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Odisha B.Ed Entrance 2024 Arts Practice Full Length Mock Test 2

The Odisha B.Ed. 2024 Arts Practice Full Length Mock Test 1 is designed to simulate the actual exam environment, providing candidates with a comprehensive understanding of the test format. This mock test covers all essential topics in the Arts stream, including History, Political Science, Geography, and English. By attempting this practice test, candidates can assess their preparation level, identify strengths and weaknesses, and improve their time management skills. The detailed Ans key and explanations provided after the test help in clarifying doubts and enhancing conceptual clarity. Regular practice with such mock tests is crucial for achieving a high score in the Odisha B.Ed. 2024 Arts exam.

Odisha B.Ed. Entrance 2024 Arts Practice Full Length Mock Test 2

Section I

  1. Look at this series: 2, 1, (1/2), (1/4), … What number should come next?
    (a) (1/3)
    (b) (1/8)
    (c) (2/8)
    (d) (1/16)
    Ans: (b) (1/8)
    Explanation:
    4/2 = 2
    2/2 = 1
    1/2 = 1/2
    (1/2)/2 = 1/4
    (1/4)/2 = 1/8 and so on.Look at this series: 7, 10, 8, 11, 9, 12, … What number should come next?
    (a) 7
    (b) 10
    (c) 12
    (d) 13
    Ans: (d) 13
    Explanation:
    This is a simple alternating addition and subtraction series. In the first pattern, 3 is added; in the second, 2 is subtracted
  2. Look at this series: 36, 34, 30, 28, 24, … What number should come next?
    (a) 20
    (b) 22
    (c) 23
    (d) 26
    Ans: (b) 22
    Explanation:
    This is an alternating number subtraction series. First, 2 is subtracted, then 4, then 2, and so on.
  3. Look at this series: SCD, TEF, UGH, ____, WKL
    (a) CMN
    (b) UJI
    (c) VIJ
    (d) IJT
    Ans: (c) VIJ
    Explanation:
    There are two alphabetical series here. The first series is with the first letters only: S, T, U, V, W. The second series involves the remaining letters: CD, EF, GH, IJ, KL.
  4. Look at this series: ELFA, GLHA, ILJA, _____, MLNA
    (a) OLPA
    (b) KLMA
    (c) LLMA
    (d) KLLA
    Ans: (b) KLMA
    Explanation:
    The second and fourth letters in the series, L and A, are stati(c) The first and third letters consist of an alphabetical order beginning with the letter E.
  5. Look at this series: CMM, EOO, GQQ, _____, KUU
    (a) GRR
    (b) GSS
    (c) ISS
    (d) ITT
    Ans: (c) ISS
    Explanation:
    The first letters are in alphabetical order with a letter skipped in between each segment: C, E, G, I, K. The second and third letters are repeated; they are also in order with a skipped letter: M, O, Q, S, U.
  6. Which word does NOT belong with the others?
    (a) Tulip
    (b) Rose
    (c) Bud
    (d) Daisy
    Ans: C
    Explanation: Tulip, rose, and daisy are all types of flowers. A bud is not.
  7. Which word does NOT belong with the others?
    (a) Rye
    (b) Sourdough
    (c) Pumpernickel
    (d) Loaf
    Ans: A
    Explanation: Loaf, sourdough, and pumpernickel are types of brea(d) A rye is not a bread type.
    Additional definitions for context:
    Loaf: Bread that is shaped and baked in one piece and usually sliced before being eaten.
    Pumpernickel: Dark, dense German bread made from coarsely ground whole-grain rye.
    Sourdough: Leaven for making bread, consisting of fermenting dough, typically that left over from a previous batch.
    Rye: A wheat-like cereal plant that tolerates poor soils and low temperatures.
  8. In which year was Rahul born?
    Statements:
    Rahul at present is 25 years younger to his mother.
    Rahul’s brother, who was born in 1964, is 35 years younger to his mother.
