ଓଡିଶା ସିଭିଲ ସର୍ଭିସ୍ Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | September 3rd Week 2023

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Q1. Consider the following statements with respect to Indian Antarctic program.:

1. It is entirely managed by the National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research.
2. No woman scientist has ever been the part of Indian Antarctica expedition.
3. Himadri was the first permanent research station located at Antarctica.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S1.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct: The National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR), Goa, manages the entire Indian Antarctic program. The 41st Indian Scientific Expedition to Antarctica launched from National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR), Goa on November 15, 2021.

Statement 2 is incorrect: A structural geologist, Sudipta Sengupta, who was one of the first Indian woman to do research in Antarctica and helped establish India’s permanent research station. The Indian Antarctic programme has now credited to have built three permanent research base [Not supply base] stations in Antarctica—named Dakshin Gangotri, Maitri, and Bharati. As of today, India has two operational research stations in Antarctica named Maitri and Bharati.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Himadri is India’s first permanent Arctic research station located at Spitsbergen, Svalbard, Norway.

 

Q2. With reference to the Attorney General of India, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

1. He/she represents the Government of India in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143.
2. He/she has the right to vote and take part in the proceedings of any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named a member.
3. He/she should not advise any ministry of the Government of India unless the proposal in this regard is received through the Ministry of Law and Justice.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 3 only

 

S2.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option c is the correct answer.

The Constitution under Article 76 has provided for the office of the Attorney General for India. He is the highest law officer in the country.

Statement 1 is correct. He represents the Government of India in any reference made by the president to the Supreme Court under Article 143 of the Constitution. (Article 143 is related to the power of President to consult Supreme Court)

Statement 2 is incorrect. He has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named a member, but without a right to vote. Statement 3 is correct. He should not advise any ministry or department of Government of India or any statutory organization or any public sector undertaking unless the proposal or a reference in this regard is received through the Ministry of Law and Justice, Department of Legal Affairs.

 

Q3. Consider the following statements with reference to the Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) :

1. There are 32 bits in IPv6 address compared to 16 bits in IPv4 address.
2. Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is a part of IPv6 which provides end-to-end security.
3. It provides an enabling platform for the Internet of Things and 5G technology.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S3.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Internet Protocol version 6 is the most recent version of the Internet Protocol. This communications protocol provides an identification and location system for computers on networks and routes traffic across the Internet. IPv6 (Internet Protocol version 6) is a set of specifications from the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) that is essentially an upgrade of IP version 4 (IPv4), a category of IP addresses in IPv4-based routing. The basics of IPv6 are similar to those of IPv4 devices can use IPv6 as the source and destination addresses to pass packets over a network, and tools like ping work for network testing as they do in IPv4, with some slight variations. The main difference between IPv4 and IPv6 is the address size of IP addresses. IPv4 is a 32-bit address, whereas IPv6 is a 128-bit hexadecimal address. IPv6 provides a large address space and contains a simple header compared to IPv4. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

 

Q4. Consider the following pairs:

Industrial regions Located in

1. Kuzbass region : Turkmenistan
2. Appalachian region : The USA
3. Sao Paulo : South Korea
4. Gauteng region : South Africa

How many pairs given above are correctly

matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d) All four pairs

 

S4.Ans.(b)

Sol.

The Kemerovo Region – Kuzbass is located in the southeast of Western Siberia, Russia. Kuzbass is the leading coal-producing region in Russia. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.

The Appalachian Region consists of 13 states, from southern New York to northern Mississippi in the United States of America (USA). The region now includes diverse manufacturing and professional and technical service industries, as well as several auto manufacturing plants and a vast network of suppliers. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.

• São Paulo is a city in the Southeast Region of Brazil, South America. São Paulo is the financial and industrial centre of Latin America. The city is considered to headquarters of more German companies than any other single city outside Germany. Likewise, it is also considered to headquarters of more American companies than any other city outside the United States.. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.

The Gauteng City Region is an integrated cluster of cities, towns and urban nodes that together make up the economic heartland of South Africa.. Gauteng includes the cities of Johannesburg, once the world’s most important centre of gold production and today South Africa’s financial capital, and Pretoria, the country’s administrative capital.. Hence pair 4 is correctly matched.

