ଓଡିଶା ସିଭିଲ ସର୍ଭିସ୍ Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | August 2nd Week 2023

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Q1. Which of the following is NOT one of the reforms taken by Muhammad bin Tughlaq?

1. Transfer of Capital to Devagiri
2. Introduction of Token Currency
3. Introduced market reforms
4. Qarachil Expedition

 

S1.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Muhammad bin Tughlaq ascended the throne in 1325. He had introduced many ambitious schemes and novel experiments but all of them ended in miserable failures because they were

all far ahead of their time.

• Transfer of Capital: He wanted to make Devagiri (which he renamed Daulatabad) his second capital so that he might be able to control South India better.
• Token Currency: The sultan decided to issue ‘token’ coins in brass and copper which could be exchanged for silver coins from the treasury
• Qarachil Expedition: This is said to be somewhere in Himalayas. It was successful as he was able to extract tribute but had to face very heavy casualty.
• Khurasan Expedition: He heavily recruited new soldiers for this expedition. But had to abandon it due to a change in the situation. He disbanded the army and didn’t take back advance money given to soldiers.
• Market reforms were initiated by Alauddin Khalji, to have a large army with minimum wage.

 

Q2. Fens are kind of wetlands that draw their majority of water from-

1. Precipitation
2. Floods
3. Tides
4. Groundwater

 

S2.Ans. (d)

Sol.

Fens are, like bogs, peat-forming wetlands, although they usually get their wetness from groundwater rather than precipitation

 

Q3. With reference to Vertical Launch Short Range Surface to Air Missile (VL- SRSAM), consider the following statements:

1. It is designed to strike at the high- speed airborne targets at the range of 1000 to 1500 km.
2. It is designed and developed by the National Aerospace Laboratories for Indian Navy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S3.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Statement 2 is incorrect: VL-SRSAM has been designed and developed jointly by three facilities of the Defence Research and Development Organisation for deployment of Indian Naval warships. The missile has the capability of neutralising various aerial threats at close ranges including sea-skimming targets. The tactic of sea skimming is used by various anti-ship missiles and some fighter jets to avoid being detected by the radar’s onboard warships. For this, these assets fly as close as possible to sea surface and thus are difficult to detect and neutralise. Statement 1 is incorrect: The design of VL-SRSAM: The missile has been designed to strike at the high-speed airborne targets at the range of 40 to 50 km and at an altitude of around 15 km. Its design is based on Astra missile which is a Beyond Visual Range Air to Air missile.

 

Q4. Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to the Pirpur Committee of 1938?

(a) It was a committee to prepare a report on the alleged wrongdoings committed by Congress ministries.

(b) It was a committee to suggest practical ways and means for reducing unemployment in the United provinces.

(c) It was a committee to report the defense requirement of India in modern circumstances.

(d) It was a committee to investigate the working conditions on plantations in India.

 

S4.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The All India Muslim League, annoyed with the Congress for not sharing power with them, established the Pirpur Committee in 1938 to prepare a detailed report on the atrocities supposedly committed by the Congress ministries. In the report, the committee charged the Congress with interference in the religious rites, suppression of Urdu in favor of Hindi, denial of proper representation, and oppression of Muslims in the economic sphere. So, Option (a) is correct.

 

Q5. Consider the following statements with respect to Lewis Super Acids

1. Lewis super-acids’ are used as cataly sts to accelerate reactions.
2. It can be used to break strong chemical bonds and speed up reactions.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S5.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Lewis Super Acids Researchers at the Paderborn University, Germany have been able to make a unique class of catalysts called “Lewis super-acids”.

• ‘Lewis super-acids are derived from Lewis acids, named after the chemist, G N Lewis.
• Lewis super-acids’ are used as catalysts in chemistry to accelerate reactions.
• These are compounds that add electron pairs.
• These can be used to break strong chemical bonds and speed up reactions.
• These are highly reactive reagents, thus difficult to produce and use.
• Significance – It enables non-biodegradable fluorinated hydrocarbons (similar to Teflon) to be converted back into sustainable chemicals.
• It can possibly even convert climate-damaging greenhouse gases, such as sulphur hexafluoride into sustainable ones.