    (a) I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient
    (b) II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
    (c) Either I or II is sufficient
    (d) Neither I nor II is sufficient
    E. Both I and II are sufficient
    Ans: E
    Explanation: From both statements, we find that Rahul is (35 – 25) = 10 years older than his brother, who was born in 1964. So, Rahul was born in 1954.
  9. How many children does M have?
    Statements:
    H is the only daughter of X who is wife of M.
    K and J are brothers of M.
    (a) I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient
    (b) II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
    (c) Either I or II is sufficient
    (d) Neither I nor II is sufficient
    E. Both I and II are sufficient
    Ans: D
    Explanation: From statement I, H is the only daughter of M, but this does not indicate that M has no son. The information given in II is immaterial.
  10. Pointing to a photograph of a boy, Suresh said, “He is the son of the only son of my mother.” How is Suresh related to that boy?
    (a) Brother
    (b) Uncle
    (c) Cousin
    (d) Father
    Ans: (d) Father
    Explanation: The boy in the photograph is the son of the only son of Suresh’s mother, i.e., the son of Suresh. Hence, Suresh is the father of the boy.
  11. Which state is India’s largest Bauxite producer?
    (a) Odisha
    (b) Jharkhand
    (c) Rajasthan
    (d) Karnataka
    Ans: (a) Odisha
  12. With which country does India share the maximum length of border?
    (a) Pakistan
    (b) China
    (c) Bangladesh
    (d) Nepal
    Ans: (c) Bangladesh
  13. Which states correspond to the maximum and minimum road length in India?
    (a) Madhya Pradesh and Andaman & Nicobar
    (b) Madhya Pradesh and Lakshdweep
    (c) Maharastra and Lakshadweep
    (d) Maharastra and Damn & Diu
    Ans: (c) Maharastra and Lakshadweep
  14. Which soil is predominantly found in the Rarh Region of West Bengal?
    (a) Alluvial Soil
    (b) Red Soil
    (c) Black Soil
    (d) Acid sulfate soil
    Ans: (b) Red Soil
  15. Which river feeds the Tehri Dam?
    (a) Alaknanda
    (b) Bhagirathi
    (c) Gandak
    (d) Ghagghar
    Ans: (b) Bhagirathi
  16. Famous tourist spots like Chatham Saw Mill, Wandoor Beach, Mount Harriet & Limestone Caves are located in which state?
    (a) Goa
    (b) Andaman & Nicobar Islands
    (c) Lakshadweep
    (d) Tamil Nadu
    Ans: (b) Andaman & Nicobar Islands
  17. Central Institute of Indian Languages is located in:
    (a) Bangalore
    (b) Mysore
    (c) Bhopal
    (d) Lucknow
    Ans: (b) Mysore
  18. The Gandhi Sagar Dam is built on which river in Madhya Pradesh?
    (a) Narmada
    (b) Chambal
    (c) Son
    (d) Tapti
    Ans: (b) Chambal
  19. How many states of India share its border with Bhutan?
    (a) 2
    (b) 3
    (c) 4
    (d) 5
    Ans: (c) 4
  20. What is the main reason the average temperature of the Earth remains fairly steady compared to that of the moon?
    (a) Hydrosphere
    (b) Biosphere
    (c) Lithosphere
    (d) Atmosphere
    Ans: (d) Atmosphere
  21. On which list is education in the Indian Constitution?
    (a) Central list
    (b) Concurrent list
    (c) State list
    (d) None of the above lists
    Ans: (b) Concurrent list
    Education, including technical education, medical education and universities, vocational and technical training of labour, is on this list.
  22. Computer Assisted Instruction is based on ________ principle.
    (a) Classical Conditioning
    (b) Operant Conditioning
    (c) Pavlovian Conditioning
    (d) Respondent Conditioning
    e) Sender Conditioning
    Ans: (b) Operant Conditioning
    The use of computers in education started in the 1960s.