 

Q5. Which among the following languages are not included in the eight schedule of the Indian

constitution

1. Bhojpuri
2. Bodo
3. English
4. Manipuri
5. Mizo
6. Pali
7. Santhali

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

(a) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

(b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only

(c) 1, 2 and 6 only

(d) 3, 6 and 7 only

 

S5.Ans.(b)

Sol.

The Eighth Schedule to the constitution of India lists the official languages of India. Although there are hundreds of languages spoken across the country, the eighth schedule recognizes a total of 22 languages as the official languages. While 14 of these languages were included in the constitution at first, the rest of the languages were added to the constitution through subsequent amendments. Currently, there are 22 languages included in the 8th schedule of the Indian constitution. Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Maithili, Nepali, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santhali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu. Bhojpuri, English, Mizo and Pali are languages that are not included in the eighth schedule of the Indian constitution. There have been demands to include these languages in the Eighth schedule. So, Option (b) is correct.

 

Q6. Which of the following offices will be selected based on the recommendation of a selection committee, where the Leader of Opposition is one of the member?

1. CBI Director
2. NHRC Chairperson
3. Chairperson of Lokpal
4. Chief Information Commissioner
5. Central Vigilance Commissioner

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 3 and 4 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4and 5

 

S6.Ans.(d)

Sol.

• The Supreme Court has recently gave a say to the Opposition in the selection of the Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners.
• It ruled that these officials would be appointed by the President based on the recommendation of a committee comprising the Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha, and Chief Justice of India (CJI).
• Similar high-power panels involves the selection of: 1. The CBI Director 2. Chief Election Commissioner 3. NHRC Chairperson and members 4. CIC and Information Commissioners 5. Chairperson and Members of Lokpal 6. Central Vigilance Commissioner and Vigilance Commissioners

Q7. Which of the following scholars were patronized by the Kushana ruler Kanishka?

1. Vasumitra
2. Bhavabhuti
3. Asvaghosha
4. Nagarjuna
5. Gunadhya

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

 

S7.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option b is the correct answer. Kanishka was the most important ruler of the Kushana dynasty. He patronized Buddhism and is known for propagating the Mahayana form of Buddhism especially in China.

Option 1, 3 and 4 are correct.

Kanishka Patronized Buddhist scholars like Vasumitra (wrote Mahavibhasa), Asvaghosha (wrote hagiographic Buddhacharita), Agesilaus (Greek engineer), Charaka (known as father of Ayurveda (wrote Charaksamhita and Sasruta), Mathara (minister) and Nagarjuna.

Option 2 and 5 are incorrect. Bhavabhuti was patronized by Yasovarman of Kannauj and Gunadhya was patronized by Satvahana king Hala.

 

Q8. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian deserts:

1. It is found along the eastern margin of the Aravalli Hills which receives rainfall less than 150cm per year.
2. The cold desert of Ladakh is enclosed by Karakoram Range and Zanskar mountains.
3. The longitudinal dunes are prominent along Indo-Pakistan border.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

 

S8.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Indian desert lies towards the western margins of the Aravalli Hills. Indian Desert The Indian desert lies towards the western margins of the Aravali Hills. It is an undulating sandy plain covered with sand dunes. This region receives very low rainfall below 150 mm per year. It has arid climate with low vegetation cover. Barchans (crescent-shaped dunes) cover larger areas but longitudinal dunes become more prominent near the Indo-Pakistan boundary. Ladakh is a cold desert lying in the Great Himalayas, on the eastern side of Jammu and Kashmir. The Karakoram Range in the north and the Zanskar mountains in the south enclose it.

Q9. Consider the following statements regarding Earth Surface Mineral Dust Source Investigation (EMIT) Mission.

1. It aims to map to map the mineral composition of arid dust source regions in the visible and short-wave infrared range.
2. This mission is joint collaboration of NASA and European Space Agency

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S9.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Earth Surface Mineral Dust Source Investigation (EMIT) Recently scientists have identified more than 50 super-emitters of heat-trapping methane gas in central Asia, the west Asia and the south western United States. EMIT is a mission to map the mineral composition of arid dust source regions via imaging spectroscopy in the visible and short-wave infrared range. It is originally designed to examine how dust impacts climate and will advance the understanding of dust’s effects throughout the Earth system. It was selected from the Earth Venture Instrument-4 solicitation under the Earth Science Division of NASA Science Mission Directorate. It was developed by NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory and launched through SpaceX Dragon resupply spacecraft from NASA’s Kennedy Space Centre.