 

Q6. In the context of Ricardian Equivalence, what will be the most likely consequence of increased government expenditure through debt financing?

1. Aggregate demand of goods and services remains unchanged
2. Aggregate supply of goods and services will decrease
3. Aggregate demand of goods and services will rise sharply
4. Aggregate demand of goods and services will decrease

 

S6.Ans.(a)

Sol.

option a is the correct answer. Debt government spending means a part of expenditure by the government facilitated through borrowing. The Ricardian Equivalence states that when a government tries to stimulate an economy by increasing debt-financed government spending, demand remains unchanged. It is so because people will save more because they anticipate the increase in tax rate by the government to pay off its accumulated debts.

 

Q7. Consider the following statements regarding seahorses

1. They are mainly found in shallow tropical and temperate salt water throughout the world, from about 45°S to 45°N.
2. They live in sheltered areas such as sea grass beds, estuaries, coral reefs, and mangroves

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S7.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Seahorse is any of 46 species of small marine fish in the genus Hippocampus and family Syngnathidae. They are mainly found in shallow tropical and temperate salt water throughout the world, from about 45°S to 45°N. They live in sheltered areas such as sea grass beds, estuaries, coral reefs, and mangroves. The coastal ecosystems of India house 9 out of 12 species found in the Indo-Pacific, one of the hotspots of seahorse populations. These 9 species are distributed along the coasts of eight States and five Union Territories from Gujarat to Odisha, apart from Lakshadweep and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

 

Q8.  Consider the following statements regarding News Broadcasting & Digital Standards Authority (NBDSA)’

1. It is a statutory body constituted under telegraph act 1885.
2. It has the power to initiate proceedings on its own and take action in respect to any matter falling within its regulations
3. It deals withethical, operational and  regulatory issues affecting news and current-affairs channels.
4. It works under the aegis of under the department of communication

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

1. 3 and 4
2. 1,2 and 3
3. 2 and 3
4. 1,2,3 and 4

 

S8.Ans.(c)

Sol. The NBDSA is an independent body set up by the News Broadcasters & Digital Association (NBDA), which serves as a representative of private television news, current affairs and digital broadcasters.

It was established by leading Indian news broadcasters on 3 July 2007  as the News Broadcasters Association (NBA). In August 2021, News Broadcasters Association was renamed as News Broadcasters & Digital Association after inclusion of digital media news broadcasters in the association. The Authority may initiate proceedings on its own and issue notice or take action in respect to any matter which falls within its regulations. This can also be through complaints referred to the Authority by the Ministry of Information & Broadcasting or any other governmental body, or by anyone else via its website

 

Q9. Consider the following statements

1. A qubit (quantum bit) can represent any proportion of 0 and 1 in superposition of both states but not 0 and 1
2. Quantum coherence refers to a situation in which two or more particles are linked in a such a way each particle of the group cannot be described independently of the state of the others

Select the correct statement(s)

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S9.Ans.(d)

Sol.

A qubit (or quantum bit) is the quantum mechanical analogue of a classical bit. A classical binary bit can only represent a single binary value, such as 0 or 1. A qubit, however, can represent 0, a 1, or any proportion of 0 and 1 in superposition of both states. In quantum computing the information is encoded in qubits. a Quantum entanglement refers to a situation in which two or more particles are linked in a such a way each particle of the group cannot be described independently of the state of the others. Quantum coherence deals with the idea that all objects have wave-like properties. It states that, if an object’s wave-like nature is split in two, then the two waves may coherently interfere with each other in such a way as to form a single state that is a superposition of the two states.

 

Q10. Which of the following statements best describes the term “Dutch Disease” recently seen in the news ?

(a) It is an infectious disease that originated in Dutch caused by Salmonella typhi.

(b) It is referred to as a prolonged war between two countries due to ethnic problems.

(c) It refers to uneven growth across sectors due to the discovery of natural resources like oil or gas.

(d) None of the above

 

S10.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Dutch Disease in economics refers to a phenomenon wherein a country witness uneven growth across sectors due to the discovery of natural resources, especially large oil reserves. So, Option (c) is correct.

