Odisha Civil Services Prelims GS Mock Paper-I

The mock paper consists of a comprehensive set of questions that are framed in accordance with the syllabus prescribed by the OPSC. It aims to evaluate the candidates’ analytical and problem-solving abilities, as well as their familiarity with important concepts, events, and issues.

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Q1) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act’

The Act empowers the Central government to designate an organization or an individual as a terrorist entity on the same grounds
The permission of the State government for prosecution is not required under any provision of the Act
Normal bail rules do not apply for charges under this Act and pre- charge sheet time is extended to 180 days

Choose the correct answer using the code given below

3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only

S1.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Under the Act, the central government may designate an organisation as a terrorist organisation if it: (i) commits or participates in acts of terrorism, (ii) prepares for terrorism, (iii) promotes terrorism, or (iv) is otherwise involved in terrorism. The Bill additionally empowers the government to designate individuals as terrorists on the same grounds. For prosecution under Section 13 of the UAPA, the permission of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) is required. However, for prosecution under Sections 16,17 and 18, the permission of the respective State government is required. Section 25 allows the NIA to seize property it considers to be proceeds of terrorism, with the written consent of the Director General of Police (DGP) of the State. The police normally have 60 to 90 days to investigate a case and submit a charge-sheet failing which the accused may obtain default bail. However, under the UAPA, this precharge sheet time is extended to 180 days. Further, normal bail rules do not apply to an accused under Section 43(d)5 of the UAPA

Q2. Consider the following statements with reference to the 5G technology :

It mainly works in the low, mid and high-frequency spectrum
While 4G provided less than 1 ms latency, 5G provides less than 0.1 ms latency.
Millimeter wave refers to the very high-frequency 5G spectrum

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

S2.Ans.(d)

Sol.

5G or 5th Generation technology is the latest upgrade in the long-term evolution (LTE) mobile broadband networks. It mainly works in 3 bands, namely low, mid and high-frequency spectrum. 5G technology exhibits very good internet coverage and high capacity benefits in the mid-frequency band. So, Statement 1 is correct.

The delay in network communication is called Latency. Which means the time that data takes to transfer across the network or the delay between a request for data transfer and when the data transfer begins. The latency of 4G networks, on average, is between 60 to 98 milliseconds. But in the case of 5G technology, the latency comes under 5 milliseconds, maybe even around 1 millisecond. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

A millimeter wave band is a specific part of the radio frequency spectrum between 24GHz and 100GHz. While the currently available networks work optimally on lower frequencies, 5G makes it possible to allocate high bands above 24GHz for telecom infrastructure. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Q3. In the context of digital technology, Stable diffusion, recently seen in the news is a/an

(a) cryptocurrency whose value is pegged to the price of another asset.

(b) cryptographic asset on a blockchain with unique identification codes and metadata.

(d) open-source machine learning model that can generate images from text.

S3.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Machine learning and deep learning models are now available for people to create artwork. Stable Diffusion is an open-source machine learning model that can generate images from text, modify images based on text, or fill in details on low-resolution or low-detail images. It has been trained on billions of images.
Several AI-based art generators use Stable Diffusion to help people create their own images. Many of them ask users to enter a text-based prompt or even an image, which is then used to redraw, mimic, sketch, paint, synthesize, adapt, or alter images to create the desired result.
Freely available AI art generators could make it possible for almost anyone to carry out this task in just a few minutes, at far lower costs. These models could also eliminate the need to pay for licensed art by making it possible to choose a subject, copy an artist’s style, and create a customisable result – all for free. This has the potential to completely restructure fields such as fashion design, architecture, cinema, book publishing, and more. • In September, American designer Jason Allen won the first prize in an art competition for his piece ‘Theatre D’Opera Spatial’ which was created with the help of an AI program. • Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q4. With reference to practice of ‘Buta Kola’, consider the following statements:

It is a ritual dance performance in which local spirits or deities are worshipped.
It is performed by both men and women.
It is generally performed in paddy fields after the winter crops have been harvested.
Some of the Buta Kola rituals involve walking on a bed of hot coal.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
1 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only

