ଓଡିଶା ସିଭିଲ ସର୍ଭିସ୍ Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | September 4th Week 2023

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Q1. In the context of Indian Polity, consider the following statements:

1. Governors cannot be sued for their official acts during the term of their office or thereafter.
2. The Constitution does not grant any immunity to the ministers for their personal as well as official acts.
3. The judicial officers enjoy immunity from any liability in respect of their official acts.

Which of the statement(s) given above is /are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S1.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option d is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct. The governors cannot be sued during the term of their office or thereafter, for any act done by them in the exercise and performance of their official powers and duties.

Statement 2 is correct. The Constitution does not grant any immunity to the ministers for their official acts. But, since they are not required to countersign the official acts of the president and the governors, they are not liable in the courts for those acts. The ministers do not enjoy any immunity for their personal acts, and can be sued for crimes as well as torts in the ordinary courts like common citizens.

Statement 3 is correct. The judicial officers enjoy immunity from any liability in respect of their official acts and hence, cannot be sued. The Judicial Officers Protection Act (1850) lays down that, ‘no judge, magistrate, justice of peace, collector or other person acting judicially shall be liable to be sued in any civil court for any act done by him in the discharge of his official duty’.

 

Q2. Semi-automated offside technology recently seen in media related to which one of the following fields ?

(a) It is used by submarines to launch missiles accurately and at a faster rate.

(b) It is a supportive tool used in sports to make faster, more reproducible and more accurate decisions.

(c) It is used in space-operated devices to get faster and more accurate results in the international space station.

(d) None of the above

 

S2.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Semi-automated offside technology (SAOT) is an evolution of the Video Assistant Referee (VAR) systems implemented worldwide. The new technology offers a support tool for the video match officials and the on-field officials to help them make faster, more accurate and more reproducible offside decisions on the biggest stage. Recently, it has been used at the 2022 World Cup in Qatar to enable referees to make faster, more accurate offside decisions. So, Option (b) is correct.

 

Q3. Consider the following regions of India:

1. Himalayan Foreland Basin
2. Vindhyan Basin
3. Pranhita-Godavari Basin

Which of the regions given above have potential Gas Hydrate reserves?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S3.Ans.(d)

Sol.

• Methane Hydrate is a cage-like lattice of ice inside of which are trapped molecules of methane, the chief constituent of natural gas.
• It is found in a sea-bed that forms at low temperatures and high pressure. It is also found in onshore deposits in the permafrost of northern Canada and Russia. Heating the deposits or lowering the pressure will release gas from the solid. One litre of solid hydrate releases around 165 litres of gas.

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)

1. It is an autonomous body under University Grants Commission (UGC).
2. The NAAC accreditation also covers distance education unit of Higher Educational Institutions (HEI).
3. Paramarsh is a scheme for mentoring NAAC to promote quality assurance in Higher Education. Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. None of the above

 

S4.Ans.(a)

Sol.

NAAC

• The NAAC is an autonomous body under the University Grants Commission (UGC).
• Its core function is to assess and certify Higher-level Educational Institutions (HEIs) with grading.
• It evaluates whether a higher education institution meets the standards of quality in terms of curriculum, faculty , infrastructure, research, and other parameters.
• The accreditation is valid for five years.
• Among the states, Maharashtra accounts for the highest number of accredited colleges.
• The NAAC accreditation does not cover distance education units of HEIs and offshore campuses.
• It also does not accredit institutions providing technical education by the National Board of Accreditation (NBA).
• Paramarsh scheme – To mentor National Accreditation and Assessment Council (NAAC) accreditation aspirant institutions for promoting quality assurance in higher education.
• UGC is responsible for approving Universities or Colleges whereas NAAC accredits the programs offered in the University or institute.

 

Q5. With reference to Deficit financing, consider the following:

Assertion(A): The deficit financing by government necessarily leads to higher inflation in the country.

Reason(R): Deficit financing leads to a situation where aggregate demand may exceeds aggregate supply in an economy.

Which of the options given below is correct?

1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

      

S5.Ans.(a)

Sol.

option d is the correct answer.