 

Q11. Consider the following pairs:

Crude Oil Field Country

1. Marun Field : Iraq
2. Daqing Field : China
3. Samotlor Field : Russia

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) None of the pairs

(b) Only one pair

(c) Only two pairs

(d) All three pairs

 

S11.Ans.(c)

Sol.

• Marun Field: It is Iran’s second-largest-producing oil field, owned and operated by the state-owned National Iranian Oil Company since its discovery in 1963. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• Daqing Field: It is China’s largest oil field that went into full-scale production in 1963 after its discovery in 1959, and today accounts for nearly one-third of the country’s overall crude output. Since 2008, oil output in the field has fallen by nearly 20%. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
• Samotlor Field: Samotlor is Russia’s largest oil field, producing nearly 3 million barrels per day at its peak in the 1980s. Rosneft, Russia’s largest oil company, owns and operates the Siberia-based field. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.

 

Q12.  Consider the following statements

1. The founder of the Tughlaq dynasty was Muhammad bin Tughlaq

2. Moroccan Traveller Ibn Batuta visited India during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughlaq

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S12.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Moroccan Traveller Ibn Batuta visited India during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughlaq Ibn-e-Batuta and called him ‘‘an ill-starred idealist’’. The founder of the Tughlaq dynasty was Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq. Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq sent his son Juna Khan to fight against Warangal. He defeated Pratabarudra and returned with rich booty. Ghiyasuddin laid the foundation for Tughlaqabad near Delhi. Ulugh Khan was said to have treacherously killed his father and ascended the throne with the title Muhammad bin Tughlaq in 1325.

 

Q13. Chief Vigilance Commissioner (CVC) appointed by the President of India on the recommendations of a committee consisting of the

1. Prime Minister
2. Home Minister
3. Chief Justice of India
4. Leader of opposition

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1,3 and 4
2. 1,2 and 3
3. 2,3 and 4
4. 1,2 and 4

 

S13.Ans.(d)

Sol.

About CVC:

It is the apex vigilance institution created via executive resolution (based on the recommendations of the Santhanam committee) in 1964 but was conferred with statutory status in 2003.

• It submits its report to the President of India. The Commission was set up on the recommendation of the K.Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption.
• It consists of a central vigilance commissioner along with 2 vigilance commissioners.
• They are appointed by the President of India on the recommendations of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister, Union Home Minister, and Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha (if there is no LoP then the leader of the single largest Opposition party in the Lok Sabha).

 

Q14. Which of the following are associated with eutrophication in a lake?

1. Natural ageing of lakes
2. Depletion of dissolved inorganic carbon
3. Decrease in pH level

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1,2 and 3

 

S14.Ans.(a)

Sol.

• Eutrophication is a natural process that results from accumulation of nutrients in lakes or other bodies of water. Human activities can accelerate eutrophication by increasing the rate at which nutrients enter the water.
• Eutrophication is characterized by excessive plant and algal growth due to the increased availability of one or more limiting growth factors needed for photosynthesis, such as sunlight, carbon dioxide, and nutrient fertilizers. Eutrophication occurs naturally over centuries as lakes age and are filled in with sediments. So, point 1 is correct.
• High rates of photosynthesis associated with eutrophication can deplete dissolved inorganic carbon and raise pH to extreme levels during the day. Elevated pH can turn some organisms ‘blind’ that rely on perception of dissolved chemical cues for their survival by impairing their chemosensory abilities. So, point 2 is correct and point 3 is not correct.

 

Q15. Consider the following statements regarding Event Horizon Telescope (EHT)

1. It is a Virtual Earth-sized telescope that resembles the size of earth.
2. The region of space bey ond the black hole is called the Event Horizon.
3. The Hanle observatory at Ladakh is part of the Event Horizon Telescope.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S15.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Event Horizon Telescope

• The Event Horizon Telescope is an international collaboration aiming to capture the first image of a black hole by creating a virtual Earth-sized telescope.
• The EHT uses a method known as “very long baseline interferometry” (VLBI) to yoke multiple telescopes together into a single virtual observatory the size of the planet.
• VLBI combines telescopes separated by huge distances, creating continent-sized virtual observatories.
• That combined power gave it the resolution necessary to take an image of the supermassive black hole in the giant elliptical galaxy M87.
• With the addition of four observatories, including CfA’s Greenland Telescope, the EHT continues to observe both M87 and Sagittarius A*.