  23. Which of the following is Doordarshan’s Educational Television Channel?
    (a) Gurukul
    (b) Gyan Bharati
    (c) Gyan Darshan
    (d) Vidya
    Ans: (c) Gyan Darshan
    Gyan Darshan was launched on January 26, 2000.
  24. Which of the following affects an individual’s development at a given time?
    (a) Their experiences
    (b) Interaction of nature and nurture
    (c) Inherited potentialities
    (d) Social pressure on the individual
    Ans: (b) Interaction of nature and nurture
    The process of early brain development is constantly modified by environmental influences.
  25. For __________, ‘Experimentation’ is the standard procedure to know the truth.
    (a) Public Administration
    (b) Geography
    (c) Archaeology
    (d) Science
    Ans: (d) Science
    The purpose of an experiment is to determine whether observations agree or conflict with the predictions derived from a hypothesis.
  26. The _____ amendment added “Fundamental Duties” to the Constitution of Indi(a)
    (a) 42nd Amendment
    (b) 54th Amendment
    (c) 83rd Amendment
    (d) 93rd Amendment
    Ans: (a) 42nd Amendment
    The “Fundamental Duties” were added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976.
  27. Cause and effect relationships are studied by _____ studies.
    (a) Clinical
    (b) Comparative
    (c) Developmental
    (d) Experimental
    e) Objective
    Ans: (d) Experimental
    A cause-effect relationship is a relationship in which one event (the cause) makes another event happen (the effect).
  28. The development of a student’s personality is affected the most by __________.
    (a) Discipline at institute
    (b) Emotional climate at home
    (c) Inherited assets and liabilities
    (d) Social orientation of peers and elders
    Ans: (b) Emotional climate at home
    Feelings of physical safety and emotional security are vitally important for the development of a student. Students feel free to express themselves and explore their physical, intellectual, and social environments when these are present.
  29. Which of the following situations would be best for maximum transfer of learning?
    (a) Different tasks requiring different responses
    (b) Different tasks requiring the same response
    (c) Similar tasks requiring different responses
    (d) Similar tasks requiring the same response
    Ans: (b) Different tasks requiring the same response
    The behavioral approach to transfer is based upon the issue of similarities and differences in learning and the transfer situation.
  30. Which one of the following is the most important element in teaching?
    (a) Relationship between teachers and students
    (b) Subject matter
    (c) Teaching techniques and aids used
    (d) Student’s knowledge
    Ans: (a) Relationship between teachers and students
    Improving students’ relationships with teachers has important, positive, and long-lasting implications for students’ academic and social development.
  31. Change the narration: The teacher said, “Do not make noise.”
    (a) The teacher told the students do not make noise.
    (b) The teacher asked the students do not make noise.
    (c) The teacher told the students not to make noise.
    (d) The teacher asked the students not to make noise.
    Ans: (c) The teacher told the students not to make noise.
  32. Which strategy can help improve comprehension?
    (a) Skimming the text quickly
    (b) Memorizing sentences
    (c) Highlighting key points
    (d) Reading aloud
    Ans: (c) Highlighting key points
  33. Which method involves teaching language through immersion in a second language environment?
    (a) Grammar-Translation Method
    (b) Direct Method
    (c) Silent Way
    (d) Natural Approach
    Ans: (d) Natural Approach
  34. The process of evaluating students’ understanding of instructional materials is called:
    (a) Instructional design
    (b) Formative assessment
    (c) Summative assessment
    (d) Curriculum development
    Ans: (b) Formative assessment
  35. Fill in the blank with the correct article: “I visited ___ university in London last week.”
    (a) a
    (b) an
    (c) the
    (d) no article
    Ans: (a) a
  36. Choose the correct article: “She is ___ honest woman.”
    (a) a
    (b) an
    (c) the
    (d) no article
    Ans: (b) an
  37. Fill in the blank with the correct article: “He is ___ tallest boy in the class.”
    (a) a
    (b) an
    (c) the
    (d) no article
    Ans: (c) the
  38. What is phonemic awareness?
    (a) Recognizing written words
    (b) Understanding sentence structure
    (c) Identifying individual sounds in words
    (d) Using appropriate grammar
    Ans: (c) Identifying individual sounds in words
  39. Choose the correct punctuation for the following sentence: “She said I am leaving now.”
    (a) She said I am leaving now.