Assertion(A) is incorrect. Deficit financing (budget deficit) by the government raises the aggregate demand in the economy because of easy availability of money. It might create an inflationary situation as too much money is chasing a few goods. However, if the government policy is framed in a manner that raises the total output of the economy or releases the unutilised potential of the economy then the inflation may not occur. So, A is not correct because of the word “necessarily”

Reason(R) is correct. As deficit budgeting infuses more money into the economy it leads to a situation of excess of aggregate demand over aggregate supply.

 

 

Q6. “Hwasong-17” recently seen in media related to which one of the following ?

(a) Reusable low Earth orbital spacecraft system designed by the Korea Aerospace Research Institute (KARI).

(b) It is an “artificial moon” research facility that will simulate low-gravity environments using magnetism.

(c) It is a nuclear-armed and the largest liquid-fuelled Intercontinental Ballistic missile of Pyongyang.

(d) None of the above

 

S6.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The Hwasong-17 is North Korea’s new ‘monster missile.’ The Hwasong-17 is nuclear-armed North Korea’s biggest missile and is the largest road-mobile, liquid- fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) in the world. The missile is test-fired at Pyongyang International Airport in Pyongyang, North Korea. So, Option (c) is correct.

 

Q7. Consider the following statements regarding Article 176

1. It is constitutional mandate for the governor to address to the first sitting of the legislature after each general election to the Legislative Assembly and Commencement of the first session of each year
2. After the President or Governor delivers the address, a debate takes place only on the contents of the address

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S7.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Article 176 (Special address by the Governor): The Governor shall address the Legislative Assembly or both Houses (in the case of a State having a Legislative Council), assembled together at the Commencement of the first session after each general election to the Legislative Assembly and Commencement of the first session of each year. After the President or Governor delivers the address, a debate takes place not only on the contents of the address but also the broad issues of governance in the country. This then paves the way for discussion on the Budget.

 

Q8. Consider the following statements :

1. Ocean acidification is an increase in the pH of the ocean, as carbonic acid increases due to the dissolving of carbon dioxide.
2. Ocean Acidification is referred to as the ‘Evil Twin’ of Global Warming.
3. The IAEA’s Ocean Acidification International Coordination Centre (OA-ICC) promotes international collaboration on ocean acidification.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 2 only

 

S8.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Ocean acidification refers to a reduction in the pH of the ocean over an extended period of time, caused primarily by the uptake of carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere. Because of human-driven increased levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, there is more CO2 dissolving into the ocean. The ocean’s average pH is now around 8.1 which is basic (or alkaline), but as the ocean continues to absorb more CO2, the pH decreases and the ocean becomes more acidic. Water and carbon dioxide combine to form carbonic acid (H2CO3), a weak acid that breaks (or “dissociates”) into hydrogen ions (H+) and bicarbonate ions (HCO3-). This carbonic acid level increases as more dissolution of carbon dioxide happen in oceans, which in turn reduces the pH value of the ocean. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

 

Q9. Consider the following statements with reference to the Swaraj Party of 1923 :

1. Chittaranjan Das was the Secretary of the party.
2. It was described as a rival organization to the Indian National Congress.
3. It was successful in bringing an amendment to the Act of 1919.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S9.Ans.(d)

Sol.

The Swaraj Party was a political party formed in India in January 1923 following the Indian National Congress’s annual Congress in Gaya in December 1922. It was formed by Chittaranjan Das and Motilal Nehru. Chittaranjan Das was its President, and Motilal Nehru was its secretary. Both leaders decided to contest legislative council seats in elections. Their goal was to disrupt a foreign administration. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

The Swarajists were allowed to contest elections as a group within Congress. The Swarajists accepted the Congress program with only one difference – that they would join legislative councils. But the party was described as a party within the Congress and not as a rival organization. So, Statement 2 is not correct. .

The Swaraj Party’s objective was to enter the Council by participating in the general elections at the end of 1923 to block the Government of India Act of 1919 from within the Council. But they neither amend nor end the Government of India Act 1919. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

 

Q10. Consider the following pairs :

Revolutionary Organization/ Movement

1. Madanlal Dhingra – India House
2. Barkatulla – Ghadr movement
3. Vinayak Savarkar – Mitra Mela

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S10.Ans.(d)

Sol.