S4.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Buta kola is a very popular art practised in Tulu Nādu region of Karnataka. The face is painted, wrapped in a Siri made of coconut feathers, and danced invoking the deity. The Divine Dancer gives justice to human beings and resolves disputes through the Word of God. Statement 1 is correct: Bhootaradhana or Deity/spirit worship is very popular in Tulunadu region of coastal Karnataka. A ritual called nema or kola or Bhootakola is performed for ghosts/spirits/gods. Conducting Bhootakola/kola/nema has its own rules. The face is painted, wrapped in a Siri made of coconut feathers, and danced invoking the deity. The Divine Dancer gives justice to human beings and resolves disputes through the Word of God. Deity worship is the fundamental religious belief of the Tulu race. Statement 2 is incorrect: Buta Kola is not performed by women. It is performed by male who is feared and respected in the community and is believed to give answers to people’s problems on behalf of the god. Statement 3 is incorrect: Yakshagana involves dancing to the beat of drums in open space usually in the village paddy fields after the winter crop has been harvested. On the other hand, Buta kola is not performed specifically in paddy fields nor after winter harvest. Statement 4 is correct: Some of the Bhootada Kola rituals involve walking on a bed of hot coal. Drums and music give company to the dancing and pooja rituals. By praying together during Bhootada Kola, the community seeks God’s blessing, prosperity and riddance of various problems of the community.

Q5.Consider the following statements

The progressive death of twigs and branches that generally starts at the tips is called dieback.
Girdling roots and soil compaction can cause dieback and decline in plants.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

S5.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Decline is a general term describing the gradual reduction of growth and vigor in a plant. Dieback refers to the progressive death of twigs and branches which generally starts at the tips. So, statement 1 is correct.

Trees and shrubs affected by the decline and dieback syndrome may die within a year or two after symptoms first appear or in some cases survive indefinitely.
Decline and dieback may be caused by many factors and is usually progressive over several years. Trees and shrubs of all ages may be affected, although this disease complex is usually associated with plants that have attained some size and maturity. Some triggering disorders include girdling roots, competition from other plants, soil compaction, and changes in the depth of the water table, salts leached into the root system, low soil nutrients, and inadequate or excessive soil moisture. So, statement 2 is correct.
Dieback/decline can best be controlled through preventing the occurrence of the initial stress. Cultural practices including periodic fertilization, pruning, watering during dry periods, and control of leaf feeding insects and foliar pathogens are essential in preventing the onset of the dieback/decline complex.

Q6. Consider the following statements with reference to the Biological and Toxin Weapons Convention :

It prohibits the development, production, acquisition, transfer, stockpiling and use of biological weapons. 2. India is not a party to this convention.
The convention has not yet entered into force.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

S6.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Biological and toxin weapons use microorganisms like viruses, bacteria, fungi, or toxic substances produced by living organisms that are produced and released deliberately to cause disease and death in humans, animals, or plants. The Biological Weapons Convention (BWC) effectively prohibits the development, production, acquisition, transfer, stockpiling and use of biological and toxin weapons. So, Statement 1 is correct. India signed the Biological and Toxin Weapons Convention (BTWC) in 1973, became a party, and ratified the treaty in 1974. So, Statement 2 is not correct. The Biological Weapons Convention (BWC), which effectively prohibits biological and toxin weapons, was opened for signature in 1972 and came into force in 1975. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Q7. Recently, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has introduced the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF). In this

context, which one of the following correctly describe the purpose of Standing Deposit Facility?

It is a facility through which banks can borrow an additional amount of overnight money from RBI.
Under this facility, banks can take out one-year and three-year loans at the same one-day repo interest rate.
It will allow the RBI to absorb excess liquidity from commercial banks without giving government securities in return to the lenders.
It will include the outright purchase of government securities for the purpose of injecting long-term liquidity.