  

 Q10. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? Bridges Rivers

1. Bhupen Hazarika Setu : Lohit
2. Daulat Beg Oldi Bridge : Galwan
3. Naranarayan Setu : Ganga

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

 

S10.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. Daulat Beg Oldi Bridge is built over river Shyok. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Naranarayan Bridge has been constructed over the Brahmaputra River. Bridges on Himalayan Rivers The 4.9 km-long Bogibeel Bridge on the Brahmaputra River boasts of being Asia’s second longest rail-cum-road bridge. The new, three lane, 9.15 kilometre Dhola- Sadiya Bridge has been built over river Lohit, a tributary of River Brahmaputra, and links Dhola in Assam to Sadiya in Arunachal Pradesh. It is also referred to as the Bhupen Hazarika Setu. The Border Road Organisation (BRO) had built the all-weather, 70-tonne Bridge over the river Shyok and the 255-km- long Darbuk Shyok Daulat Beg Oldi (DSDBO) road under ‘Project Himank’. Naranarayan was the third bridge to have been constructed over the Brahmaputra River in Assam. The Naranarayan Setu is named after Nara Narayan, a 16th-century Koch king.

 

Q11. Consider the following statements with reference to the Nehru Report of 1928 :

1. It provided for the separation of Sind from Bombay without any conditions
2. It provided for a federal form of Government in India with Residuary powers to be vested in State
3. Under the report, the senate will comprise two hundred members elected for seven years

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 2 only

 

S11.Ans.(b)

Sol.

A committee under the leadership of Motilal Nehru was formed to outline the principles on which the constitution was to be drafted. The draft constitution prepared by the committee is known as the Nehru Report. One of its recommendations is that Sind should be separated from Bombay but with certain conditions like it should be financially self-sufficient to get separated. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

The report stated that there should be a Federal form of Government in India with Residuary powers to be vested in the Centre. There will be no separate electorate for minorities because it awakens communal sentiments, therefore, it should be scrapped and a joint electorate should be introduced. Therefore, the federal form of Government in India with Residuary powers is not to be vested in State. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

The Nehru Report of 1928 mainly recommended that the senate will comprise two hundred members elected for seven years, while the House of Representatives should consist of five hundred members elected for five years. Governor-General will act on the advice of the executive council. It was to be collectively responsible to the parliament. So, Statement 3 is correct.

 

 Q12. With reference to Red Soil in India, consider the following statements

• It develops in areas with low rainfall in the Deccan plateau.
• In hydrated form it looks reddish while in dry form it looks yellow

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S12.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Red soil develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of low rainfall in the southern and eastern part of the Deccan Plateau. A long stretch of area is occupied by red loamy soil, along the piedmont zone of Western Ghat. Yellow and red soils are also found in parts of Chhattisgarh and Odisha and in the southern parts of the middle Ganga plain. Thus, statement 1 is correct . Due to a wide diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks, the soil develops a reddish colour. When it occurs in a hydrated form, it looks yellow. The fine-grained red and yellow soils are normally fertile, whereas in dry upland areas the soil has poor fertility due to coarse-grained structure. They are generally poor in humus, phosphorus, and nitrogen. Thus, statement 2 is incorrect.

 

Q13. Consider the following statements

1. The motion of Thanks can be discussed only in the Lok Sabha.
2. The defeat of the Motion of Thanks in the Lok Sabha amounts to the defeat of the government.
3. It is related to President’s addressal to both Houses of Parliament assembled together

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1and 3
4. 1,2 and 3

 

S13.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Motion of thanks is President’s Address, statement of policy of the Government and, as such, is drafted by the Government. The Address contains a review of various activities and achievements of the Government during the previous year and sets out the policies, projects and programmes which the Government of the day wishes to pursue with regard to the important national and international issues. It is as per Article 87 which provides for the special address by the President. the President shall address both Houses of Parliament assembled together and inform Parliament of the causes of its summons. Such an Address is called ‘special address’, and it is also an annual feature. This Address has to be to both Houses of Parliament assembled together

The first session after each general election and the first session of every year are addressed by

the President. This address of the President is discussed in both the Houses of Parliament. This

motion must be passed in the Lower House; otherwise, it amounts to the defeat of the government, and it has to seek a confidence vote is defeated.

