ଓଡିଶା ସିଭିଲ ସର୍ଭିସ୍ Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | August 1st Week 2023

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Q1. With reference to the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, consider the following statements:

1. It was established by the 89th Amendment Act of the constitution in 2003.
2. The Commission is vested with powers of a civil court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S1.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct: It was established by amending Article 338 and inserting a new Article 338A in the Constitution through the Constitution (89th Amendment) Act, 2003.

Statement 2 is correct: Powers of the Commission:

For Investigation and Inquiry, the Commission is vested with powers of a civil court having authority to:

○ Summon and enforce attendance of any person and examine on oath;

○ Discovery & production of any documents;

○ Receive evidence on affidavits;

○ Requisition any public record or copy thereof from any court or office;

○ Issue Commissions for examination of witnesses and documents; and

○ Any matter which President, by rule, may determine.

 

Q2. Khilafat issue arose because of the stern attitude the British adopted towards Turkey and the removal of the Khalifa from power. This was done under which treaty?

(a) Treaty of Sevres

(b) Treaty of Versailles

(c) Treaty of Saint Germain

(d) Treaty of Trianon

 

S2.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The Khilafat Movement (1919-1924) was an agitation by Indian Muslims allied with Indian nationalism in the years following World War I. Its purpose was to pressurize the British government to preserve the authority of the Ottoman Sultan as Caliph of Islam following

the breakup of the Ottoman Empire at the end of the war.

Option (a) is correct: The treaty of Sevres was a post-World War I pact between the victorious Allied powers and representatives of the government of Ottoman Turkey. The treaty abolished the Ottoman Empire and obliged Turkey to renounce all rights over Arab Asia and North Africa. Rejected by the new Turkish nationalist regime, the Treaty of Sevres was replaced by the Treaty of Lausanne in 1923.

Option (b) is incorrect: The treaty of Versailles was a peace document signed at the end of World War I by the Allied and associated powers and by Germany in the Hall of Mirrors in the Palace of Versailles, France, on June 28, 1919.

Option (c) is incorrect: Treaty of Saint-Germaine was a treaty concluding World War I and signed by representatives of Austria on one side and the Allied Powers on the other.

Option (d) is incorrect: Treaty of Trianon was a treaty concluding World War I and signed by representatives of Hungary on one side and the Allied Powers on the other. It was signed on June 4, 1920, at the Trianon Palace at Versailles, France.

 

Q3. With reference to Artemis Accords, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. They create binding obligations under international law for all UN members.
2. They allow the mining of the rocks and soil of the Moon for oxygen and hydrogen to sustain human life on moon.
3. They aim at establishing a permanent human presence on the Moon and a lunar orbiting station. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S3.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Statement 3 is correct: Named after the twin sister of Apollo, the Artemis plan aims at establishing a permanent human presence on the Moon and a lunar orbiting station called the Gateway. The Artemis plan clarifies the legal basis for using space resources in support of the Artemis missions in an agreement called the Artemis Accords.

Statement 2 is correct: The Artemis missions on the Moon will serve as a testing ground for the first human missions to Mars and beyond, effectively marking a new era in human spaceflight. To ensure the sustainability of long-term human missions, the Artemis plan envisions the use of space resources. For example, mining the rocks and soil of the Moon for oxygen and hydrogen. Statement 1 is incorrect: Legally speaking, the Accords are not a treaty: they do not create binding obligations under international law. They only apply to the US and the other countries that intend to take part in the Artemis missions. Richer nations stand to gain the most from access to space, with a recent international agreement allowing them to lawfully mine the Moon and other objects in space in support of scientific missions. The US announced a plan to return humans to the Moon in 2020, half a century after the Apollo missions.

 

Q4. With reference to Modern Indian history, ‘Congress Democratic Party’ was founded by

(a) Chittaranjan Das

(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(c) Motilal Nehru

(d) Jayaprakash Narayan

 

S4.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Bal Gangadhar Tilak an extremist in the Indian National Congress, had also been influenced by his growing disillusion with the coercive and repressive technics of the bureaucracy. He believed in legal methods of agitation and was twice elected to the Bombay Legislative Council. He contemplated election also a third time. He formed the Congress Democratic Party in 1920 for contesting the election to fight for attaining Swaraj in the Bombay province. It was the base for the Democratic Swaraj Party of 1937. So, Option (b) is correct.