S7.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has introduced the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF), an additional tool for absorbing liquidity, at an interest rate of 3.75%. The standing deposit facility allows the RBI to absorb excess cash from the economy by sucking liquidity from commercial banks without giving government securities in return to the lenders. The RBI has fixed the SDF rate at 3.75 per cent. Under the SDF, the banks can place deposits with the RBI on an overnight basis. The RBI, however, retains the flexibility to absorb liquidity for longer tenors under the SDF with appropriate pricing, as and when the need arises. All liquidity adjustment facility (LAF) participants will be eligible to participate in the SDF scheme, according to the RBI’s website. The extraordinary liquidity measures undertaken in the wake of the pandemic combined with the liquidity injected through various other operations of the RBI have left a liquidity overhang of the order of Rs 8.5 lakh crore in the system. This has pushed up the retail inflation level in the system. Hence, that’s why SDF has been introduced. It will help reduce the excess liquidity in the system and also control inflation.

Q8.It is a wildlife sanctuary and a proposed tiger reserve located in the Nuapada district of Odisha. The sanctuary forms the catchment area of the Jonk River, over which a dam has been constructed to facilitate irrigation. The important vegetation of the site comprises dry deciduous tropical forest.Once known for good numbers of Wild Buffalos,It has received ‘in-principle-approval’ of the National Tiger Conservation Authority, proposals for its notification as per NTCA-guidelines is under preparation. It is-

Dehing Patkai Wildlife Sanctuary
Kaimur Wildlife Sanctuary
Sunabeda Wildlife Sanctuary
Bor Wildlife Sanctuary

S8.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Sunabeda Wildlife Sanctuary It is a Proposed Tiger Reserve, situated along the Odisha-Chhattisgarh border. It also forms the catchment area of the Jonk River. Wildlife includes Indian mammals such as tigers, swamp deer, leopards, gaurs, sloth beer, and barking deer.

Sunabeda Wildlife Sanctuary has certainly seen better days. It had swamp deer (Cervus duvauceli branderi) and Wild water buffalo (Bubalus arnee). Forests around Sunabeda used to have good numbers of Wild Buffalos till 1960s. Hunting, cattle borne disease and habitat destruction led to extinction of Wild Buffalo in the region.

The Indra nullah and Udanti River lies to the south of the sanctuary. The important vegetation of the site comprises dry deciduous tropical forest.

Q9. Which among the following is/are Initiatives of CITES?

The International Consortium on Combating Wildlife Crime.
Monitoring the Illegal Killing of Elephants.
Global Wildlife Program.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

S9.Ans.(b)

Sol.

The Initiatives of CITES are: The International Consortium on Combating Wildlife Crime (ICCWC), Monitoring the Illegal Killing of Elephants (MIKE), Supporting sustainable management of endangered tree species (CTSP). ICCWC’s mission is to strengthen criminal justice systems and provide coordinated support at national, regional and international level to combat wildlife and forest crime. CITES Monitoring the Illegal Killing of Elephants (MIKE) Programme is a site- based system designed to monitor trends in the illegal killing of elephants, build management capacity and provide information to help range States make appropriate management and enforcement decisions. CITES tree species programme aims to provide direct financial assistance to Parties in taking conservation and management measures to ensure that their trade in timber, bark, extracts and other products from CITES-listed tree species is sustainable, legal and traceable. About the Global Wildlife Program: Led by the World Bank and funded by the Global Environment Facility (GEF), the Global Wildlife Program is a $213 million global partnership that coordinates with partners in 29 countries across Asia, Africa and Latin America to support actions on the ground to improve wildlife and protected area management, enhance community livelihood benefits, strengthen law enforcement, curb illegal trade, reduce demand of illegal wildlife products and accelerate learning on relevant topics on the illegal trade of wildlife.