    (b) She said, I am leaving now.
    (c) She said, “I am leaving now.”
    (d) She said “I am leaving now.”
    Ans: (c) She said, “I am leaving now.”
  40. Select the correct spelling:
    (a) Accomodation
    (b) Accomadation
    (c) Accommodation
    (d) Acommodation
    Ans: (c) Accommodation

Section II

  1. What was the main economic activity during the Delhi Sultanate period?
    (a) Industrialization
    (b) Agriculture
    (c) Trade
    (d) Mining
    Ans: (b) Agriculture
  2. Who established the Khilji dynasty in India?
    (a) Qutb-ud-din Aibak
    (b) Alauddin Khilji
    (c) Jalal-ud-din Khilji
    (d) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
    Ans: (c) Jalal-ud-din Khilji
  3. Which Mughal emperor introduced the policy of Din-i Ilahi?
    (a) Babur
    (b) Akbar
    (c) Aurangzeb
    (d) Shah Jahan
    Ans: (b) Akbar
  4. The East India Company was established in which year?
    (a) 1600
    (b) 1700
    (c) 1757
    (d) 1800
    Ans: (a) 1600
  5. Who was the first Governor-General of India under the British Crown?
    (a) Lord Wellesley
    (b) Lord Dalhousie
    (c) Lord Canning
    (d) Warren Hastings
    Ans: (c) Lord Canning
  6. Kharavela, an ancient Indian king, belonged to which dynasty?
    (a) Gupta
    (b) Maurya
    (c) Chedi
    (d) Satavahana
    Ans: (c) Chedi
  7. Ashoka’s conversion to Buddhism occurred after which battle?
    (a) Battle of Kalinga
    (b) Battle of Panipat
    (c) Battle of Hydaspes
    (d) Battle of Plassey
    Ans: (a) Battle of Kalinga
  8. The Ganga dynasty ruled over which present-day Indian state?
    (a) Maharashtra
    (b) Tamil Nadu
    (c) Odisha
    (d) West Bengal
    Ans: (c) Odisha
  9. The Somavamshi dynasty was known for which architectural achievement?
    (a) Sun Temple at Konark
    (b) Jagannath Temple at Puri
    (c) Brihadeeswarar Temple
    (d) Khajuraho Temples
    Ans: (b) Jagannath Temple at Puri
  10. Under which Mughal ruler did Odisha become part of the empire?
    (a) Akbar
    (b) Humayun
    (c) Jahangir
    (d) Shah Jahan
    Ans: (a) Akbar
  11. Which movement was led by Mahatma Gandhi to protest against the Rowlatt Act?
    (a) Non-Cooperation Movement
    (b) Civil Disobedience Movement
    (c) Quit India Movement
    (d) Champaran Satyagraha
    Ans: (a) Non-Cooperation Movement
  12. Who among the following was a prominent leader during the Swadeshi Movement?
    (a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
    (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
    (c) Subhas Chandra Bose
    (d) Bhagat Singh
    Ans: (a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
  13. The Industrial Revolution in Europe began in which century?
    (a) 15th century
    (b) 16th century
    (c) 18th century
    (d) 19th century
    Ans: (c) 18th century
  14. Which treaty ended the First Anglo-Maratha War?
    (a) Treaty of Purandar
    (b) Treaty of Salbai
    (c) Treaty of Bassein
    (d) Treaty of Surat
    Ans: (b) Treaty of Salbai
  15. Which country’s constitution was the first to start with a preamble?
    (a) India
    (b) USA
    (c) UK
    (d) France
    Ans: (b) USA
