
    Answer: c
    Explanation: Here, every letter of the word moves +n from its position where n is position of alphabet in the word.
    i.e. for STAMP, S+1→T, T+2→V, A+3→D, M+4→Q, P→U.
    Similarly, for FLAME, F+1→G, L+2→N, A+3→D, M+4→Q, E+5→J.
    Hence, the answer is GNDQJ.

     

  14. In a certain code “PIEGON” is written as “OHDFNM”. How is “OSTRICH” written in that code?
    a) BWKXUAF
    b) NRSQHBG
    c) SHXALCE
    d) GQWPNCV
    Answer: b
    Explanation: Here, each letter moves -1 from its original position.
    i.e. for “PIEGON” the code is OHDFNM.
    Similarly, for “OSTRICH” the code is NRSQHBG.
    Hence, the answer is NRSQHBG.

     

  15. Introducing a boy, a man said, “He is son of my father’s grandson”. How is that man related to the boy?
    a) Father
    b) Brother
    c) Grandfather
    d) Husband
    Answer: c
    Explanation: Here, it is given that the boy is son of man’s father’s grandson i.e. the boy is son of that man’s son. So, the boy is grandson of that man.
    Hence, the answer is Grandfather.

     

  16. If P is sister of T, V is brother of K and T is son of V.M is mother of P, L is son of K. How is V related to M?
    a) Father
    b) Grandson
    c) Brother
    d) Husband
    Answer: d
    Explanation: Here, it is clear that V is brother of K and T is son of V and P is sister of T. if M is mother of P then V definitely is husband of M.
    Hence the answer is Husband.
  17. K is the son of A’s father’s sister. D is the father of G and grandfather of A. P is the daughter of H who is grandmother of K. D is husband of H and G is husband of L. Who is mother of K?
    a) A
    b) L
    c) P
    d) H
    Answer: c
    Explanation: Here, it is given that A’s father is G and K is son of A’s father’s sister i.e. G’s sister. Since, P is sister of G therefore, P is the mother of K.
    Hence the answer is P.

     

  18. GTFC : MYLH :: KMFE : ?
    a) PRLK
    b) DZSX
    c) DAEK
    d) EGJR
    Answer: a
    Explanation: From analyzing the left side, we can conclude that each letter of the first group is moved 5 step forward to obtain the corresponding letter of the second group.
    i.e. G + 5 ➔ M, T + 5 ➔ Y, F + 5 ➔ L, C + 5 ➔ H.
    By using the same logic, we can conclude that PRLK is the correct answer.

     

  19. Greece : Athens :: Kenya : ?
    a) London
    b) Nairobi
    c) Amsterdam
    d) Prague
    Answer: b
    Explanation: From analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Athens is the capital of Greece.
    By using the same logic, we can conclude that Nairobi is the capital of Kenya.
    Hence, Nairobi is the answer.
  20. Which of the region in the following figure represents people who participated in High Jump and Javelin Throw but not Shotput? Must Attempt Quiz Before Exam For OSSSC RI, ARI, AMIN, SFS, ICDS Supervisor 2024_4.1
    a) A + E – B
    b) A + G – D
    c) E + F – G
    d) E + G – F
    Answer: a
    Explanation: Here, region A + E – B represents the people who participated in High jump and Javelin Throw but not Shotput.
    Hence A + E – B is the answer.
  21. Question: Identify the synonym for ‘Ubiquitous.’
    A. Scarce
    B. Abundant
    C. Pervasive
    D. Rare
    Answer: C. Pervasive

     

  22. Question: Choose the correct spelling:
    A. Bureaucracy
    B. Beureaucracy
    C. Burocracy
    D. Bureucracy
    Answer: A. Bureaucracy

     

  23. Question: What is the antonym for ‘Cacophony’?
    A. Harmony
    B. Dissonance
    C. Discord
    D. Noise
    Answer: A. Harmony

     

  24. Question: Select the appropriate preposition: The cat jumped ______ the table.
    A. on
    B. over
    C. in
    D. under
    Answer: A. on

     

  25. Question: Identify the part of speech of the word ‘Happiness.’
    A. Verb
    B. Adjective
    C. Adverb
    D. Noun
    Answer: D. Noun

     

  26. Question: Choose the correct form of the verb: She _____ to the market yesterday.
    A. go
    B. goes
    C. went
    D. going
    Answer: C. went

     

  27. Question: What does the acronym ‘UNESCO’ stand for?
    A. United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization
    B. United Nations Economic and Social Council
    C. United Nations Environment and Sustainable Conservation Organization
    D. Universal Network for Education, Science, and Cultural Oversight
    Answer: A. United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization

     

  28. Question: Choose the correctly punctuated sentence:
    A. The concert starts at 7:30 p.m.
    B. The concert starts at 7.30 pm.
    C. The concert starts at 7 30 p.m
    D. The concert starts at 7:30:00 PM
    Answer: A. The concert starts at 7:30 p.m.