In 1905, Shyamji Krishnavarma started an Indian Home Rule Society ‘India House’ in London as a center for Indian students, a scholarship scheme to bring radical youth from India. Several revolutionaries got associated with it whereby the most important ones are V D Savarkar and Madan Lal Dhingra. Madanlal Dhingra from this circle assassinated the India office bureaucrat Curzon-Wyllie in 1909. So, Pair 1 is correct.

The Ghadr programme was to organize assassinations of officials, publish revolutionary and anti-imperialist literature, work among Indian troops stationed abroad, procure arms, and bring about a simultaneous revolt in all British colonies. The moving spirits behind the Ghadr Party were Lala Hardayal, Ramchandra, Bhagwan Singh, Kartar Singh Saraba, Barkatullah, and Bhai Parmanand. So, Pair 2 is correct. Savarkar and his brother organized Mitra Mela, a secret society, in 1899 which merged with Abhinav Bharat (after Mazzini’s ‘Young Italy’) in 1904. Soon Nasik, Poona, and Bombay emerged as centers of bomb manufacture. This society actively took part in organizing meetings, bringing out publications, and celebrating Ganapati and Shivaji festivals. So, Pair 3 is correct.

 

Q11. Which of the following is certainly a consequence of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State ?

1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
2. Dismissal of the Council of Ministers in the State

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S11.Ans.(a)

Sol.

When the President’s Rule is imposed in a state, the President dismisses the state council of ministers headed by the chief minister. The state governor, on behalf of the President, carries on the state administration with the help of the chief secretary of the state or the advisors appointed by the President.

This proclamation under Article 356 is popularly known as the imposition of ‘President’s Rule’ in a state. Further, the President either suspends or dissolves the state legislative assembly.

When the state legislature is thus suspended or dissolved:

• The Parliament can delegate the power to make laws for the state to the President or any other authority specified by him in this regard.
• The Parliament or, in case of delegation, the President or any other specified authority can make laws conferring powers and imposing duties on the Centre or its officers and authorities.
• When the Lok Sabha is not in session, the President can authorize expenditure from the state consolidated fund pending its sanction by the Parliament.
• The President can promulgate ordinances for the governance of the state when the Parliament is not in session.
• The Parliament passes the State Legislative Bills and the State Budget.

So, Statement 1 is not correct and Statement 2 is correct.

 

Q12. Consider the following statements regarding Artemis II

1. It a joint mission between NASA and European Space Agency (ESA).
2. It will be the first crewed mission of the Artemis program which aims to establish a long-term human and scientific presence on the Moon.
3. Orion spacecraft will serve as the exploration vehicle that will carry the crew to space.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S12.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Artem is II

• Partnership –USA and Canada
• Aim – To test NASA’s foundational human deep space exploration capabilities.
• Orion will serve as the exploration vehicle that will carry the crew to space, provide emergency abort capability.
• Mission’s first o The mission aims to land the first woman and first person of color (used to describe any person who is not white) on the Moon. o It will be the 1st crewed mission of the Artemis program.

Artem is – I

• It is the first in a series of missions that are planned to take humans back to the Moon.
• Artemis 1 is an unmanned lunar Orbiter mission with Orion Space Capsule.
• It also explores the possibilities of extended stay in the moon and to investigate the potential to use the Moon as a launch pad for deep space explorations.
• NASA’s previous moon landing missions were named after Apollo. Artemis is Apollo’s my thological twin sister.
• Artem is – III – NASA’s First Human Mission to the Lunar South Pole.

 

Q13. Consider the following statements

1. The ‘office of whip’ is a Parliamentary convention and is not mentioned in constitution.
2. Only recognised national parties can issue whip

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S13.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The term ‘whip’ is derived from the old British practice of “whipping in” lawmakers to follow the party line. The ‘office of whip’ is not mentioned or defined in the Constitution. The ‘office of whip’ is a Parliamentary convention. In parliamentary parlance, a whip may refer to both A written order to members of a party in the House to abide by a certain direction, and To a designated official of the party who is authorised to issue such a direction. Position – In India, all parties can issue whips to their members. Parties appoint a senior member from among their House contingents to issue whips. This member is called a chief whip, and he/ she is assisted by additional whips.

Q14. When Financial emergency is in operation the president may issue directions to observe such canons of financial propriety. Which among the following directions could not be issued by the

President?

