Odisha Civil Services Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | July 3rd Week 2023

The mock paper consists of a comprehensive set of questions that are framed in accordance with the syllabus prescribed by the OPSC. It aims to evaluate the candidates’ analytical and problem-solving abilities, as well as their familiarity with important concepts, events, and issues.

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Q1. Which one of the following international/regional organizations has recently adopted the ‘Master Plan for Transport Connectivity’?

1. Group of Twenty (G-20)
2. Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN)
3. Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC)
4. North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)

 

S1.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option c is the correct answer. Recently, the fifth summit of the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) was concluded in March, 2022 in Colombo. The organization is also celebrating its 25th year of the formation, which was launched in 1997. The summit had three important outcomes: 1) Expanding the grouping’s agenda, deepening cooperation between the member countries and planning systematically for consistency and coherence. 2) The BIMSTEC charter was finalised after more than two decades. It articulates the purpose, principles, legal standing and regular meeting of the organisation. It stipulates that consensus is required for admission of new members and increasing the number of observer countries of the organisation. 3) The Master Plan for Transport Connectivity has been adopted. It has been proposed to extend the trilateral highway project between Thailand, Myanmar and India to Laos and Cambodia. Further, Bangladesh, Bhutan and Nepal have also shown interest in the project. These measures will ensure seamless connectivity through multi-modal channels. It will deepen cooperation in the region. The organization has proposed to conclude the regional free trade agreement. It will give a fillip to the organisation’s efforts. The MoU has been signed for legal assistance in criminal matters. Further, additional MOUs have been signed for mutual cooperation between diplomatic academics and training

institutes. An Eminent Persons’ Group (EPG) is to be established on the lines of the EU, G20, and ASEAN.

It will formulate a vision document for the region. It will suggest a roadmap to address the challenges in

the future.

 

Q2. Consider the following statements

1. A vostro account is an account that domestic banks hold for foreign banks in hard currencies
2. Special Vostro Rupee Accounts (SVRAs) arrangement  is a RBI devised a mechanism to settle international transactions with sanction-hit nations with India

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

 

 

 

S2.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Banks from 18 countries have been permitted by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to open Special Vostro Rupee Accounts (SVRAs) for settling payments in Indian rupees. SVRAs could be set up by banks of partner countries by approaching Authorised Dealer (AD) banks in India that may get permission from the RBI after the due procedure. In July 2022, the RBI had unveiled a mechanism to settle international transactions in rupee to promote the growth of global trade, with emphasis on exports from India, as well as pushing rupee as an international currency. It is also expected to enable trade with sanction-hit nations such as Russia. A vostro account is an account that domestic banks hold for foreign banks in the former’s domestic currency, in this case, the rupee. Domestic banks use it to provide international banking services to their clients who have global banking needs.

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding takkavi system

1. This system was started by Firoz Tughlaq.
2. It was an agriculture loan scheme system for the farmers to buy seeds and to extend cultivation
3. Diwan- i- Kohi was an Agriculture department during the Tughlaq dynasty introduced y Mohmoad Tughlaq

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 2 only

 

 

S3.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Mohd. Tuglaq realized later that adequate relief measures and the promotion of agriculture were the real solutions to the problem. He launched a scheme by which takkavi loans (loans for cultivation) were given to the farmers to buy seeds and to extend cultivation. A separate department for agriculture, Diwan- i- Kohi was established. The department divided the Doab into development blocs headed by an official who would give loans to farmers and engage them in the cultivation of superior crops. Model farm under the state was created in an area of 64 square miles for which the government spent seventy lakh tankas. This experiment was further continued by Firoz Tughlaq.

 

          Q4. Consider the following statements regarding Green Climate Fund (GCF):

1. It is an operating entity of the financial mechanism under the UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD).
2. It was formed as a result of negotiation at Cancun Climate Change Conference (COP 16).
3. It is headquartered in one of the European Union Countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

 

 

S4.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Green Climate Fund (GCF) is one of the operating entities under the financial mechanism set up under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) to provide support to developing countries in combating climate change, with resources to be generated from funding by developed country Parties and various other public and private sources. It supports both climate change adaptation and mitigation projects in developing countries.