     

  29. Question: Identify the figure of speech in the sentence: “The world is a stage.”
    A. Metaphor
    B. Simile
    C. Personification
    D. Hyperbole
    Answer: A. Metaphor

     

  30. Question: What is the meaning of the idiom ‘Bite the bullet’?
    A. To endure a painful experience
    B. To enjoy a delicious meal
    C. To avoid a difficult situation
    D. To chew gum
    Answer: A. To endure a painful experience
  31. ‘ଚଷୁ କୁଟିବା’ – ରୂଢିଟିର ଅର୍ଥ କ’ଣ?
    A) ବ୍ୟର୍ଥ ପରିଶ୍ରମ କରିବା
    B) ପରଖ୍
    C) ଧାନ କୁଟିବା
    D) ଉପାର୍ଜନ କରିବା
    Ans: A) ବ୍ୟର୍ଥ ପରିଶ୍ରମ କରିବା
  32. ‘ଗାଙ୍ଗେୟ’ ଶବ୍ଦର ବ୍ୟୁପ୍‌ ଗତ ଅର୍ଥ ନିମ୍ନଲିଖିତ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ କେଉଁଟି ଠିକ ଦର୍ଶାଅ ।
    A) ଗଙ୍ଗାଙ୍କର ସନ୍ତାନ
    B) ଗଙ୍ଗାମାତା
    C) ଗଙ୍ଗାପତି
    D) ଗଙ୍ଗାର ଉତ୍ପତ୍ତି
    Ans: A) ଗଙ୍ଗାଙ୍କର ସନ୍ତାନ
  33. ଭିନ୍ନଧର୍ମୀ ଶବ୍ଦଟି ଚିହ୍ନଟ କର |
    A) ରନ୍ଧନ
    B) ଜଣାଣ
    C) ଗାୟକ
    D) ଭୋଜନ
    Ans: C) ଗାୟକ
  34. ନିମ୍ନଲିଖିତ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ କେଉଁଟି ‘ଅପରାଧୀ’ ର ବିପରୀତ ଶବ୍ଦ?
    A) ନିରପରାଧ
    B) ଅର୍ଥୀ
    C) ଅପାୟ
    D) ଅପରାଜିତ
    Ans: A) ନିରପରାଧ
  35. ନିମ୍ନୋକ୍ତ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ କେଉଁଟି ଉପସର୍ଗରେ ଗଠିତ ଶବ୍ଦ ନୁହେଁ?
    A) ବାଦ
    B) ପ୍ରତିବାଦ
    C) ସଂବାଦ
    D) ଅନୁବାଦ
    Ans: A) ବାଦ
  36. ରାମବାବୁଙ୍କ ପାଖରେ ଟଙ୍କା ପଇସା କିଛି ନଥିବାରୁ ଖାଲି ହାତରେ ଘରକୁ ଫେରିଲେ ରେଖାଙ୍କିତ ଶବ୍ଦଟି କି ପ୍ରକାର ଯୁଗ୍ମ ଶବ୍ଦ?
    A) ବିପରୀତାର୍ଥକ
    B) ଦ୍ଵିରୁକ୍ତି
    C) ସମାନର୍ଥକ
    D) ସାର୍ଥକ ଓ ନିରର୍ଥକ
    Ans: C) ସମାନର୍ଥକ
  37. ନିମ୍ନଲିଖିତତ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ କେଉଁଟି ଏକ ତତ୍ ସମ ଶବ୍ଦ ଅଟେ?
    A) ପିଠି
    B) ଗଭୀର
    C) ଆଠ
    D) ଭଉଣୀ
    Ans: B) ଗଭୀର
  38. ‘ସମ୍ବନ୍ଧ ପଦ’ ରେ କେଉଁ ବିଭକ୍ତି ହୁଏ?
    A) ତୃତୀୟା
    B) ଷଷ୍ଠୀ
    C) ଚତୁର୍ଥୀ
    D) ପଞ୍ଚମୀ
    Ans: B) ଷଷ୍ଠୀ
  39. ‘ପାନିଆଁ’- କେଉଁ ଶ୍ରେଣୀ ର ଶବ୍ଦ ଅଟେ?
    A) ବୈଦେଶିକ
    B) ତଦ୍ ଭବ
    C) ତତ୍ ସମ
    D) ଦେଶଜ
    Ans: D) ଦେଶଜ
  40. ‘ଦନ୍ତୀ’ ଶବ୍ଦରେ କେଉଁ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ଲାଗିଛି?
    A) ଅନ୍
    B) ଈ
    C) ତିନ୍
    D) ଇନ୍
    Ans: D) ଇନ୍
  41. The Public Service Commissions in the Indian Constitution are influenced by:
    (a) USA
    (b) UK
    (c) Government of India Act 1935
    (d) Canada
    Ans: (c) Government of India Act 1935
  42. The Office of Governor in the Indian Constitution is influenced by:
    (a) USA
    (b) UK
    (c) Government of India Act 1935
    (d) Canada
    Ans: (c) Government of India Act 1935
  43. The Judiciary in the Indian Constitution is influenced by:
    (a) USA
    (b) UK
    (c) Government of India Act 1935
    (d) Canada
    Ans: (c) Government of India Act 1935
  44. The Administrative Details in the Indian Constitution are influenced by:
    (a) USA
    (b) UK
    (c) Government of India Act 1935
    (d) Canada
    Ans: (c) Government of India Act 1935
  45. The provision for equal protection under the law in the Indian Constitution is influenced by:
    (a) USA
    (b) UK
    (c) Canada
    (d) Australia
    Ans: (a) USA
  46. The President of India as the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces is influenced by:
    (a) USA
    (b) UK
    (c) Canada
    (d) Ireland
    Ans: (a) USA
  47. The World Book and Copyright Day is observed on:
    (a) 22nd April
    (b) 23rd April
    (c) 24th April
    (d) 25th April
    Ans: (b) 23rd April
  48. The World Malala Day is observed on:
    (a) 11th July
    (b) 12th July
    (c) 13th July
    (d) 14th July
    Ans: (b) 12th July
  49. Nelson Mandela International Day is observed on:
    (a) 17th July
    (b) 18th July
    (c) 19th July
    (d) 20th July
    Ans: (b) 18th July
  50. The International Day of World’s Indigenous People is observed on:
    (a) 8th August
    (b) 9th August
    (c) 10th August
    (d) 11th August
    Ans: (b) 9th August

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