 

Q14. With reference to Panchayat Samiti in India, consider the following statements:

1. It is a local government body at the tehsil or Taluka level in India.
2. It is mandatory for every Indian state to constitute a Panchayati samiti at the intermediate level.
3. District magistrate acts as ex-officio chairman of the panchayat samiti.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 3 only

 

S14.Ans.(b)

Sol.

The Panchayati Raj system is the first tier or level of democratic government. The Panchs and the Gram Panchayat are answerable to the Gram Sabha because it is the members of the Gram Sabha who elected them.

Statement 1 is correct: The Janpad Panchayat or the Panchayat Samiti is created at the Tehsil or taluka level. The Panchayat Samiti has many Gram Panchayats under it. Panchayat Samiti is the middle tier of the Panchayati Raj System. These are named differently in different States. Statement 2 is incorrect: According to the Constitution, it is mandatory for every state to constitute panchayats at village, intermediate and district levels. However, there is an exception that, states with population less than 20Lakh may not be required to constitute panchayat at intermediate level.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Chairperson of the Panchayat at the intermediate level shall be elected by the elected members of Panchayat samiti from amongst the members. (Hence, District Magistrate is not the ex-officio chairman)

 

Q15. Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers?

1. Cauvery
2. Manjira
3. Pennar
4. Tungabhadra

 

S15.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Gandikota canyon is in the Kadappa district of Andhra Pradesh. The gorge is a stunning maze of jagged rocks layered in shades of red. The stunning gorge has been created by the waters of the famous river Pennar that streams from the Erramala hills. The area is now known as the Grand Canyon of India because of its resemblance to the famous US landmark. It’s also home to two ancient temples and a 12th Century fort that sits atop the hills surrounding the gorge. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

 

Q16. Consider the following statements:

1. Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature.
2. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in manufacture of some cosmetics
3. Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter environment are unsafe for humans. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 2 and 3

 

S16.Ans.(d)

Sol.

• Nanoparticles are incredibly tiny particles of a given substance. Nanoparticles are less than 100 nanometers thick. To give some perspective, a nanometer is 1000 times smaller than the thickness of one strand of hair.
• Nanoparticles can be naturally created, for example, minuscule droplets of sea spray. However, most nanoparticles are created in the lab. For sunscreen, the nanoparticles in question are zinc oxide and titanium dioxide. These ingredients are broken down into ultrafine particles before being added to your sunscreen. So, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.
• Inhaled particulate matter can be deposited throughout the human respiratory tract, and an important fraction of inhaled nanoparticles deposit in the lungs. Nanoparticles can potentially move from the lungs to other organs such as the brain, the liver, the spleen and possibly the foetus in pregnant women. So, statement 3 is correct. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer

 

Q17. With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”?

1. Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs.
2. IIBs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation.
3. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S17.Ans.(a)

Sol.

• Inflation-Indexed bonds, or IIBs, are securities designed to help protect investors from inflation. IIBs are indexed to inflation so that the principal and interest payments rise and fall with the rate of inflation. Government can reduce coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs. So, statement 1 is correct.
• An inflation-indexed bond protects both investors and issuers from the uncertainty of inflation over the life of the bond. So, statement 2 is correct.
• Extant tax provisions will be applicable on interest payment and capital gains on IIBs. There will be no special tax treatment for these bonds. So, statement 3 is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

 

Q18. “Yogavasistha” was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of:

1. Akbar
2. Humayun
3. Shahjahan
4. Aurangzeb

 

S18.Ans.(a)

Sol.

• Yogavasistha also known as Maha-Ramayana is a historically popular and influential syncretic philosophical text of Hinduism. Nizamuddin Panipati, who was Akbar’s Mir Bakshi, translated it into persian during Akbar’s reign. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

 

Q19. Which of the following statements regarding the Cultural and Educational Fundamental Rights are correct?

1. The term minority is not defined anywhere in the constitution.
2. It provides the right to protect one’s language to both ‘minorities’ as well as other citizens.
3. The constitution provides rights to minorities as an individual, not as a group.

Select the correct option using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S19.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct: Although the word ‘minority’ is mentioned in the constitution (Article 29, Article 30, etc). It has not been defined anywhere within the constitution itself. This term is not even defined in the National Minorities Commission Act, 1992. This Act makes a provision for the Central Government to notify certain communities as religious communities.