 

 

Q5. Consider the following statements with respect to Lightning

1. Lightning is a rapid and massive electrical discharge that mostly takes place within the clouds themselves.
2. It occurs on the accumulation of negative charges on the top of the cloud and positive charges gathering at the base.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S5.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Lightning

• Lightning is a rapid and massive electrical discharge that takes place between storm clouds and the ground or within the clouds.
• Lightning occurs on the accumulation of Positive charges on the top of the cloud and Negative charges gathering at the base where air is an insulator.
• In the early stages of development, air acts as an insulator between the positive and negative charges in the cloud and between the cloud and the ground.
• Positive charges accumulated on the top of the cloud whereas negative charges accumulated on the bottom of the cloud.
• When the opposite charges build up enough, this insulating capacity of the air breaks down and there is a rapid discharge of electricity that is called as lightning.

 

Q6. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act (FRBM) act mandates the submission of three documents along with Annual financial statements. Among these, which of the following documents envisages a fiscal deficit target for the country?

1. The Medium-term Fiscal Policy Statement
2. The Macroeconomic Framework Statement
3. The Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement
4. The External Sector debt statement

 

S6.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option a is the correct answer.

Option a is correct. The Medium-term Fiscal Policy Statement is presented under the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003. It sets out three-year rolling targets for specific fiscal indicators. These indicators include the following: (1) fiscal deficit as a percentage of GDP; (2) revenue deficit as a percentage of GDP; (3) primary deficit as a percentage of GDP; (4) tax revenue as a percentage of GDP; (5) non-tax revenue as a percentage of GDP; and (6) Central Government debt as a percentage of GDP.

Option b is incorrect. The Macroeconomic Framework Statement assesses the prospects of the economy with respect to the GDP growth rate, fiscal balance of the central government and external balance. Option c is incorrect. The Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement sets the priorities of the government in the fiscal area, examining current policies and justifying any deviation in important fiscal measures. Option d is incorrect The External sector debt statement is not even a one of the three documents mandated by FRBM act, 2003 to be submitted before parliament along with Annual financial statement.

 

Q7. Recently SIGHT fund was launched in order to

1. Eradicate Eye disease trachoma
2. Track and monitoring of tigers in protected areas
3. Enhance scale of Production of green hydrogen
4. Search for Deep ocean minerals

 

S7.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition Programme (SIGHT) is one of the 2 sub-schemes of national green hydrogen mission (NGHM). It will fund the domestic manufacturing of electrolysers and produce green hydrogen. SIGHT includes a fund for the same purpose.

 

Q8.   Consider the following statements

1. CEC and the ecs all three the status of a Supreme Court judge, retiring at the age of 65 years.
2. All three Commissioners now had equal decision-making powers but, in case there was a difference of opinion on any issue, the view of Chief election commissioner will prevail.
3. Recently Supreme Court unanimously ruled that a high-power committee consisting of the Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha and the Chief Justice of India must pick the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and Election Commissioners (ecs).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1,2 and 3

 

S8.Ans.(c)

Sol.

A five-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court unanimously ruled that a high-power committee consisting of the Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha and the Chief Justice of India must pick the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and Election Commissioners (ECs).

In 1993 the government brought an Ordinance to amend the EC Act, and made the CEC and the ECs equal by giving all three the status of a Supreme Court judge, retiring at the age of 65 years.

In other words, all three Commissioners now had equal decision-making powers. The amendment also introduced sections that envisaged that the CEC and the ECs would act unanimously and, in case there was a difference of opinion on any issue, the majority view would prevail.