  16. Who referred to the Preamble as the ‘Identity card of the Constitution’?
    (a) (b)R. Ambedkar
    (b) Sardar Patel
    (c) N.(a) Palkhivala
    (d) Jawaharlal Nehru
    Ans: (c) N.(a) Palkhivala
  17. What amendment added the words ‘socialist’, ‘secular’, and ‘integrity’ to the Preamble?
    (a) 44th Amendment
    (b) 42nd Amendment
    (c) 24th Amendment
    (d) 61st Amendment
    Ans: (b) 42nd Amendment
  18. The Preamble declares India to be a sovereign, socialist, secular, and __________ state.
    (a) Monarchical
    (b) Democratic
    (c) Communist
    (d) Federal
    Ans: (b) Democratic
  19. From which country did India borrow the Directive Principles of State Policy?
    (a) USA
    (b) UK
    (c) Ireland
    (d) Australia
    Ans: (c) Ireland
  20. Which feature is borrowed from the Canadian Constitution?
    (a) Fundamental Rights
    (b) Vesting residuary powers
    (c) Independence of the judiciary
    (d) Procedure of amendment
    Ans: (b) Vesting residuary powers
  21. Which Greek philosopher originally proposed the concept of dividing the Earth into climatic zones based on the distance from the equator?
    (a) Socrates
    (b) Plato
    (c) Parmenides
    (d) Aristotle
    Ans: (c) Parmenides
  22. According to Parmenides and Aristotle, which zone is located closest to the equator and is known for being extremely hot?
    (a) Temperate Zone
    (b) Torrid Zone
    (c) Frigid Zone
    (d) Polar Zone
    Ans: (b) Torrid Zone
  23. What name did Aristotle give to the region that Parmenides thought was too hot for living and is located around the equator?
    (a) Torrid Zone
    (b) Temperate Zone
    (c) Frigid Zone
    (d) Equatorial Zone
    Ans: (a) Torrid Zone
  24. Which climatic zone, according to both Parmenides and Aristotle, is considered to be perpetually frozen and uninhabitable?
    (a) Temperate Zone
    (b) Torrid Zone
    (c) Frigid Zone
    (d) Glacial Zone
    Ans: (c) Frigid Zone
  25. In which zone do both philosophers believe is the only habitable area, lying between the Frigid Zone and the Torrid Zone?
    (a) Equatorial Zone
    (b) Polar Zone
    (c) Tropical Zone
    (d) Temperate Zone
    Ans: (d) Temperate Zone
  26. Which layer of the Earth is composed of solid iron and nickel due to extreme pressure?
    (a) Crust
    (b) Mantle
    (c) Outer Core
    (d) Inner Core
    Ans: (d) Inner Core
  27. The asthenosphere is characterized by which of the following properties?
    (a) It is a rigid and brittle layer.
    (b) It is partially molten and ductile.
    (c) It is composed primarily of solid iron.
    (d) It is located above the lithosphere.
    Ans: (b) It is partially molten and ductile.
  28. What is the primary source of material for laboratory analysis obtained from volcanic eruptions?
    (a) Basalt
    (b) Granite
    (c) Magma
    (d) Meteorites
    Ans: (c) Magma
  29. The boundary between the Earth’s crust and the upper mantle is known as the:
    (a) Conrad Discontinuity
    (b) Mohorovicic (Moho) Discontinuity
    (c) Gutenberg Discontinuity
    (d) Lehmann Discontinuity
    Ans: (b) Mohorovicic (Moho) Discontinuity
  30. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of calculating BOP?