Statement 2 is correct: At COP 16 held in Cancun (Mexico, 2020), Parties established the Green Climate Fund (GCF) as an operating entity of the Financial Mechanism of the Convention. The United Kingdom, France, Germany, Japan and Sweden are the top contributors. The Fund will continue receiving contributions in the coming four years.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Green Climate Fund is headquartered in Songdo, Incheon City, Republic of Korea, where it opened its doors in December 2013.

Q5. With reference to Sunga Dynasty, consider the following statements:

1. Sungas followed Brahmanism and performed Ashvamedha yajna.
2. Sungas encouraged the growth of Sanskrit language.
3. Buddhist art received patronage from Sunga rulers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

 

 

S5.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option d is the correct answer. The founder of the Sunga dynasty was Pushyamitra Sunga, who was the commander-in-chief under the Mauryas. He assassinated the last Mauryan ruler and usurped the throne in 180 BCE. This is corroborated by Bana, the court poet of Harshavardhana of Kannauj. Sunga rule in India according to the Puranas lasted for 112 years. Magadha was the nucleus of the kingdom.

Statement 1 is correct: In the cultural sphere, the Sungas revived and followed Brahmanism and horse sacrifice. After Ashoka’s Dhamma and Buddhism, the Sungas are known for having reverted to Brahmanical orthodoxy. Pushyamitra was a staunch follower of Brahmanism. In the Ayodhya inscription of Dhanadeva, Pushyamitra Sunga is credited with the performance of two Asvamedha sacrifices. Buddhist sources claim that he persecuted the Buddhists.

Statement 2 is correct: Sungas promoted the growth of Vaishnavism and the Sanskrit language. Statement 3 is correct: Sunga rulers patronised buddhist art. Buddhist sources although refer Pushyamitra sunga as a persecutor of Buddhism, but there is enough evidence to show that he patronised Buddhist art. During his reign the Buddhist monuments at Bharhut and Sanchi were renovated and further improved.

 

Q6. Consider the following statements regarding Sufism in medieval India

Sufis followed

1. Performance of prayers and pilgrimages
2. Charity and suppression of passions
3. Strict observance of the Sharia
4. Self-discipline

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, and 4 only

 

 

S6.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Sufism promotes tolerance and acceptance of other religions and points of view. Sufism stressed the elements of love and devotion as an effective means of the realization of God. Love of God meant love of humanity and so the Sufis

Believed service to humanity was equal to service to God. In Sufism, self-discipline was considered an essential condition to gain knowledge of God by a sense of perception. While orthodox Muslims emphasize external conduct, the

Sufis lay stress on inner purity. While the orthodox belief in blind observance of rigid rituals, the Sufis consider love and devotion as the only means of attaining salvation.

According to them, one must have the guidance of a pir or guru, without which spiritual development is impossible. Sufism also inculcated a spirit of tolerance among its followers. Other ideas emphasized by Sufism are meditation, good actions, repentance for sins, the performance of prayers and pilgrimages, fasting, charity, and suppression of passions.

 

Q7. With reference to Project 15B and Project 17A, consider the following statements :

1. Project 17A was launched by the Indian Navy to construct a series of stealth guided-missile frigates.
2. Project 15B is a development of next-generation stealth guided-missile destroyers of the Indian Army.
3. Surat and Udaygiri are indigenously built frontline warships of the Indian Navy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

 

S7.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The Indian Navy launched project 17 Alpha frigates (P-17A) in 2019. The defense forces of India launched the project to construct a series of stealth guided-missile frigates, which are currently being constructed by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders (MDL) and Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE). So, Statement 1 is correct.

Project 15 Bravo (P15B) / Visakhapatnam-class is the latest stealth guided-missile destroyer of the Indian Navy. These ships have been designed indigenously by the Indian Navy’s Directorate of Naval Design, New Delhi. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Surat and Udaygiri were Indian-made, indigenously built frontline warships launched at Mumbai’s Mazagon Docks. While Surat is the fourth guided missile destroyer under the Indian Navy’s Project 15B, stealth frigate Udaygiri is part of Project 17A. So, Statement 3 is correct.

 

 

 

Q8. The location of industries is dependent on which among the following factors?

1. Raw Materials
2. Transport
3. Historical Factors
4. Market
5. Industrial policy

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

 

S8.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Location of industries is influenced by several factors like access to raw materials, power, market, capital, transport, labour, etc. Relative significance of these factors varies with time and place.

o Raw Materials – Industries using weight-losing raw materials are located in the regions where raw materials are located. Why are the sugar mills in India located in sugarcane growing areas?