 

Q9. Consider the following statements about ‘Just Energy Transition Partnership’

1. JETP is a mechanism for carbon trading by developed countries to support an energy transition in developing countries.
2. JETP was launched by G-7 countries at United Nations Climate Change Conference held in Sharm El Sheikh

Select the correct statement(s

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S9.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect JETP is a mechanism for multilateral financing by developed countries to support an energy transition in developing countries. It aims to reduce emissions in the energy sector and accelerate the coal phase-out Transition describes the gradual movement towards lower carbon technologies, while ‘Just’ qualifies that this transition will not negatively impact society, jobs and livelihoods. The JETP was launched at the COP26 in Glasgow with the support of the United Kingdom (UK), the United States (US), France, Germany, and the European Union (EU) Following that G7 has announced for a similar partnership in India, Indonesia, Senegal, and Vietnam

 

Q10. “Partnership for Global Infrastructure and Investment” (PGII) is an initiative to meet the infrastructure needs of low and middle-income countries that were launched by which of the following organizations/groups ?

(a) World Bank

(b) World Economic forum

(c) G20

(d) G7

 

S10.Ans.(d)

Sol.

The Group of Seven (G7) countries launched a new programme called Partnership for Global Infrastructure and Investment (PGII) to meet the financial and technical needs for building quality infrastructure in low and middle-income countries to end the dominance of China’s Belt and Road Initiative (BRI). So, Option (d) is correct

 

Q11. Consider the following pairs:

Plantation crop Top producer

1. Banana : India
2. Rubber : Congo
3. Cocoa : Brazil

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S11.Ans.(a)

Sol.

• India is the largest producer of bananas in the world. Its output was 32 MT in 2021-22, according to the National Horticulture Board (NHB)’s first advance estimate. According to the UN’s Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO), India produced an average of 29 MT every year between 2010 and 2017; the next biggest producer was China at 11 MT. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched. o The biggest exporters of the fruit are Ecuador, the Philippines and Costa Rica, which are placed between the fifth and eleventh places on the lists of top producers. In contrast, India is not even among the top 10 banana exporters.
• Cocoa beans are produced in tropical zones around the Equator, where climate conditions are well suited for growing cocoa trees. About 70 percent of the world’s cocoa beans come from four West African countries: Ivory Coast, Ghana, Nigeria and Cameroon.
• The Ivory Coast and Ghana are by far the two largest producers of cocoa in that order, accounting for more than 50 percent of the world ́s cocoa. In 2019, the Ivory Coast alone produced approximately 2.1 million metric tons of cocoa beans. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
• Despite natural rubber being native to the Amazon basin, approximately 90 percent of the world’s supply is grown in Asia. Much of this comes from Southeast Asia – specifically Thailand, Indonesia, Vietnam, and Malaysia. o Thailand is the leading producer of natural rubber. In 2021, it produced 4.83 million tonnes which accounted for approximately 35 percent of global natural rubber production. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.

 

Q12. Consider the following pairs

1. Khalisa land – land assigned or granted to religious leaders or religious institutions
2. Inam land – land under the direct control of the Sultan and the revenues collected were spent for the maintenance of the royal court and royal household

Which of the pair/s given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S12.Ans.(d)

Sol.

After consolidating their position in India, the Delhi Sultans introduced reforms in the land revenue administration. The lands were classified into three categories:

1. Iqta land – lands assigned to officials as iqtas instead of payment for their services.
2. Khalisa land – land under the direct control of the Sultan and the revenues collected were spent for the maintenance of royal court and royal household.
3. Inam land – land assigned or granted to religious leaders or religious institution

 

Q13. Consider the following statements regarding Central Vigilance Commission

1. It has all the powers of a civil court
2. The CVC comes under the Ministry of Home affairs

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S13.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The CVC conducts its proceedings at its headquarters (New Delhi). It is vested with the power to regulate its own procedure. It has all the powers of a civil court and its proceedings have a judicial character.

The CVC is not controlled by any Ministry/Department. It is an independent body that is only responsible for the Parliament.

 

Q14. Which one of the following statements best describes “Ephemeral plants”?

(a) Plants that have one or more generations per year, growing only during favourable periods.