 

Q16. Consider the following statements regarding Purchasing Manager Index (PMI)

1. It is a monthly economic indicator compiled and released by the Institute for Supply Management (ISM). 2. It is calculated only for the manufacturing sector.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S16.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Purchasing Manager Index (PMI) The manufacturing sector grew at the slowest pace but remained relatively strong due to buoyant domestic demand.

• It is an economic indicator, which is derived after monthly surveys of different companies.
• There are two types of PMI 1. Manufacturing PMI and 2. Services PMI.
• A combined index is also made using both manufacturing PMI and services PMI.
• A figure above 50 denotes expansion in business activity and anything below 50 denotes contraction

. · Higher the difference from this mid-point greater the expansion or contraction.

• If the figure is higher than the previous month’s then the economy is expanding at a faster rate.
• If it is lower than the previous month then it is growing at a lower rate.

 

Q17. The terms ‘suladi, svarajati and javali’ are generally used in the context of:

1. Musical forms or compositions in carnatic music.
2. Names of folk dances of india.
3. Instruments used in hindustani music.
4. Names of gharanas in indian tradition of classical music.

 

S17.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option a is the correct answer.

Suladi, Svarajati, and Javali are musical forms or compositions in Carnatic music. Suladi The Suladis are of a higher standard than the gitam (the simplest type of composition). The Suladi is a talamalika, the sections being in different talas. The theme is devotional. Purandaradasa has composed many Suladis. Svarajati This is learnt after a course in gitams. The theme is either devotional, heroic or amorous. It originated as a dance form with jatis. But later, Syama Sastri, one among the Musical Trinity, composed svarajatis without jatis, which are brilliant concert pieces, noted for their musical value. Javali A javali is a composition belonging to the sphere of light classical music. Sung both in concert programmes and dance concerts, the javalis are popular because of the attractive melodies in which they are composed. This form resembles the Thumris of Hindustani Music.

 

Q18. “It is a minimum area that is sacred and in which whatever the individual does, is not to be interfered with. The existence of the ‘minimum area of non-interference’ is the recognition that human nature and human dignity need an area where the person can act unobstructed by others.”

Which of the following ideals is referred to in the above paragraph?

1. Positive liberty
2. Equality
3. Distributive Justice
4. Negative liberty

 

S18.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Negative liberty (and not positive liberty) seeks to define and defend an area in which the individual would be inviolable, in which he or she could ‘do, be or become’ whatever he or she wished to ‘do, be or become’. Negative liberty is the absence of obstacles, barriers or constraints. One has negative liberty to the extent that actions are available to one in this negative sense. Positive liberty is the possibility of acting — or the fact of acting — in such a way as to take control of one’s life and realize one’s fundamental purposes. While negative liberty is usually attributed to individual agents, positive liberty is sometimes attributed to collectivities, or to individuals considered primarily as members of given collectivities. Negative liberty is an area in which no external authority can interfere. Thus, there is an absence of restraints on the activities of the individuals. It is a minimum area that is sacred and in which whatever the individual does, is not to be interfered with.

 

Q19. Consider the following statements regarding Collective Security Treaty Organization (CSTO)

1. It is an Intergovernmental military alliance of former soviet states created in 1992.
2. It aims to strengthen peace, international and regional security and stability.
3. It is a Russia-led military alliance to counterpart NATO.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S19.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Collective Security Treaty Organization (CSTO)

• When the Cold War came to an end in 1991, the Warsaw Pact dissolved.
• In 1992, Russia and five of its allies in the Commonwealth of Independent States signed the CSTO, which came into force in 1994.
• CSTO is an Intergovernmental military alliance of former soviet states created in 1992.
• Aim – To strengthen peace, international and regional security and stability.
• It is a Russia-led military alliance to counterpart NATO.
• Mem bers – Armenia, Belarus, Kazakhstan, Ky rgy zstan, Russia and Tajikistan. (Azerbaijan, Georgia and Uzbekistan quit the alliance)
• Observer status -Afghanistan and Serbia.
• President – The organization uses a rotating presidency sy stem in which the state leading the CSTO changes every year.
• Sessions – held alternately in the member States as necessary, but at least once a year.