    (a) Analyzing overall gains and losses from international trade
    (b) Giving warning signals for future policy formation
    (c) Determining internal budget allocations
    (d) Knowing the composition and direction of international trade
    Ans. (c) Determining internal budget allocations
  31. Which of the following accounts is NOT a part of the Balance of Payments?
    (a) Current Account
    (b) Capital Account
    (c) Financial Account
    (d) Savings Account
    Ans. (d) Savings Account
  32. What is recorded in the Current Account of the BOP?
    (a) Inflows and outflows of capital
    (b) International capital transfers
    (c) Export and import of goods and services
    (d) Government-owned assets
    Ans. (c) Export and import of goods and services
  33. In the BOP, if a country has received money, this transaction is known as:
    (a) Debit
    (b) Credit
    (c) Deficit
    (d) Surplus
    Ans. (b) Credit
  34. Which component of the Current Account includes worker’s remittances and foreign aids?
    (a) Merchandise trade
    (b) Services
    (c) Receipts from income-generating assets
    (d) Unilateral transfers
    Ans. (d) Unilateral transfers
  35. Which layer of the Earth’s interior is responsible for generating the planet’s magnetic field?
    (a) Lithosphere
    (b) Asthenosphere
    (c) Outer Core
    (d) Inner Core
    Ans: (c) Outer Core
  36. ଯେଉଁ ସଂସ୍କୃତ ଶବ୍ଦଗୁଡ଼ିକ ସାମାନ୍ୟ ରୂପରେ ପରିବର୍ଭନ ହୋଇ ଆମ ଭାଷାରେ ଚଳୁଛି ସେଗୁଡ଼ିକୁ କ’ଣ କୁହାଯାଏ ?
    (a) ତତ୍ସମ
    (b) ତଭବ
    (c) ଦେଶଜ
    (d) ବୈଦେଶିକ
    Ans.  (b) ତଭବ
  37. ଯେଉଁ ଶବ୍ଦଗୁଡ଼ିକ ଦୀର୍ଘକାଳ ଧରି ଆମ ଭାଷାରେ ଚଳି | ଆସୁଅଛି, ସେଗୁଡ଼ିକୁ କଣ କହନ୍ତି ?
    (a) ତତ୍ସମ
    (b) ତଭବ
    (c) ଦେଶଜ
    (d) ବୈଦେଶିକ
    Ans.  (c) ଦେଶଜ
  38. ଯେଉଁ ଶବ୍ଦଗୁଡ଼ିକ ଅନ୍ୟ ଭାଷାରୁ ଆସି ଆମ ଭାଷାରେ ବ୍ୟବହୃତ ହେଉଅଛି, ସେଗୁଡ଼ିକୁ କଣ କହନ୍ତି ?
    (a) ତତସମ
    (b) ତଭବ
    (c) ଦେଶଜ
    (d) ବୈଦେଶିକ
    Ans.  (d) ବୈଦେଶିକ
  39. କେଉଁଟି ବୈଦେଶିକ ବ୍ୟାପାଦିତ ଶବ୍ଦ ?
    (a) ଟାଜୁନ
    (b) ସହର
    (c) ସିଟି
    (d) ଟାଉନିଆ
    Ans.  (d) ଟାଉନିଆ
  40. ଦୁଃପାଦିତ ଶବ୍ଦ ନୁହେଁ ।
    (a) ବୀଣା
    (b) ଦେଶର
    (c) ବ୍ୟାକରଣ
    (d) ପରୀକ୍ଷା
    Ans.  (c) ବ୍ୟାକରଣ
  41. କ୍ରିୟାର ମୂଳପିଣ୍ଡକୁ କ’ଣ କହନ୍ତି ?
    (a) କ୍ରିୟା
    (b) କାଳ
    (c) ଧାତୁ
    (d) ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ
    Ans.  (c) ଧାତୁ
  42. ଧାତୁ ସହିତ କ’ଣ ଯୋଗକଲେ ଶବ୍ଦ ଗଠନ କରାଯାଏ ?
    (a) ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ
    (b) ଅନ୍ୟଧାତୁ
    (c) ଅନ୍ୟଶବ୍ଦ
    (d) କେଉଁଟି ନୁହେଁ
    Ans.  (a) ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ
  43. ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟର ସ୍ଥାନ ଧାତ୍ମର କେଉଁଠାରେ ରହେ ନାହିଁ ?