Similarly, the locations of the pulp industry, copper smelting, and pig iron industries are located near their raw materials. In the iron and steel industries, iron ore and coal both are weight-losing raw materials. Therefore, an optimum location for the iron and steel industries should be near raw material sources.

o Markets provide outlets for manufactured products. Heavy machines, machine tools, and heavy chemicals are located near the high-demand areas as these are market-orientated.

o Transport – Have you ever tried to find out the reasons for the concentration of industries in Mumbai, Chennai, Delhi and in and around Kolkata?

It was due to the fact that they initially became the nodal point having transport links.

The industries shifted to interior locations, only when railway lines were laid. All major industrial plants are located on the trunk rail routes.

o Historical Factors – Have you ever thought of the reasons for emerging Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai as industrial nodes?

These locations were greatly influenced by our colonial past. During the initial phase of colonisation, manufacturing activities received new impetus provided by the European traders. Places like Murshidabad, Dhaka, Bhadohi, Surat, Vadodara, Kozhikode, Coimbatore, Mysuru, etc., emerged as important manufacturing centers. o Industrial Policy – India, being a democratic country aims at bringing about economic growth with balanced regional development. The establishment of the iron and steel industry in Bhilai and Rourkela was based on the decision to develop backward tribal areas of the country. At present, the government of India provides lots of incentives to industries located in backward areas. o Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

 

 

Q9. Consider the following statements :

1. India’s National Mission on Sustainable Habitat seeks to promote energy efficiency in buildings

through the energy conservation building code.

2. The New Urban Agenda was adopted at the United Nations Framework convention on climate

change for sustainable urban development.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

 

S9.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The National Mission on Sustainable Habitat seeks to promote Improvements in energy efficiency in buildings through the extension of the energy conservation building code, which addresses the design of new and large commercial buildings to optimize their energy demand. So, Statement 1 is correct.

The New Urban Agenda was formally adopted by national governments at the United Nations Conference on Housing and Sustainable Urban Development, commonly referred to as Habitat III, on 20 October 2016, in the city of Quito, Ecuador. The agreement provides the road map for sustainable urban development in our cities over the next 20 years. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

 

 

 

 

Q10. Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) was established

1. On the directions of the Supreme Court in 2009
2. By a UNEP Project in India in 2012
3. With India’s accession to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
4. After the ratification of the Cartagena and Nagoya protocol

 

S10.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The SC in 2009 issued orders that there will be a Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) as National Advisory Council under the chairmanship of the Union Minister of Environment & Forests for monitoring, technical assistance and evaluation of compensatory afforestation activities. National CAMPA Advisory Council has been established as per orders of The Hon’ble Supreme Court with the following mandate: Lay down broad guidelines for State CAMPA. Facilitate scientific, technological and other assistance that may be required by State CAMPA. Make recommendations to State CAMPA based on a review of their plans and programmes. Provide a mechanism to State CAMPA to resolve issues of an inter-state or Centre-State character. The State CAMPA would presently receive funds collected from user agencies towards compensatory afforestation, additional compensatory afforestation, penal compensatory afforestation, Net Present Value (NPV) and all other amounts recovered from such agencies under the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 and presently lying with the Adhoc CAMPA.

 

 

          Q11. With reference to Climate Neutral Now Initiative, consider the following statements :

1. It was launched by the World Meteorological organisation to increase climate action by engaging non-Party stakeholders.
2. Its mandate is to promote the voluntary use of carbon market mechanisms.
3. The Climate Neutral Now Initiative has no participation fee.
4. A participant can stop participating at any point in time.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?

(a) 1,3 and 4 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 3 only

 

S11.Ans.(b)

Sol.

The Climate Neutral Now Initiative is one of several initiatives launched by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) secretariat to increase climate action by engaging non-Party stakeholders like sub-national governments, companies, organizations, and individuals. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

The Climate Neutral Now Initiative was launched in 2015 following a mandate to promote the voluntary use of the Clean Development Mechanism (CDM). The CDM allows emission-reduction projects in developing countries to earn certified emission reduction (CER) credits, each equivalent to one tonne of CO2. These CERs can be traded and sold and used by industrialized countries to meet a part of their emission reduction targets under the Kyoto Protocol. Thus the Climate Neutral Now Initiative promotes the voluntary use Clean Development Mechanism (CDM), which isa carbon market mechanism. So, Statement 2 is correct.