1. Reduction of salaries and allowances of all class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of a State
2. Reserve any bill for the consideration of the President after they are passed by the Legislature of a State
3. Reduction of salaries and allowances of all class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union
4. Reduction of salaries and allowances of the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts

 

 S14.Ans.(b)

Sol.

The Financial Emergency can be proclaimed under Article 360, which provides that if the President is satisfied that the financial stability or credit of India or any of its part is in danger, he may declare a state of Financial Emergency.

Both Houses of Parliament must approve Financial Emergency within two months.

After the proclamation of a Financial Emergency, the following Provisions are issued by the President.

• The Union Government may give directions to any of the States regarding financial matters.
• The President may ask the State government to reduce the salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons in government service.
• The President may also give directions for reducing salaries and allowances of the Central

Government employees, including the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.

• The President may ask the States to reserve all the money bills for the consideration of the

Parliament after the State Legislature has passed them. When a financial emergency is in operation, the President may ask the states to reserve only the money bill.

So, Option (b) is correct.

 

Q15. Consider the following statements with reference to the Panchayati Raj Institutions in India:

1. The term Gram Sabha has not been defined in the constitution.
2. No more than three villages can be covered under a Panchayat.
3. One of the powers of Gram Sabha is finalization of list of below poverty line people in Panchayat area. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

( a) 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

 

S15.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option b is the correct answer. The Gram Sabha is the fulcrum of the Panchayati Raj and village development. People use the forum of the Gram Sabha to discuss local governance and development, and make need- based plans for the village.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The term Gram Sabha is defined in the Constitution of India under Article 243(b). It is a permanent body. Gram Sabha is the Sabha of the electorate. All other institutions of the Panchayati Raj like the Gram Panchayat, Block Panchayat and Zilla Parishad are constituted by elected representatives. The Gram Sabha is a meeting of all adults who live in the area covered by a Panchayat. Anyone who is 18 years old or more and who has the right to vote is a member of the Gram Sabha. Statement 2 is incorrect: There is no specific bar on number of villages in a Panchayat. It can even be one village or number of villages under a Panchayat. Every Village Panchayat is divided into wards, i.e. smaller areas. Each ward elects a representative who is known as the Ward Member (Panch). All the members of the Gram Sabha also elect a Sarpanch who is the Panchayat President. The Ward Panchs and the Sarpanch form the Gram Panchayat. The Gram Panchayat is elected for five years.

Statement 3 is correct: Constitution mentions that Gram Sabha exercises such powers and performs such functions at the village level as the Legislature of a State may, by law, provide. For instance, they approve of the plans, programmes and projects for social and economic development before such plans, programmes and projects are taken up for implementation by the Panchayat at the village level. It is also responsible for the identification or selection of persons as beneficiaries under the poverty alleviation, preparing list of people Below Poverty Line and other programmes

 

Q16. Consider the following pairs: River Flows into

1. Mekong Andaman Sea
2. Thames Irish Sea
3. Volga Caspian Sea
4. Zambezi Indian Ocean

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

 

S16.Ans.(c)

Sol.

• Mekong river flows into South China Sea after crossing Laos, (Also some parts of Myanmar) Thailand, Cambodia and lastly in Vietnam.
• Thames flows into English channel. It passes through London which is on the Eastern part of U.K. Irish sea is on the Western side.
• Zambezi river flows into Indian Ocean after crossing Mozambique. It is in the East Africa.
• Volga flows into Caspian Sea after meandering through Russia Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

 

Q17. With reference to “Blockchain Technology” consider the following statements:

1. It is a public ledger that everyone can inspect, but which no single user controls.
2. The structure and design of blockchain is such that all the data in it are about cryptocurrency only.
3. Applications that depend on basic features of blockchain can be developed without anybody’s permission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

 

S17.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Blockchain can be defined as a distributed ledger technology that can record transactions between parties in a secure and permanent way. By ‘sharing’ databases between multiple parties, blockchain essentially removes the need for intermediaries who were previously required to act as trusted third parties to verify record and coordinate transactions.