Q10. Consider the following statements regarding KenBetwa Link Project

It is the first river interlinking project under National Perspective Plan (NPP).
The project will provide water security in the Vidarbha region and ensures overall landscape & wildlife conservation.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

S10.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Ken-Betwa Link Project

For this project an Integrated Landscape Management Plan (ILMP) has been prepared by Wildlife Institute of India (WII) in Panna Tiger Reserve (PTR) & surrounding areas.
To ensure it, the Greater Panna Landscape Council (GPLC) has been constituted under the chairmanship of Chief Secretary, Govt. of Madhy a Pradesh.
The broad objectives are to enable betterment of habitat, protection, and management for flagship species viz. tiger, vulture, and gharial in the landscape.
Ken-Betwa Link Project (KBLP) is the first interlinking of the rivers project under the National Perspective Plan (NPP) taken for implementation.
The project is aimed at not only providing water security in the Bundelkhand but also ensuring the overall conservation of the region.

Q11. Consider the following statements :

It is an elusive medium-sized and locally threatened felid species.
It was used by India’s nobility in the sport of coursing.
It is included in Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
Currently, it is on the verge of extinction in India.

The above statements are about which species?

(a) Asiatic cheetah

(b) Fishing cat

(d) Asiatic caracal

S11.Ans.(d)

Sol.

The Asiatic Caracal (Scientific Name: Caracal caracal schmitzi) is an elusive, nocturnal, medium-sized and locally threatened felid (cat) species.

The name Caracal comes from the Turkish word karakulak, meaning ‘black ears’. It is called as Persian name ‘Siya Gosh’ in India.
Like the Cheetahs, the Caracal was used by India’s nobility in the sport of coursing. It is believed to have taken it far beyond its natural range to places like Ladakh in the north to Bengal in the east.
The Caracal is included in Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act 1972 and it is in the Near Threatened category by the Conservation Assessment and Management Plan and International Union for Conservation of Nature Red list assessment in India.
The Caracal is found in several countries across Africa, the Middle East, Central and South Asia and it flourishes in parts of Africa. But its numbers in Asia are declining.
They are widely reported to be on the verge of extinction in India, due to Large-scale hunting, illegal trading and loss of natural habitats are considered significant threats to the species. So, Option (d) is correct.

Q12. With reference to the guilds (Shreni) of ancient India that played a very important role in the country’s economy, which of the following statements is/are correct?

Every guild was registered with the central authority of the State and the king was the chief administrative authority on them.
The wages, rules of work, standards and prices were fixed by the guild.
The guild had judicial powers over its own members.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1 and 2 only
3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3

S12.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option c is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Guilds were not under the control of the State and the king was not the chief administrative authority on them. They framed their own rules of membership and professional code of conduct, which even kings were supposed to accept and respect. Statement 2 is correct. The wages, rules of work, standards and prices were fixed by the guild itself.

Statement 3 is correct. Guilds could try their members for offence in accordance with their own customs and usages, which came to acquire almost the status of law. A guild member had to abide by both guild and state laws. Guilds had their own laws, based on customs and usage, regarding organization, and had considerable power over guild members.

Q13. The term ‘Glycosmis albicarpa’, sometimes seen in the news recently is related to :

(a) A newly identified carangid fish species from the Indian coast

(b) A group of species may have lived approximately 328 million years ago during the Carboniferous period (c) A new species of plant discovered on the granite hillocks of Palakkad

(d) A new gin berry species discovered in the southern Western Ghats

S13.Ans.(d)

Sol.

The Botanical Survey of India (BSI) has discovered a new gin berry species from the Kanyakumari Wildlife Sanctuary in Tamil Nadu. The species, named Glycosmis albicarpa with a distinct large white fruit, is endemic to the southern Western Ghats. The species belongs to the Orange family, Rutaceae. So, Option (d) is correct.

Q14. Rekha Deula, Pidha Deula, and Khakhara Deula are the three temple styles of the

Vesara style of temple architecture
Nagara style of temple architecture
Dravida style of temple architecture
Kalinga style of temple architecture

S14.Ans.(d)

Sol.