It encourages and supports organizations and other interested stakeholders to act now in order to achieve a climate-neutral world by 2050, as enshrined in the Paris Agreement. The initiative is not a certification scheme for its participants. It has no participation fee, and in addition to that, a participant can stop participating at any point in time. So, Statements 3 &4 are correct.

 

Q12. Consider the following pairs

1. Garbhagriha – the small room where the principle deity/deities of the temple reside
2. Mandapa – the portico or hall at the entrance of the temple generally designed to house a large number of people
3. Shikhara – the mount of the main deity placed generally in line of sight from Garbhagriha
4. Vahana – the mountain like spire which can have different shapes from pyramidal to curvilinear

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 4
3. 2 and 3
4. 1,2,3 and 4

 

 

 

S12.Ans.(a)

Sol.

What is the Nagara style of temple architecture?

The basic form of a Hindu temple contains the following architectural elements:

Garbhagriha – the small room where the principle deity/deities of the temple reside

Mandapa – the portico or hall at the entrance of the temple generally designed to house a large number of people

Shikhara – the mountain like spire which can have different shapes from pyramidal to curvilinear Vahana – the mount of the main deity placed generally in line of sight from Garbhagriha

 

 

Q13. In the context of the art and culture of India, the term ‘kalam ezhuthu’ is related to:

1. Ritual floor painting
2. Mural painting on the entrance of homes
3. Temple architecture
4. Decorative Pottery style

 

 

 

S13.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Kalam (Kalamezhuthu) is a unique form of this art found in Kerala.It is essentially a ritualistic art practiced in temples and sacred groves of Kerala where the representation of deities like Kali and Lord Ayyappa, are made on the floor.  Various factors need to be considered when deciding the nature or figure on the ‘Kalam’, which include the presiding deity of the temple or sacred grove, the religious purpose that calls for the ritual of Kalamezhuthu, and the particular caste that does it.

 

Q14. Which of the following statements best describes the role of Vidushak and Sutradhar in ancient

Sanskrit theatres/plays?

1. Vidushaka is the one who questions the prevailing social norms through satire.
2. Sutradhar is primarily responsible for costumes and makeup of the artists and the actors.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S14.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option a is the correct answer. Theatre in India began as a narrative art form, which encompassed a concoction of music, dance and acting. Recitation, dance and music were integral parts of theatre. Characters in Sanskrit plays were important. They were broadly classified into three kinds which are Nayaka (Hero or the Protagonist), Nayika (Heroine) and the Vidusaka (Clown).

Statement 1 is correct: Vidusaka (Clown), the comic character plays a vital role in the plays. He is the noble and good-hearted, often a friend of hero. He questions the prevailing social norms through satire. The vidushaka is one who challenges social norms. He provides comic relief while simultaneously prodding us to actually think. Statement 2 is incorrect: In Indian theatre, Sutradhar is the narrator who narrates the play and sings verses. The Sutradhar, is the stage manager and director, who enters the stage with his assistants. The time and place of the play was announced by the Sutradhar. He also gave a brief introduction of the playwright. For example, in Mahabharata, the Sutradhar of the story is Lord Krishna.

 

Q15. Arrange the following belts of alluvial plains from north to south:

4. Bhabar
5. Terai
6. Bhangar
7. Khadar

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1-2-3-4
2. 3-2-4-1
3. 3-2-1-4
4. 1-3-4-2

S15.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The Great Plains exhibit a remarkably homogeneous surface with little relief. It is a featureless alluvial fertile plain formed by the rivers’ deposits. The plain may be divided into the following belts:

Bhabar: Bhabar belt is about a 7–15 km wide narrow belt adjacent to the foothills of the Himalayas. It is made up of porous, rocky soils and pebbles that get deposited at the foot of the Himalayas due to the breakoff slope. This material is made of debris washed down from higher ranges. Due to the very high porosity of this belt, water seeps down and the streams are lost and start flowing underground.