Statement 2 is correct: Article 29 has two provisions:

1) right to conserve the language, script or culture – for any section of people (not necessarily a religious or linguistic minority, as ruled by the Supreme Court)

2) right of any individual to be admitted to any educational institution being maintained by the State, or receiving aid out of State Funds, irrespective of their race, religion, caste or language. So, these rights protect the group as well as individual rights, and are applicable to minorities as well as other citizens.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 30 is a right exclusively provided to minorities – both religious and linguistic – as a group (not as an individual) to establish and administer educational institutions. It also provides that:

1) State shall not discriminate against any educational institution being managed by a minority 2) This right to establish educational institutions for the preservation and propagation of their culture, shall not be restricted by provisions for compulsory acquisition of property by the State.

 

Q20. Who among the following introduced the portfolio system in India?

(a) Lord Canning

(b) Lord William Bentick

(c) Lord Lawrence

(d) Lord Mayo

 

S20.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The Indian Council Act of 1861 recognized the ‘Portfolio System’ introduced by Lord Canning in 1859. Under this, a member of the Viceroy’s council was made in-charge of one or more departments of the government with authority to issue final order on behalf of the council on matters of his department(s).

Features of Indian Council Act, 1861:

• Beginning of representative institutions as Indians were allowed to participate in the law-making process as non-official members of the council. Lord canning nominated 3 Indians (the Raja of Benaras, the Maharaja of Patiala and sir Dinkar Rao) in this process.
• It restored the legislative power of Bombay and Madras presidency which was taken away by the Act of 1833 (beginning of decentralisation). This policy of legislative devolution resulted in the grant of almost complete internal autonomy to the provinces in 1937.
• The Act provided for the establishment of new legislative councils for Bengal, North-Western Frontier Province (NWFP) and Punjab, which were established in 1862, 1866 and 1897 respectively.
• The Act gave a recognition to the ‘portfolio’ system, introduced by Lord Canning in 1859. Under this, a member of the Viceroy’s council was made in- charge of one or more departments of the government and was authorised to issue final orders on behalf of the council on matters of his department(s).
• The Act empowered the Viceroy to issue ordinances (valid for 6 months), without the concurrence of the legislative council, during an emergency.

 

Q21. The Speaker of Lok Sabha derives its power from which of the following?

1. The Constitution of India
2. The Parliamentary conventions
3. The Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S21.Ans.(d)

Sol.

The Speaker of the Lok Sabha derives his powers and duties from three sources, that is, the Constitution of India, the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha, and Parliamentary Conventions (residuary powers that are unwritten or unspecified in the Rules). The Speaker is the head of the Lok Sabha, and its representative. He is the guardian of powers and privileges of the members, the House as a whole and its committees. He is the principal spokesman of the House, and his decision in all Parliamentary matters is final. He is thus much more than merely the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha. In these capacities, he is vested with vast, varied and vital responsibilities and enjoys great honour, high dignity and supreme authority within the House.

 

Q22. Which of the following are true regarding the Fundamental Rights (FRs)?

1. FRs are justiciable in nature.
2. FRs are absolute in nature.
3. Both Supreme Court and High Courts can issue writs under Article 32.
4. Parliament can empower any court within India to issue writs.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

 

S22.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option (d) is correct:

FRs are justiciable in nature, that is, they are enforceable by the courts for their violation. The aggrieved person can directly go to the Supreme Court which can issue the writs of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo warranto for the restoration of his rights. However, the Fundamental Rights are not absolute and subject to reasonable restrictions. Further, they are not sacrosanct and can be curtailed or repealed by the Parliament through a constitutional amendment act. They can also be suspended during the operation of a National Emergency except the rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21. The Supreme Court (under Article 32) and the high courts (under Article 226) can issue the writs of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo- warranto. The Parliament (under Article 32) can empower any other court to issue these writs. Since no such provision has been made so far, only the Supreme Court and the high courts can issue the writs and not any other court. Before 1950, only the High Courts of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras had the power to issue the writs. Article 226 now empowers all the high courts to issue the writs.

