Odisha Civil Services Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | April 1st Week 2023

Q1. Consider the following:

1. The Council of Ministers aid and advise the Lieutenant•-Governor in the exercise of his functions in relation to matters with respect to which the Delhi legislative assembly has power to make law.
2. In the case of difference of opinion between the Lieutenant Governor and Council of Ministers, the Lieutenant Governor shall refer it to the President for decision and act according to the decision given thereon by the President.

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S1. Ans.(c)

Sol. Lt. Governor and Council of Ministers

The Council of Ministers (i.e. CM and his Ministers) are elected to aid and advise the LG in the exercise of his functions in relation to matters with respect to which the Legislative assembly has power to make law.

Therefore, in respect of Public Order, Police & Land – LG would not need aid and advise from the Council of Ministers. For other matters enumerated in the State List, this arrangement would work. In the case of difference of opinion between the Lieutenant Governor and Council of Ministers, the Lieutenant Governor shall refer it to the President for decision and act according to the decision given thereon by the President. — 239AA (4)

 

Q2. Which of the following is/are applications of Inflatable Aerodynamic Decelerator (IAD) technology?

1. To recover spent stages of the rocket
2. To land payloads on Mars or Venus
3. To launch aircraft from warships
4. To make space habitat for human space flight missions

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

S2.Ans.(c)

Sol. An inflatable Aerodynamic Decelerator or IAD is a technique used for an atmospheric entry payload. An inflatable envelope and an inflatant (anything that inflates the envelope, like air or helium) make up the inflatable aerodynamic decelerator. An IAD, designed and developed by Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC), has been successfully test- flown in a Rohini-sounding rocket from Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station. The IAD was initially folded and kept inside the rocket’s payload bay. At around 84 km altitude, the IAD was inflated and descended through the atmosphere with the payload part of a sounding rocket. ISRO’s Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre (LPSC) developed the pneumatic system for inflation. The IAD has systematically reduced the payload’s velocity through aerodynamic drag and followed the predicted trajectory. IAD has huge potential in a variety of space applications:

• Recovery of spent stages of the rocket.
• Landing payloads onto Mars or Venus.
• Making space habitat for human space flight missions. So, Option (c) is correct.

 

Q3. With reference to Surveillance devices, consider the following statements :

1. LiDAR is a tool to measure the shape and contour of the ground from the air.
2. RADAR covers shorter distances when compared to LiDAR devices.
3. SONAR system is used for measuring the depth of water.
4. Light waves travel farther in the water than radar and sound waves.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1,2 and 3 only

(d) 1,3 and 4 only

 

S3.Ans.(a)

Sol. Lidar (Light Detection and Ranging) is a remote sensing method that uses light as a pulsed laser to measure ranges (variable distances) to the Earth. These light pulses, combined with other data recorded by the airborne system, generate precise, three-dimensional information about the shape of the Earth and its surface characteristics. So, Statement 1 is correct.

RADAR (Radio Detecting And Ranging) is based on the use of radio waves. Radars send out electromagnetic waves similar to wireless computer networks and mobile phones. The signals are sent out as short pulses, which may be reflected by objects in their path, in part reflecting back to the radar. When these pulses intercept precipitation, part of the energy is scattered back to the radar. This concept is similar to hearing an echo. RADAR can cover longer distances than LiDAR devices because radio waves have a much longer wavelength than light waves. So, Statement 2 is not correct

Sonar (Sound Navigation and Ranging) helps explore and map the ocean because sound waves travel farther in the water than radar and light waves. Light travels only relatively short distances through water, and the greater part of the oceans is almost completely dark. When light propagates through water, its intensity decreases exponentially with distance from the source. The advantage of using sonar waves over electromagnetic waves is that electromagnetic waves lose energy fast in ocean water because water can conduct electricity. Thus, Sonar waves can travel farther in water and are used for measuring water depth. So, Statement 3 is correct, and Statement 4 is not correct.

 

Q4. With reference to fertilizers consider the following statements that how do Neem coated urea (NCU) different from Sulphur coated urea.Select the incorrect statement

(SCU) ?

1. NCU is a slow-release fertilizer, but it is not so in the case of sulphur-coated urea.
2. SCU is non-organic coating fertilizer, but NCU is an organic coating fertilizer.
3. NCU contains less nitrogen than SCU.
4. NCU reduces soil compaction, but SCU increases soil compaction.

 

S4.Ans.(a)

Sol.

In Neem-coated urea (NCU), a layer of Neem is applied over the plain urea, which increases the land fertility capacity and leads to higher crop production. Sulphur Coated Urea (SCU) is made by coating urea with sulphur and sealant, whereby the main coating material of SCU is sulfur. Neem Coated Urea (NCU) and Sulphur Coated Urea (SCU) are both slow-release fertilizers. The coating on urea helps the slow release of nitrogen, which contributes to improved nitrogen use efficiency. So, Statement A is not correct.