(b) Plants that grow during all seasons of the year and achieve maximum growth during favourable season.

(c) Plants that grow at a slow rate but live for a longer period of time than usual plants.

(d) Plants that grow upon another plant or object merely for physical support and have no attachment to the ground.

 

S14.Ans.(a)

Sol.

• Ephemeral plant is any short-lived plant, usually one that has one or more generations per year, growing only during favourable periods (as when adequate moisture is available) and passing the unfavourable periods in the form of seeds.
• The seed coats of some species contain a growth inhibitor that can be washed off only by a copious quantity of water, thus preventing germination after only a brief shower.
• The most common types of ephemeral species are desert annuals, plants whose seeds remain dormant for months or years but which quickly germinate, grow, and flower when rain does fall.

 

Q15. Consider the following statements with respect to Super Conductivity

1. It is the property of certain materials to conduct direct electricity without energy loss.
2. Superconductors are highly diamagnetic.
3. Meissner effect is associated with superconductivity.

Which of the following statement(s) is/ are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S15.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Super Conductivity · Superconductivity is the property of certain materials to conduct direct current (DC) electricity without energy loss when they are cooled below a critical temperature (referred to as Tc).

• These materials also expel magnetic fields as they transition to the superconducting state.
• In 1911, Dutch physicist Heike Kamerlingh Onnes discovered superconductivity in mercury.
• At a very low temperature, called the threshold temperature (around -27 0°C for mercury), solid mercury offers no resistance to the flow of electric current.
• Superconductor is highly diamagnetic that means it is strongly repelled by and tends to expel a magnetic field.
• The Meissner effect was associated with a property of all superconductors.

Mechanism of superconductivity

• In 1957, three physicists at the University of Illinois used quantum mechanics to explain the microscopic mechanism of superconductivity.
• They proposed a radically new theory of how negatively charged electrons, which normally repel each other, form into pairs below Tc.
• These paired electrons are held together by atomic-level vibrations known as phonons, and collectively the pairs can move through the material without resistance. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
• In the 1970s, scientists used superconducting magnets to generate the high magnetic fields needed for the development of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) machines.
• More recently, scientists introduced superconducting magnets to guide electron beams in synchrotrons and accelerators at scientific user facilities. High-temperature superconductors
• In 1986, scientists discovered a new class of copper-oxide materials that exhibited superconductivity, but at much higher temperatures.

 

Q16. Consider the following statements regarding SWAMIH Investment Fund

1. It aims to provide debt financing for the completion of stressed, stalled residential projects.
2. It is an Alternative Investment Fund sponsored by the SBICAP Ventures Ltd.
3. It is available only for projects that have completed at least 30% of the construction required.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S16.Ans.(b)

Sol.

SWAMIH Investment Fund

• It is a category II Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) announced in 2019.
• It aims to provide priority debt financing for the completion of stressed, Brownfield projects of mid-income housing category.
• The Fund is sponsored by the Ministry of Finance and is managed by SBICAP Ventures Ltd. · Only Real Estate Regulatory Authority (RERA) registered residential project are eligible for funding.
• It is available only for projects that have completed at least 30% of the construction required.

 

Q17. Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?

1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
2. They are correlative to legal duties.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S17.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option d is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect. There is no provision in the Constitution for direct enforcement of any of the Fundamental Duties nor for any sanction to prevent their violation. All the Fundamental Duties under Article 51 A are ‘non-justiciable’.

Statement 2 is incorrect. There is no legislative process to enforce citizens to do their fundamental duties. The legal duty is one which is required to be carried out as per law. So, there is no correlation between both duties. It has been held that these duties being duties of individual citizens cannot be enforced through mandamus.

 

Q18. Consider the following statements about graphite:

1. It is a major mineral in India.
2. It is an isotope of carbon.
3. It is used in lead pencils.
4. Arunachal Pradesh has the largest graphite reserves in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

 

S18.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Graphite is a type of crystal carbon. It is an allotrope of Carbon (not an isotope). This means that the number of neutrons in graphite is the same as that of carbon, it only differs structurally. In fact, under ideal conditions, it is one of the most stable forms of carbon available. Hence statement 2 is not correct

Structurally, it is planar and layered. Every layer has atoms of carbon arranged in a honeycomb-like network with covalent bonding. “Graphene” is the term used to denote each layer of the same. The layers of the carbon crystal could swiftly move past each other as the layers could be separated easily as they are bound by the weak Van der Waals bonds.