• It is a foundational technology or a platform that allows designing a secure way to record transactions and circulate it among signatories, or any kind of target group with an Internet connection. At its core it is an extremely democratic ledger that cannot be arbitrarily manipulated and easily shareable. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The structure of block chain to eliminate intermediary and enhance authentication such that it supports wide range of applications in health, education, governance, diamond industry, financial sector, etc. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Most of the applications using block chain technology do not fulfil the criteria of patent filing in Blockchain Technology. Distributed ledger in peer to peer network is used for recording the transactions which does not generate much confidence in getting the patent as it is like getting a patent for an algorithm/Computer Program and as per Indian Patent Act, 1970, Section 3(k) which states that “a mathematical or Business method or a computer program per se or Algorithms” are not patentable. As per the ruling of Delhi High Court in the 2014 case of Ericson Vs Intex, the court stated that any invention which has a technical contribution or has a technical effect and is not merely a computer program per se as alleged by the defendant and the same is patentable.”. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

 

Q18. With reference to the expenditure made by an organization or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure.
2. Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S18.Ans.(a)

Sol.

• Capital expenditures (CapEx) are funds used by a company to acquire, upgrade, and maintain physical assets such as property, plants, buildings, technology, or equipment. CapEx is often used to undertake new projects or investments by a company. Types of capital expenditures can include purchases of property, equipment, land, computers, furniture, and software. So, statement 1 is correct.
• Debt financing occurs when a firm raises money for working capital or capital expenditures by selling debt instruments to individuals and/or institutional investors. In return for lending the money, the individuals or institutions become creditors and receive a promise that the principal and interest on the debt will be repaid. The other way to raise capital in debt markets is to issue shares of stock in a public offering; this is called equity financing. Both debt financing and equity financing are considered as capital expenditures. Revenue expenditures are the ongoing operating expenses, which are short-term expenses used to run the daily business operations. So, statement 2 is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

 

Q19. Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India?

1. Charter Act of 1813
2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S19.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option d is the correct answer.

Option 1 is correct: The Charter Act of 1813 required the company to spend rupees 1 lakh annually for encouraging learned Indians and promoting the knowledge of modern sciences in India.

Option 2 is correct: In 1823, the Governor -General -in Council appointed a “General Committee of Public Instruction”, which had the responsibility to grant the one lakh of rupees for education.

Option 3 is correct: Orientalist -Anglicists Controversy: Within the General Committee on Public Instruction, the Anglicists argued that the government spending on education should be exclusively for modern studies. The Orientalists said while western sciences and literature should be taught to prepare students to take up jobs, emphasis should be placed on expansion of traditional Indian learning.

Q20. Consider the following statements with reference to horizontal and vertical reservations in India:

1. Reservation for SCs, STs, and OBCs is referred to as vertical reservation.
2. Horizontal reservation refers to the equal opportunity provided to women and individuals with disabilities.
3. The Fundamental Rights under Part III of the constitution provides only vertical reservation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S20.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option a is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct: Reservation for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes is referred to as vertical reservation. It applies separately for each of the groups specified under the law.

Statement 2 is correct: Horizontal reservation refers to the equal opportunity provided to other categories of beneficiaries such as women, veterans, the transgender community, and individuals with disabilities, cutting through the vertical categories.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 16(4) of the Constitution contemplates vertical reservation while Article 15 (3) of the Constitution contemplates horizontal reservation. Article 15(4) and 16(4) of the Constitution provides the State and Central Governments to reserve seats in government services for the members of the SC and ST. Article 15(3) makes it possible for the state to create special provisions for protecting the interests of women and children. Knowledge Base: Recently, supreme court ruled that if a person belonging to an intersection of vertical- horizontal reserved category had secured scores high enough to qualify without the vertical reservation, the person would be counted as qualifying without the vertical reservation, and cannot be excluded from the horizontal quota in the general category.

 

Q21. With reference to citizenship in India, consider the following statements:

1. The constitution of India provides for Single citizenship.
2. A person can acquire citizenship by naturalisation if he/she fulfils all qualifications in the third schedule of the Citizenship Act. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

S21.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct: Though the Indian Constitution is federal and envisages a dual polity (Centre and states), it provides for only a single citizenship, that is, the Indian citizenship. The citizens in India owe allegiance only to the Union. There is no separate state citizenship like USA and Switzerland.