Terai: The Terai belt is a 15-30 km wide marshy tract that lies next to Bhabar running parallel to it. Due to bedrock, the streams lost in Bhabar reappear in Terai. Thus, the water table is very high making the land marshy. Consequently, Terai is moist and thickly forested and is home to a variety of wildlife.

Bhangar: Bhangar belt is the largest part of the Northern Plains made up of old alluvium and forms an alluvial terrace above flood plains. The soil is made up of old alluvium and in the drier parts, it has calcareous deposits called kankar.

Khadar: Khadar belt is found along all rivers in the flood plains. Soil is made up of new alluvium which gets deposited every year due to floods. The deltaic plain has a huge amount of new alluvium and is mostly in the form of Khadar. It is an area of deposition as the river flows in this tract sluggishly.

Q16.Consider the following statements regarding MAIA mission

1. It is a joint initiative between NASA and the Italian Space Agency.
2. It aims to investigate the health impacts of air pollution in the world’s most populated cities.
3. It is the first mission by the agency whose primary goal is to benefit societal health.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1,2 and 3

 

 

S16.Ans.(d)

Sol.

NASA has recently announced that it is partnering with the Italian Space Agency ASI (Agenzia Spaziale Italiana) to build and launch MAIA, or the Multi-Angle Imager for Aerosols missions. The joint mission between the two national space agencies will investigate the health impacts of air pollution in the world’s most populated cities.

According to NASA, MAIA is the first mission by the agency whose primary goal is to benefit societal health. Epidemiologists and public health researchers will be directly working on the development of a satellite mission.

The MAIA observatory, which is set to launch before the end of 2024 will consist of the PLATiNO-2 satellite, which will be provided by ASI, and a science instrument that will be built at NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory (JPL). The MAIA mission will collect and analyse data from the observatory, sensors on the ground and atmospheric models.

 

 

 

Q17. “Sajag, Saksham, Vaibhav, Sujeet, Sarthak” seen in media related to which one of the following ?

(a) Kalvari-class submarines for the Indian Navy

(b) Indigenously developed multirole fighter jets

(c) Surface-to-surface short-range ballistic missiles

(d) Offshore Patrol Vessels of Indian Coast Guard

 

 

S17.Ans.(d)

Sol.

An offshore patrol vessel (OPV) is a small surface ship designed for coastal defence. These OPV are well- equipped to tackle a range of roles, such as maritime security, border control, anti-smuggling, counter- terrorism and disaster relief. The Prime Minister announced the Indigenous Offshore Patrol Project in 2016. Five Indian Coast Guard ships will be launched as part of the project.

• Two Offshore Patrol Vessels, ICGS Sachet commissioned in May 2020, and ICGS Sujeet, were commissioned in Dec 2020. These OPVs will protect the territorial seas’ Exclusive Economic Zone.
• The third OPV in the series, ICGS Sajag, was commissioned in May 2021.
• The Indian Coast Guard Ship Sarthak was launched in October 2021. It was the fourth series in the project. •Goa Shipyard Limited launched the fifth and final Offshore Patrol Vessel, ICGS (Indian Coast Guard Ship) Saksham and commissioned it in April 2022.

 

Q18. Recently, a novel material called single- crystalline scandium nitride (ScN) was seen in the news. In this context, consider the following statements:

1. ScN can emit, detect, and modulate infrared light with high efficiency.
2. ScN is useful in solar and thermal energy harvesting but could not be used in optical communication devices.
3. ScN can be integrated into modern silicon chip semiconductors.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S18.Ans.(c)

Sol.

• In a significant development, researchers from Bengaluru’s Jawaharlal Nehru Centre for Advanced Scientific Research (JNCASR), an autonomous institute of Department of Science and Technology (DST) have discovered a novel material called single-crystalline scandium nitride (ScN) that can emit, detect, and modulate infrared light with high efficiencies. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Scientists have utilized a scientific phenomenon called polariton excitations that occur in tailored materials when light couples with either the collective free electron oscillations or polar lattice vibrations to achieve this feat. They have carefully controlled material properties to excite polaritons (a quasi-particle) and achieve strong light-matter interactions in single-crystalline scandium nitride (ScN) using infrared light.
• These exotic polaritons in the ScN can be utilized for solar and thermal energy harvesting. Also, belonging to the same family of materials as gallium nitride (GaN), scandium nitride is compatible with modern complementary-metal-oxide-semiconductor (CMOS) or Si-chip technology and, therefore, could be easily integrated for on-chip optical communication devices. Hence statement 2 is not correct and statement 3 is correct.