Graphite occurs naturally in metamorphic rocks such as marble, schist, and gneiss. Its color varies from steel grey to black depending upon the origin and has a metallic luster.

Turkey has the largest reserves of graphite, followed by China and Brazil. Whereas in India, about 35% of total reserves are found in Arunachal Pradesh. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Graphite finds use in steelmaking, brake linings, lubricants, foundry facings, batteries, etc. A graphite pencil also called a lead pencil, is a type of pencil in which a thin graphite core is embedded in a shell of other material including wood. Its wide use is as it is highly lustrous and imparts an impression on paper, it can also be easily erased. Hence statement 3 is correct.  Major minerals in India include- Copper, Zinc, Iron ore, Gold, Graphite, Iron, Coal, etc. Hence statement 1 is correct.

 

Q19. Recently, the government of India has dedicated a window ‘The Green Gold Collection’ on the GeM (Government e-Marketplace) portal for the marketing of which of the following crop

1. Sugarcane
2. Millets
3. Bamboo
4. Coffee

 

S19.Ans. (c)

Sol.

Recently, the government of India has dedicated a window to ‘The Green Gold Collection’ on the GeM (Government e-Marketplace) portal for the marketing of Bamboo Goods. ¾ This window is the collective work of the National Bamboo Mission (NBM) and GeM. It seeks to promote the adoption and use of bamboo products among Government buyers and usher in a sustainable rural economy for an Atmanirbhar Bharat

 

Q20. Which of the following physical properties of the ocean can get affected by the salinity of water?

1. Temperature
2. Rate of evaporation of water
3. Ocean Currents
4. Freezing point of water

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

S20.Ans.(d)

Sol.

The oceanic salinity not only affects the marine organisms and plant community but it also affects the physical properties of the oceans such as temperature, density, pressure, waves, and currents, etc.

The ocean salinity has significant effects on the physical properties of seawater and other aspects of the oceans as follows:

• The freezing and boiling points are greatly affected and controlled by the addition or subtraction of salts in seawater. The saline water freezes slowly in comparison to fresh water. It is known to all that pure water freezes at the temperature of 00C freezing point. If the salinity of seawater becomes 35% then it would freeze at the temperature of – 1.910C. On the other hand, the boiling point of saline water (seawater) is higher than fresh water. Hence options 1 and 4 are correct.
• Salinity and density of seawater are positively correlated i.e. the salinity of seawater increases its density because solutes (here salts) in water have greater atomic weight than the molecules of fresh water. This is why man is seldom drowned in seawater with very high salinity.
• Evaporation is controlled by the salinity of the oceans. In fact, solutes (salts) in water lowers the rate of evaporation in the oceans. Thus more saline water is less evaporated than less saline water. It may be mentioned that evaporation also controls the salinity of seawater.
• More evaporation reduces the volume of seawater and hence the concentration of salts increases (i.e., seawater salinity increases). Hence options 2 is correct.
• Spatial variation in seawater salinity becomes a potent factor in the origin of ocean currents. Hence options 3 is correct.

 

Q21. C40 is a network of global megacities that have come together to confront the climate crisis. Which of the following Indian cities are members of C40?

1. Ahmedabad
2. Chennai
3. Delhi
4. Bengaluru

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

S21.Ans.(d)

Sol.

C40 is a network of mayors of 97 world-leading cities collaborating to deliver the urgent action needed right now to confront the climate crisis. It is a conference where city leaders from around the world share ideas on green urban development, and on ways to get national governments to act on climate issues. Apart from Mayors and Deputy Mayors, the Summit is being attended by climate experts, influencers, business leaders, innovators, changemakers, and citizens.