    (a) ଧାତୁର ପୂର୍ବରୁ
    (b) ଧାତୁର ପରେ
    (c) ଧାତୁର ପୂର୍ବରୁ ଓ ପରେ ।
    (d) ଧାତୁର ଉପରେ
    Ans.  (d) ଧାତୁର ଉପରେ
  44. ଶବ୍ଦ କାହା ଯୋଗୁଁ ଅର୍ଥ ପ୍ରକାଶ କରିବାରେ ସମର୍ଥ ହୁଏ ?
    (a) କେବଳ ଧାତୁ ଯୋଗୁଁ
    (b) କେବଳ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ଯୋଗୁଁ
    (c) ଧାତୁ ଓ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ଉଭୟ ଯୋଗୁ
    (d) ନିଜ ଗୁଣ ଯୋଗୁଁ
    Ans.  (c) ଧାତୁ ଓ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ଉଭୟ ଯୋଗୁ
  45. ଧାତୁର ପୂର୍ବରୁ ଯେଉଁ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ଯୋଗ ହୁଏ, ତାକୁ କ’ଣ କହନ୍ତି ?
    (a) ପର ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ
    (b) ପୂର୍ବ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ।
    (c) ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ
    (d) ବିରକ୍ତି
    Ans.  (b) ପୂର୍ବ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ
  46. Find the synonym of “candid”:
    (a) Secretive
    (b) Honest
    (c) Evasive
    (d) Tactful
    Ans: (b) Honest
  47. What is the antonym of “obscure”?
    (a) Clear
    (b) Hidden
    (c) Ambiguous
    (d) Unknown
    Ans: (a) Clear
  48. Identify the part of speech for the word “quickly” in the sentence: “She ran quickly to the store.”
    (a) Noun
    (b) Verb
    (c) Adverb
    (d) Adjective
    Ans: (c) Adverb
  49. What is the part of speech for the word “happiness” in the sentence: “Happiness is the key to success.”
    (a) Verb
    (b) Adjective
    (c) Noun
    (d) Adverb
    Ans: (c) Noun
  50. Choose the part of speech for the word “blue” in the sentence: “She wore a blue dress.”
    (a) Noun
    (b) Verb
    (c) Adjective
    (d) Adverb
    Ans: (c) Adjective
  51. Identify the part of speech for the word “under” in the sentence: “The cat is under the table.”
    (a) Noun
    (b) Preposition
    (c) Verb
    (d) Adjective
    Ans: (b) Preposition
    Fill in the Blanks on Verb Correct Form
  52. She ________ (to write) a letter when the phone rang.
    (a) Writes
    (b) Was writing
    (c) Wrote
    (d) Writing
    Ans: (b) Was writing
  53. They __________ (to go) to the park every Sunday.
    (a) Goes
    (b) Gone
    (c) Go
    (d) Going
    Ans: (c) Go
  54. By the time we arrived, the train __________ (to leave).
    (a) Leaves
    (b) Leaving
    (c) Left
    (d) Had left
    Ans: (d) Had left
  55. He __________ (to speak) English fluently.
    (a) Speak
    (b) Speaking
    (c) Speaks
    (d) Spoken
    Ans: (c) Speaks
  56. Choose the correct tense: “She _________ (to finish) her homework by 8 PM.”(a) Finishes
    (b) Finished
    (c) Will finish
    (d) Has finished
    Ans: (c) Will finish
  57. Identify the tense: “They __________ (to play) when it started to rain.”
    (a) Play
    (b) Were playing
    (c) Played
    (d) Have played
    Ans: (b) Were playing
  58. What is the tense of “He __________ (to eat) lunch at noon every day”?
    (a) Eats
    (b) Ate
    (c) Eating
    (d) Eat
    Ans: (a) Eats
  59. Which tense is used in: “By next week, she __________ (to complete) the project.”
    (a) Will have completed
    (b) Completes
    (c) Completing
    (d) Completed
    Ans: (a) Will have completed
  60. Which of the following sentences uses a noun correctly?
    (a) She ran fastly.
    (b) The cat is under the table.
    (c) He danced goo(d)
    (d) They quickly finished their work.
    Ans: (b) The cat is under the table.

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