 

Q23. With reference to the Start-ups in India, consider the following statements

1. Among the Indian states, Karnataka has the highest number of recognised start-ups.
2. Unicorn is a term given to Start-up company whose annual profit is more than $1 billion.
3. Under the Start-up India initiative, there is no direct fund allocation from Union government to states governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

 S23.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option c is the correct answer. Start-ups in India have grown remarkably over the last six years, most of these belong to the services sector. As of 2022 there were more than 61,400 start-ups that have been recognised in India

Statement 1 is incorrect: With a total of 11,308 start-ups Maharashtra has the highest number of recognised start-ups in India while Karnataka has total of 8,881. Recently, Delhi has replaced Bangalore as the start-up capital of India. Over 5,000 recognised start-ups were added in Delhi while 4,514 start-ups were added in Bangalore between 2019 to 2021.

Statement 2 is incorrect; Unicorn is a term used in the venture capital industry to describe a privately held start-up company with a market valuation of over $1 billion.

Statement 3 is correct: There is no direct fund allocation from DPIIT to States/UTs under Start-up India initiative. However, Government of India has established a Fund of Funds for Start-ups (FFS) with corpus of Rs. 10,000 crores, to meet the funding needs of start-ups. DPIIT is the monitoring agency and Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) is the operating agency for FFS. The flow of funds is Government > SIDBI > Venture Capitals >Start-ups.

 

Q24. Consider the following statements with respect to the Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes (MISHTI):

1. The programme will facilitate mangrove plantation along India’s coastline and on salt pan lands.
2. India has mangrove forests on almost entire coastal line
3. Mangrove trees can sequester more carbon than tropical rainforests.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S24.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes (MISHTI)

MISHTI is a new programme that will facilitate mangrove plantation along India’s coastline and on salt pan lands. The programme will operate through convergence between MGNREGS, Campa Fund and other sources. This new programme will aim at intensive afforestation of coastal mangrove forests. India has such forests on both its Eastern and Western coasts with the Sundarbans in Bengal being one of the largest mangrove forests on the planet. Importance of the programme Mangroves are not just some of the most bio-diverse locations in India, they also protect the coastlines from the vagaries of inclement weather. As climate change increases the incidence of extreme weather events across the world, mangrove plantations have shown to make coastal lands resilient, preventing flooding, land erosion and acting as a buffer for cyclones. Furthermore, they are also excellent carbon sinks. Mangrove trees can grow in saline waters, and can sequester up to four times more carbon than tropical rainforests.

 

Q25. Consider the following statements regarding the rubber plant:

1. It is naturally suited for colder conditions of North Eastern states.
2. The plant requires well-drained and well- weathered laterite soils.
3. It requires rainfall of more than 200 cm for effective growth in a year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S25.Ans.(a)

Sol.

x Natural rubber is a native of warm humid Amazon forests and is not naturally suited for the colder conditions in the Northeast, which is one of the largest producers of rubber in India. A Rubber Board research farm on the outskirts of Guwahati now sports the world’s first genetically modified (GM) rubber plant tailored for the climatic conditions in the Northeast. Hence statement 1 is not correct

Growth of young rubber plants remains suspended during the winter months, which are also characterized by progressive drying of the soil. This is the reason for the long immaturity period of this crop in the North East region. The MnSOD gene, which is used has the ability to protect plants from the adverse effects of severe environmental stresses such as cold and drought.

The GM rubber has additional copies of the gene MnSOD, or manganese-containing superoxide dismutase, inserted in the plant, which is expected to tide over the severe cold conditions during winter — a major factor affecting the growth of young rubber plants in the region. The plant was developed at the Kerala- based Rubber Research Institute of India (RRII).

Required Conditions for Growth:

o It is an equatorial crop, but under special conditions, it is also grown in tropical and sub-tropical areas.

o Rainfall— It should be well distributed throughout the year with more than 200 cm of rainfall and humidity of around 80%, 2000 hours of sunshine, and the absence of strong winds are also necessary for the best results. Hence statement 3 is correct.

o Soil- Trees demand well-drained and well-weathered soils. – Lateritic type, alluvial, sedimentary types, and non-lateritic red soils are best for the growth of these trees. Hence statement 2 is correct.

o Temperature- Above 25°C. o Suitable soil and climatic conditions occur on the hill slopes at elevations ranging from 300 to 450 meters above sea level.

o The yields decline at higher elevations due to a fall in temperature and less mature soils.

o Practically no rubber plantations are found above 700 m elevation.