 

Q19. Which of the following statements are correct regarding ‘Jhelum’ River?

1. It originates from spring at Verinag in Tibet.
2. Nallah Sindh and Dudhganga River are its important tributaries.
3. It does not flow through Indian Punjab on its course.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

 

S19.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Jhelum River has its source in the south-eastern region of Jammu and Kashmir, in a spring lying at Verinag, in Anantnag. Jhelum Jhelum River, constitutes the westernmost of the five rivers of the Punjab region that merge with the Indus River in eastern Pakistan. The Jhelum River has its source in the south- eastern region of Jammu and Kashmir, in a spring lying at Verinag. The length of Jhelum River is 480 miles. The river runs partly in Pakistan and partly in India. In India, it is Á ow only through the UT of Jammu and Kashmir. The source of the river is situated at the base of the Pir Panjal range in the south eastern region of the Kashmir plateau. The river runs through the Wular Lake and Srinagar in India, prior to moving into the Punjab province of Pakistan. Nallah Lidder, Nallah Sindh, Dudhganga River, etc. are some of the important tributaries.

 

Q20. Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to the Bureau of Energy Efficiency

(BEE) ?

1. The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) is a statutory body under the Ministry of Power.
2. Deep Freezers and Light Commercial Air Conditioners are part of BEE’s star labelling program.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S20.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The Government of India set up the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE), on 1st March 2002 under the provisions of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001 and it was under the Ministry of Power. The mission of the Bureau of Energy Efficiency is to assist in developing policies and strategies with a thrust on self-regulation and market principles, within the overall framework of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001 with the primary objective of reducing the energy intensity of the Indian economy. So, Statement 1 is correct. The Star Labelling Program has been formulated by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency. The program will include many appliances for granted Star Rating in terms of their energy performance. On the occasion of the 19th foundation day, BEE has expanded the coverage by including Energy Efficient “Deep Freezers” and “Light Commercial Air Conditioners (LCAC)” under the voluntary regime category. 3⁄4 Star Labeling programme for Deep Freezer and Light Commercial Air Conditioners (LCAC) together are expected to save approx. 9 BU of electricity by 2030. So, Statement 2 is correct.

 

 

Q21. Consider the following statements

1. Constitution of India specifies the different modes by which a citizen may lose citizenship
2. If a citizen of India automatically ceases to be an Indian citizen if he/she voluntarily acquires citizenship of another country
3. A citizen of India by naturalization, registration, birth or residence may be deprived of citizenship by the Central Government if it is satisfied that the citizen has unlawfully traded with the enemy during a war Choose the correct answer using the code given below
4. 1 and 2 only
5. 2 only
6. 1 and 3 only
7. 2 and 3 only

 

S21.Ans.(b)

Sol.

The Citizenship Act 1955 lays down the three modes by which an Indian citizen, whether a citizen at the commencement of the Constitution or subsequent to it, may lose their citizenship. These are renunciation, termination and deprivation. One way in which Indian citizenship can be taken away is termination. Termination takes place by operation of law when an Indian citizen voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country. In this case, he or she automatically ceases to be an Indian citizen. A citizen of India by naturalization, registration, domicile and residence may be deprived of his citizenship by order of the Central Government if it is satisfied that: The citizen has obtained the citizenship by means of fraud, false representation, or concealment of any material fact; The citizen has shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India; The citizen has unlawfully traded or communicated with the enemy during a war; The citizen has, within five years after registration or neutralization, been imprisoned in any country for two years; The citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for seven years

Q22.Consider the following statements

8. Both the Central Government and State Governments can declare National Parks.
9. Livestock grazing is not permitted in National Park while it is permitted in a Wildlife Sanctuary on a limited basis.
10. No alteration can be made to the boundaries of a National Park except on the recommendation of the National Board for Wild Life.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1,2 and 3

 

S22.Ans.(d)

Sol.