Statement 2 is correct: A person can acquire citizenship by naturalisation if he/she fulfils all qualifications in the third schedule of the Citizenship Act.

 

Q22. Which of the following statements are true?

1. The presidential system is based on the principle of cooperation and coordination between the legislative and executive organ of the Government.
2. The parliamentary system is based on the doctrine of separation of powers between the legislative and executive organ of the Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S22.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option (d) is correct:

The Constitution of India has opted for the British parliamentary System of Government rather than American Presidential System of Government. The parliamentary system is based on the principle of cooperation and coordination between the legislative and executive organs while the presidential system is based on the doctrine of separation of powers between the two organs. The parliamentary system is also known as the ‘Westminster’ model of government, responsible government and cabinet government. The Constitution establishes the parliamentary system not only at the Centre but also in the states.

The features of parliamentary government in India are:

• Presence of nominal and real executives
• Majority party rule
• Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature
• Membership of the ministers in the legislature
• Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister
• Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly). In a parliamentary system whether in India or Britain, the role of the Prime Minister has become so significant and crucial that the political scientists like to call it a ‘Prime Ministerial Government’.

Q23. With reference to the Reinsurance Companies in India, consider the following statements:

1. Reinsurance companies have been kept out of regulatory jurisdiction of the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India.
2. The foreign reinsurance companies are prohibited from operating in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S23.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option d is the correct answer. The term reinsurer refers to a company that provides financial protection to insurance companies. Reinsurers handle risks that are too large for insurance companies to handle on their own and make it possible for insurance companies to obtain more business.

Statement 1 is incorrect The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA) of India is a regulatory body entrusted with a task to regulate, promote and ensure orderly growth of the insurance and reinsurance industries in India.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Swiss Reinsurance Company Ltd, India Branch, Lloyd’s India Reinsurance Branch are some of the foreign reinsurance branches operating in India. Recently the Insurance Regulator Development Authority (IRDA) has allowed foreign reinsurance branches, including Lloyd’s India, to repatriate up to 20% of the excess assigned capital to attract more players and allow free movement of capital.

 

Q24. Consider the following statements regarding Asiatic black bear’

1. It is bear species native to Asia and prominently found in Himalayan regions.
2. It is listed as endangered in the IUCN Red List and protected under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S24.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The Asian black bear (Ursus thibetanus), also known as the Asiatic black bear, moon bear and white-chested bear, is a medium-sized bear species native to Asia that is largely adapted to an arboreal lifestyle. It lives in the Himalayas, southeastern Iran, the northern parts of the Indian subcontinent, the Korean Peninsula, China, the Russian Far East, the islands of Honshū and Shikoku in Japan, and Taiwan.     It is listed as vulnerable in the IUCN Red List and protected under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act. It also comes under Appendix I of CITES

 

Q25. Consider the following statements with respect to Doppler Effect:

1. It refers to the change in wave frequency during the relative motion between a wave source and its observer.
2. It works on both light and sound sources.
3. The universe expands as a consequence of the Doppler Effect.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S25.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Doppler Effect

• Doppler Effect refers to the change in wave frequency during the relative motion between a wave source and its observer.
• It was discovered by Christian Johann Doppler who described it as the process of increase or decrease of starlight that depends on the relative movement of the star.
• Doppler Effect works on both light and sound objects.
• For instance, when a sound object moves towards you, the frequency of the sound waves increases, leading to a higher pitch.
• Conversely, if it moves away from you, the frequency of the sound waves decreases and the pitch comes down.
• The drop in pitch of ambulance sirens as they pass by and the shift in red light are common examples of the Doppler Effect.
• Edwin Hubble made the discovery that the universe expands as a consequence of the Doppler Effect.
• It has important applications in the fields of astronomy and space technology.
• The use of Doppler Effect in astronomy in relation to light waves depends on the fact that the spectra of stars are not constant.
• Different stars exhibit different absorption lines at defined frequencies, but Doppler Effect is identifiable only when these absorption lines are away from these defined frequencies.
• There are various applications of Doppler Effect which include: Sirens; Astronomy; Radars; Medical imaging and blood flow management; Flow management; Velocity profile management; Satellite communication; Audio; Vibration measurement.