 

Q20. The ‘Farzad-B Gas Field’ recently seen in the news is located in?

(a) Arabian Sea

(b) Black Sea

(c) Caspian Sea

(d) Persian Gulf

S20.Ans. (d)

Sol.

India lost the ONGC Videsh Ltd-discovered Farzad-B gas field in the Persian Gulf after Iran awarded a contract for developing the giant gas field to a local company. The National Iranian Oil Company (NIOC) has signed a contract worth USD 1.78 billion with Petropars Group for the development of Farzad B Gas Field in the Persian Gulf. The field holds 23 trillion cubic feet of in-place gas reserves, of which about 60 percent is recoverable. It also holds gas condensates of about 5,000 barrels per billion cubic feet of gas.

 

 Q21. Sthaviravada (Theravada in Pali) or the ‘doctrine of the Elders’ is the oldest thought of school of-

1. Hinayana Buddhism
2. Mahayana Buddhism
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. Neither (a) nor (b)

 

S21.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The oldest school of Hinayana Buddhism is the Sthaviravada (Theravada in Pali) or the ‘doctrine of the Elders’.

 

Q22. Which among the following statements is incorrect regarding Desai-Liaqat Pact?

1. It proposed the formation of an interim government at the center.
2. It was to end the constitutional deadlock between Congress and League.
3. It was fully backed by both Congress and League.
4. It assumed a sort of parity between Congress and the League

 

S22.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Bhulabhai Desai the leader of the congress party in the central legislative assembly met with Liaqat Ali Khan deputy leader of the Muslim League and both came up with this pact to end the constitutional deadlock and seek congress league cooperation to secure independence and meanwhile establish an interim government at the center. The pact proposed an equal no of members nominated each by Congress and the League in the central legislature. However, both the leader did not discuss it prior in their own parties and the major leaders were not even informed of this. The reports of a prospective deal were leaked by the press and both parties were alarmed by this news. Hence Option c is Incorrect

 

Q23. During the reign of which of the following gupta empire was threatened by the Hunas invasion?

1. Skandagupta
2. Buddhagupta
3. Purugupta
4. Kumaragupta I

 

S23.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Skandagupta was a king of the Gupta Dynasty. He came upon the throne after the death of his father, Kumaragupta. He ruled from 455 A.D. to 467 A.D. He successfully resisted the Huna attack and saved India from foreign clutches.

 

Q24. ‘Prajjwala Challenge’ was recently seen in the news, in the context of:

(a) electrification of rural areas.

(b) supply of gas pipelines in hilly areas.

(c) adding more cities in smart city campaign.

(d) transformation of the rural economy with special focus on rural women belonging to the marginalised rural communities in India.

 

S24.Ans.(d)

Sol. The Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD) announce the launch of “Prajjwala Challenge” for bringing about “Transformation of the Indian Rural Economy” with special focus on rural women belonging to the marginalised rural communities in India. x The challenge is launched under Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – NRLM and seeks to expand interest and partnership, mobilise and harvest the power of experts, academia, practitioners, youth, start- ups, Community Based Organisations (CBOs), Self – Help Groups (SHGs), etc. to bring new and innovative ideas to transform the rural economy

 

Q25. Which of the following statements is/are correct about reforms regarding the Special Marriage Act of 1954?

1. The Act doesn’t allow civil marriage for Indian nationals in foreign countries.
2. People belonging to any faith or religion can register their marriage under the Act.
3. The couples have to serve a notice with the relevant documents to the Marriage Officer 30 days before the intended date of the marriage.

Choose the correct answer from options given below

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

S25.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Statements 1 is not correct: The Special Marriage Act, 1954 is an Act of the Parliament of India with provision for civil marriage for people of India and all Indian nationals in foreign countries,

Statement 2 is correct: The act provides for the registration of marriage irrespective of religion or faith followed by either party.

Statement 3 is correct: The couples have to serve a notice with the relevant documents to the Marriage Officer 30 days before the intended date of the marriage.