• Wildlife sanctuaries refer to an area that provides protection and living conditions favourable to wild animals. On the other hand, the National Park provides protection to the entire ecosystem, which includes flora, fauna, landscape, etc. of that region.
• Both the Central Government and State governments can declare National Parks.

o If it appears to the State Government that an area, whether within a sanctuary or not, is needed to be constituted as a National Park for the purpose of protecting, propagating or developing wild life therein or its environment, it may, by notification, declare its intention to constitute such an area as a National Park.

o The Central Government can declare an area as National Park if it is satisfied that the conditions specified in section 35 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 are fulfilled. So, statement 1 is correct.

• In National Parks, human activity is not allowed. Also, the grazing of livestock and private tenurial rights are not permitted. No person can remove, exploit, or destroy any wildlife from a National Park. No person shall allow to damage or destroy the habitat of any wild animal or deprive any wild animal of its habitat within a National Park. In contrast, limited human activities and limited amount of grazing by cattle are permitted in Wildlife Sanctuaries. So, statement 2 is correct.
• No alteration of the boundaries of a National Park by the State Government shall be made except on a recommendation of the National Board for Wild Life. So, statement 3 is correct.

 

Q23. Consider the following statements regarding National Asset Reconstruction Company Ltd (NARCL) recently seen in the news

1. The National ARC was first announced in the Union Budget in  2017 to house bad loans of over Rs 500 cores
2. NARCL is constituted to be promoted by 51 percent share from the public sector space.
3. NARCL is being formed by all the banks whereupon some of the NPA advances will be transferred to that ARC for recovery

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1,2
2. 2,3
3. 1,3
4. 1,2,3

 

 

 

S23.Ans.(b)

Sol.

A bad bank refers to a financial institution that takes over the bad assets of lenders and undertakes resolution.

The setting up of NARCL, the proposed bad bank for taking over stressed assets of lenders, was announced in the Budget for 2021-22.

The idea is for the NARCL to house bad loans of over Rs 500 crores each, which will be 100 percent provided by banks.

NARCL is being formed by all the banks whereupon some of the NPA advances will be transferred to that ARC for recovery … NARCL is constituted to be promoted by 51 percent share from the public sector space.

 

 

          Q24. In the context of cultural history of India, a pose in dance and dramatics called ‘Tribhanga’ has been a favourite of Indian artists from ancient times till today. Which one of the following statements best describes this pose?

1. One leg is bent and the body is slightly but oppositely curved at waist and neck.
2. Facial expressions, hand gestures and make-up are combined to symbolize certain epic or historic characters.
3. Movements of body, face and hands are used to express oneself or to tell a story.
4. A little smile, slightly curved waist and certain hand gestures are emphasized to express the feelings of love or eroticism.

S24.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option a is the correct answer. Tribhanga is a ‘triple-bend position’ where the body bends in one direction at the knees, the other direction at the hips and then the other again at the shoulders and neck. Along with ‘chowk’, it is one of the basic postures of Indian classical dance ‘Odissi’.

 

 

Q25. Consider the following statements regarding North Anatolian Fault:

1. It is a large convergent fault in which two tectonic plates are moving toward each other.
2. It separates the Eurasian plate from the Anatolian plate in northern Turkey.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S25.Ans.(b)

Sol.

The North Anatolian Fault is a major active fault system that runs east-west across northern Turkey, extending for about 1,200 kilometers from the eastern end of the Sea of Marmara to the eastern part of Turkey. It is a transform fault that separates the Anatolian Plate from the Eurasian Plate, in northern Turkey and it is a part of the larger complex of fault systems that define the tectonic boundary between the African, Eurasian, and Arabian plates. Hence statement 1 is not correct and 2 is correct

The North Anatolian Fault is a major source of seismic activity in Turkey, and it has produced many large earthquakes over the past century, including the devastating earthquakes of 1939, 1942, 1944, 1947, 1957, 1967, 1999, and 2020. These earthquakes have caused significant damage and loss of life in the region.

The fault system consists of a series of interconnected faults that exhibit complex behavior, with segments that can rupture independently or together in large earthquakes. The fault system also exhibits a pattern of eastward propagation of seismic activity, with earthquakes moving progressively eastward along the fault over time.

The North Anatolian Fault is closely monitored by the Turkish Disaster and Emergency Management Authority (AFAD) and other agencies to assess the risk of seismic activity and provide early warning of potential earthquakes. Studies of the fault system also provide important insights into the behavior of complex fault systems and the nature of seismic activity in general.