The Kaḷinga architectural style is a style of Hindu architecture that flourished in the ancient Kalinga previously known as Utkal and in the present eastern Indian state of Odisha. The style consists of three distinct types of temples: Rekha Deula, Pidha Deula, and Khakhara Deula. The former two are associated with Vishnu, Surya, and Shiva temples while the third is mainly with Chamunda and Durga temples. The Rekha Deula and Khakhara Deula houses are the sanctum sanctorum while the Pidha Deula constitutes outer dancing and offering halls.

Q15. Which one of the following is correct about the Post Mauryan schools of art

(a) the kanvas chiefly patronized the Gandhara and the Mathura schools of sculptural art

(b) the main patrons of the Amaravati school of art form were the Pallavas

(d) All are correct

S15.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The Shakas & Kushanas patronized the Gandhara and the Mathura schools of sculptural art. The main patrons of the Amaravati School of art form were the Satavahanas. An important characteristic of the Amravati school is the ‘narrative art’. The artists of Mathura used the spotted red sandstone for making images

Q16. With reference to e-DNA, consider the following statements :

e-DNA is nuclear or mitochondrial DNA released from an organism into the environment.
It can help to understand the composition of animal communities and detect the spread of non-

native species.

UNEP launches a global eDNA project to study species’ vulnerability to climate change at marine

world heritage sites.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

S16.Ans.(a)

Sol.

DNA, short for deoxyribonucleic acid, is the hereditary material in organisms that contains the biological instructions for building and maintaining them. Environmental DNA (eDNA) is nuclear or mitochondrial DNA that is released from an organism into the environment. Sources of eDNA include secreted feces, mucous, and gametes, shed skin and hair, and carcasses. eDNA can be detected in cellular or extracellular (dissolved DNA) form. So, Statement 1 is correct. The applications of e- DNA indicate a big potential to be used for the conservation of terrestrial vertebrates and is used to identify species in water bodies. And it could help understand the composition of animal communities and detect the spread of non-native species. So, Statement 2 is correct. UNESCO launched global eDNA project to study vulnerability of species to climate change at marine World Heritage sites. It will involve the collection by scientists and local residents of genetic material from waste, mucus or the cells of fish from across select marine World Heritage sites, with the aim of monitoring fish, including species red-listed by the International Union Conservation of Nature (IUCN). eDNA involves collecting and analyzing samples collected from the environment (soil, water, air) rather than an individual organism. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Q17. Consider the following statements regarding All India Home price Index

It is based on transaction-level data received from the housing registration authorities in ten major cities
It is released by ministry of Finance.
The base year for this is 2010-2011

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
1,2 and 3

S17.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The Reserve Bank of India publishes it as quarterly house price index (HPI) for ten major cities: Mumbai, Delhi, Chennai, Kolkata, Bengaluru, Lucknow, Ahmedabad, Jaipur, Kanpur, and Kochi.The base year for calculation of HPI is 2010-2011.

These indices are based on official data on property price transactions collected from the respective state governments’ registration authorities.

Q18. Consider the following statements with respect to Muons:

They are subatomic particles raining from space that move through space at just above the speed of light.
They are created when the particles in Earth’s atmosphere collide with cosmic rays.
Muons are highly unstable and exist for just 2.2 microseconds.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3

S18.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Muons

Muons are subatomic particles raining from space.
They are created when the particles in Earth’s atmosphere collide with cosmic rays.
They are clusters of high-energy particles that move through space at just below the speed of light.
These particles resemble electrons but are 207 times as massive.
Therefore, they are sometimes called fat electrons.
Because muons are so heavy, they can travel through hundreds of metres of rock or other matter before getting absorbed or decaying into electrons and neutrinos.
In comparison, electrons can penetrate through only a few centimetres. Muons are highly unstable and exist for just 2.2 microseconds.
Muography – It is conceptually similar to Xray but capable of scanning much larger and wider structures, owing to the penetration power of muons.
As these high-energy particles are naturally produced and ubiquitous, all one needs to do is place a muon detector underneath, within or near the object of interest.