C40 was founded in 2005. In 2005, mayor of London Ken Livingstone convened representatives from 18 megacities to forge an agreement on cooperatively reducing climate pollution and created the ‘C20’. By 2006, the C40 Steering Committee invited a further 22 mayors to join, ensuring balance from the Global South, creating an organisation of 40 cities, and thus the name C40. x C40’s Leadership Standards for 2021-2024 went into effect in 2021, setting an ambitious standard for C40 cities to ensure they are on a path to a zero-carbon future. Two new collaborative groups were launched;

o the Global Mayors Task Force on Climate and Migration to address the impact of the climate crisis on migration in cities,

o and the first-of-its-kind Global Youth and Mayors Forum, which brings together youth climate leaders and mayors to work together on shaping the vision of a Global Green New Deal.  Recently Ahmedabad joined C40 as a mega city member to accelerate climate resilience and sustainable development. C40’s Steering Committee approved Ahmedabad’s membership application on June 30. The city is the tenth to join C40 from South and West Asia, and the sixth from India. Other cities from India under C40 are Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, Bengaluru and Kolkata. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

 

Q22. Consider the following statements with reference to the SAARC Currency Swap Framework/Agreement:

1. SAARC Currency Swap Facility was introduced in 2022.
2. Under the SAARC Currency Swap facility, withdrawals can be made in US Dollar, Euro or Indian Rupees.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S22.Ans.(b)

Sol.

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has signed a Currency Swap Agreement with the Maldives Monetary Authority (MMA) under the SAARC Currency Swap Framework. This is to provide swap support as a backstop line of funding for short-term foreign exchange liquidity requirements. This agreement will enable the MMA to make withdrawals in multiple tranches up to a maximum of USD 200 million from the RBI.

Currency Swap Agreement between two countries is an agreement or contract to exchange currencies with predetermined terms and conditions. SAARC Current Swap Facility came into operation in 2012 to provide a backstop line of funding for short-term foreign exchange liquidity requirements or balance of payment crisis till longer term arrangements are made. Hence statement 1 is not correct. o The withdrawals can be made in US Dollar, Euro or Indian Rupee. Hence statement 2 is correct.

 

Q23. Tripartite Struggle also known as The Kannauj Triangle Wars was between-

1. Pala empire
2. Pratihara empire
3. Rashtrakuta empire
4. Chalukya empire

select correct code:

1. 1,2 and 3
2. 2,3 and 4
3. 1,3 and 4
4. 1,2 and 4

 

S23.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The Tripartite Struggle is also known as The Kannauj Triangle Wars for control of northern India took place in the ninth century, between the Pratihara Empire, the Pala Empire, and the Rashtrakuta Empire.

Q24. Consider the following statements regarding  an aperiodic monotile

1. It is an entirely new shape which has 15 sides
2. it does not possess translational symmetry

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S24.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Up until the discovery, an aperiodic monotile was purely theoretical. But recently, scientists have discovered an entirely new shape which has 13 sides and has named it “the hat”. It is the first ‘einstein’ tile to have been found: a shape that can cover a plane without overlapping, leaving gaps, or repeating patterns. The name bears no connection to Albert Einstein but means ‘one stone’ in German. The shape is a polykite with the edges of eight kites to make it. While several ways that tiling exists in nature and the real world (think bathroom tiles or the hexagons of honeycomb), these are periodic and have a translation symmetry–the size, shape and angle remains the same, only the location changes. The 13-sided ‘hat’ is also a shape that tiles plane, however, it does not possess translational symmetry. These types of shapes are called aperiodic tile sets.

 

Q25. With reference to, “Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay Sanrakshan Abhiyan” (PM-AASHA), which of the following schemes is/are part of PM-AASHA?

1. The Price Support Scheme (PSS)
2. The Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS)
3. The Pilot of Private Procurement and Stockist Scheme (PPPS)

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S25.Ans.(d)

Sol.

The three schemes that are part of AASHA are:

o The Price Support Scheme (PSS)

o the Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS)

o the Pilot of Private Procurement and Stockist Scheme (PPPS)