Q19. With reference to wheat cultivation in the temperate grasslands, consider the following statements:

The temperate grasslands have the highest productivity of wheat in the world due to extensive mechanized farming.
The temperate grasslands are known to produce wheat during both the Summer and Winter Seasons.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

S19.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Extensive farming methods are those in which more of the agricultural area is brought under cultivation to increase overall production. The crop yield in extensive agriculture depends primarily on the natural fertility of the soil, terrain, climate, and availability of water. The per hectare yield in extensive mechanized farming is generally low. Extensive methods of farming are practiced in moderately populated regions. o For example, the average yield of wheat in the Prairies is about 23 bushels per acre ( 1 bushel is approximately equivalent to 60 lb). In the Pampas and the Australian Downs, the yields are even lower, not more than 20 bushels per acre! In comparison, the wheat yield in countries that practise intensive farming is much higher, at times almost thrice the yield. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

The temperate grasslands are known to produce Wheat during both the Summer and Winter Seasons. Three-quarters of the world’s wheat is winter wheat, i..e. wheat is sown in winter or late autumn. It is a hard wheat with low moisture content, being ripened in the hot, sunny, continental summer. It is best for bread-making and is extensively traded. Polewards, where the winter temperatures are too cold for the wheat seedlings to survive, spring wheat is grown. It is the less important soft wheat, more suitable for making cakes, biscuits and pastes rather than bread. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Q20. With reference to Indian literature, consider the following statements:

Value of pi (π) is given in the book Sulbasutra.
Charak Samhita deals with the use of medicinal plants and herbs.
Brihat Samhita mentions the relation of earthquake with undersea activities.
Yukti Kalpa Taru lays down various techniques used in ship building.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
1, 2, 3 and 4

S20.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option d is the correct answer.

Various Indian literature has been composed throughout the ages in ancient and Medieval India which deals with development of science, astrology, mathematics etc. hence, India carries a rich legacy of scientific ideas.

Statement 1 is correct: The earliest book on mathematics was Sulbasutra written by Baudhayana in the 6th century B.C. It contains various significant mathematical formulae. It includes the value of pi (π) to a considerable degree of precision and a concept similar to Pythagoras Theorem. The sequences associated with primitive Pythagorean triples were named Baudhayana sequences.

Statement 2 is correct: Charak Samhita mainly deals with use of medicinal plants and herbs. Hence, mainly dealing with Ayurveda. In Charak Samhita, extensive note on digestion, metabolism and immune system is written. His book has more emphasis on prevention rather than cure.

Statement 3 is correct: Brihat Samhita was written by Varahamihira. He has propounded the earth cloud theory. He related earthquake to the influence of plants, behaviour of animals, underground water, undersea activities and the unusual cloud formation. He also made contributions in Astrology or Jyotish shastra. Varahamihira lived in the Gupta period and was among the nine gems in the court of Vikramaditya. Statement 4 is correct: Yukti Kalpa Taru is a treatise in Sanskrit which deals with the various techniques used in ship building during ancient times.

Q21. Consider the following statements with reference to the Aegean sea:

The Aegean sea is an extension of the Black Sea, surrounded by Ukraine and Russia.
The island of Crete is considered to be the southern limit of the Aegean sea.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

S21.Ans.(b)

Sol.

The Aegean sea is situated between the continents of Europe and Asia that extends from the Mediterranean Sea. It is positioned between the regions of the Balkans and Anatolia. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

The Aegean Sea is linked to the Marmara Sea and the Black Sea via the Dardanelles and Bosphorus straits. The sea is home to numerous Aegean Islands, including Crete and Rhodes, which are situated along its southern edge.

Island of Crete is considered as the southern limit of Aegean sea. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q22. Consider the following statements regarding a river:

Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary is located on the western tip of an Island named Chorao along this river. 2. It is one of the thirteen west flowing rivers which run through Karnataka.
The river Mapusa is a tributary of this river.

Which of the following rivers is being described above?

(a) Zuari

(b) Nethravathi

(d) Sharavathi

S22.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Mandovi River The Mandovi River also known as Mahadayi or Mhadei River, is described as the lifeline of the Indian state of Goa. The Mandovi and the Zuari are the two primary rivers in the state of Goa. It originates from a cluster of 30 springs at Bhimgad in the Western Ghats in the Belagam district of Karnataka. It is one of the thirteen west Á owing rivers in Karnataka. Others are Sharavathi, Kalinadi, Gangavalli, Aghanashini, Chakra Nadi, Varahi, Netravathy, and Barapole, etc. The river Mapusa is a tributary of the Mandovi. The Cumbarjuem Canal, which links both rivers, has made the interiors of the Mandovi accessible to ships carrying iron ore. Mandovi joins with the Zuari at a common creek at Cabo Aguada, forming the Mormugao harbour. Three large freshwater isles — Divar, Chorao and Vanxim are present in the Mandovi near the town of Old Goa. Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary is an estuarine mangrove habitat, which is declared as the bird sanctuary, and located on western tip of the Island of Chorao along the Mandovi River.

Q23. Consider the following statements with respect to International Monetary Fund (IMF)

It assists financial stability and monetary cooperation for its 190 member countries.
Each member of the IMF is assigned a quota, based on its relative position in the world economy to pay as their capital subscription.
It releases reports namely World Economic Outlook, Global Financial Stability Report and Global Financial Development Report.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
1, 2 and 3

S23.Ans.(a)

Sol.

International Monetary Fund (IMF)

The IMF was established in 1944 in the aftermath of the Great Depression of the 1930s.
Aim – It sought to build a framework for international economic cooperation.
Membership countries – 190 countries.
Funding – The IMF’s resources mainly come from the money that countries pay as their capital subscription (quotas) when they become members.
Each member of the IMF is assigned a quota, based broadly on its relative position in the world economy.
Countries can then borrow from this pool when they fall into financial difficulty.
The IMF provides loans including emergency loans to member countries experiencing actual or potential balance of payments problems.
The IMF provides technical assistance and training to governments, including central banks, finance ministries, revenue administrations, and financial sector supervisory agencies.
Special Drawing Rights – The SDR is an international reserve asset.
The SDR is not a currency, but its value is based on a basket of five currencies the US dollar, the euro, the Chinese renminbi, the Japanese yen, and the British pound sterling. IMF reports

World Economic Outlook – A Survey that usually published twice a y ear.
Global Financial Stability Report – Published twice a year.
Fiscal Monitor –Prepared twice a y ear.

Global Financial Development Report is released by World Bank

Q24. With reference to Mica, consider the following statements:

Its composed of a series of plates that can be easily separated into thin sheets.
It has a low power loss factor and can sustain high voltages.
Andhra Pradesh is India’s largest mica producer.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

S24.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option (d) is correct: Mica is a mineral made up of a series of plates or leaves. It splits easily into thin sheets. These sheets can be so thin that a thousand can be layered into a mica sheet of a few Centimetres high. Mica can be clear, black, green, red yellow or brown. Due to its excellent Di-electric strength, low power loss factor, insulating properties and resistance to high Voltage, mica is one of the most indispensable minerals used in electric and electronic Industries. Andhra Pradesh is India’s largest mica producer. Mica deposits are found in the northern edge of the Chota Nagpur plateau. Koderma Gaya – Hazaribagh belt of Jharkhand is the leading producer.

Q25. The government policy in the context of the August Declaration of 1917, aimed at:

Increase in the participation of Indians in administration
Gradual introduction of Dominion status in India.
Realization of responsible government in India

Which of the statements given above is/are correctly matched?

1 only
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3

S25.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option c is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct. The Secretary of State for India, Edwin Samuel Montagu, made a statement on August 20, 1917 in the British House of Commons in what has come to be known as the August Declaration of 1917. The statement said: The government policy is of an increasing participation of Indians in every branch of administration. and gradual development of self-governing institutions with a view to the progressive realization of responsible government in India as an integral part of the British Empire. Statement 3 is correct.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Dominion status was explicitly offered in the August offer, 1940 and not in August Declaration 1917.