Sulphur Coated Urea is an example of nonorganic coating fertilizer; It is prepared by coating preheated urea granules with molten sulfur. Whereby Neem oil, a wholly organic product, is one such inhibitor which had the quality that could slow down nitrogen release from urea to the soil, thus increasing nutrient use efficiency, decreasing soil and water contamination and also reducing the chances of diversion of agricultural grade urea for many non-agricultural uses appreciably. So, Statement B is correct.

Neem-coated urea has approximately 46% nitrogen, whereby Sulphur coated urea is a controlled-release fertilizer produced by coating hot urea with molten sulphur polyurethane oil or microcrystalline wax. The ideal ratio comprises 30%–40% nitrogen and 20% sulphur. So, Statement C is correct.

Neem-coated urea NCU shows positive results in improved soil health characteristics such as soil texture, soil moisture retention, water infiltration and soil softness and water infiltration and reduced soil compaction post NCU application. Also, Sulphur Coated Urea Avoids soil compaction; reduces the frequency of application and total cost; effectively reduces the salt index, improving the quality of crops; Sulphur is a middle element to provide nutrition for crops. As a hi-tech controlled/slow-release fertilizer, Sulphur coated urea (SCU) has both effects of nitrogen and sulphur fertilizers. Thus both NCU and SCU can improve the soil compaction So, Statement D is correct.

Q5.Consider the following statements regarding Alluvial soils

1. These are rich in all major nutrients necessary plant growth, especially nitrogen, phosphorus and potash.
2. The sand content of the alluvial soils increases from west to east in the Gangetic system

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S5.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Alluvial soils are widespread in the northern plains and the river valleys. These soils cover about 40 per cent of the total area of the country. They are depositional soils, transported and deposited by rivers and streams. Through a narrow corridor in Rajasthan, they extend into the plains of Gujarat. In the Peninsular region, they are found in deltas of the east coast and in the river valleys. The alluvial soils vary in nature from sandy loam to clay. They are generally rich in potash but poor in phosphorous and nitrogen. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect. In the Upper and Middle Ganga plain, two different types of alluvial soils have developed, viz. Khadar and Bhangar. Khadar is the new alluvium and is deposited by floods annually, which enriches the soil by depositing fine silts. Bhangar represents a system of older alluvium, deposited away from the flood plains. Both the Khadar and Bhangar soils contain calcareous concretions (Kankars). These soils are more loamy and clayey in the lower and middle Ganga plain and the Brahamaputra valley. The sand content decreases from the west to east. Statement 2 is incorrect. The colour of the alluvial soils varies from the light grey to ash grey. Its shades depend on the depth of the deposition, the texture of the materials, and the time taken for attaining maturity. Alluvial soils are intensively cultivated.

 

Q6. Consider the following pairs: Local Wind Associated Region

1. Chinook Rocky Mountains
2. Sirocco Mediterranean
3. Mistral Alps

How many pairs given above is /are correctly matched?

(a) One pair only

(b) Two pairs only

(c) All the three pairs

(d) None of the above pairs

 

S6.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Local wind systems influence the weather pattern wherever they blow. Chinook: Warm dry westerly off the Rocky Mountains. Karaburan: ‘Black storm’ a spring and summer katabatic wind of central Asia. Mistral: Cold northerly from central France and the Alps to Mediterranean. Sirocco, warm, humid wind occurring over the northern Mediterranean Sea and southern Europe, where it blows from the south or southeast and brings uncomfortably humid air. The sirocco is produced on the east sides of low-pressure centers that travel eastward over the southern Mediterranean. It originates over North Africa as a dry wind and picks up moisture as it crosses the Mediterranean.

 

Q7. Consider the following statements with reference to the effects of El Nino Phenomenon:

1. Walker circulation is dominant in the western part of the Pacific Ocean.
2. The West coast of South America receives less rainfall.
3. Southeast Asia and Australia experience heavy rainfall.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None of the above

 

S7.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Statements 1 is incorrect: El Nino is a phenomenon that occurs in the equatorial Pacific Ocean characterized by a positive sea surface temperature departure from normal (1971-2000 base period) in the region lying within the latitude 5°N to 5°S and longitudes 120° W to 170°W . This phenomenon occurs every two to seven years. Pacific Ocean in Normal situation: Near equator the water of the Pacific Ocean is warmer in the western side and cooler in the eastern side due to upwelling of the cold current. Pacific Ocean in el nino situation: Near equator the warm water in the Pacific Ocean extends from western side to eastern side suppressing the upwelling of the cold water. Air (Walker) circulation is dominant in the eastern part of the Pacific Ocean. The air ascends in the warm eastern Pacific Ocean.

Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect: During El nino South East Asia experiences severe drought and forest fire. Peru in South America receives heavy rainfall during El Nino.ie. The West coast of South America receives heavy rainfall. Australia experiences dry weather conditions.

 

Q8. Consider the following pairs:

Mountain Pass Mountain Range

1. Zozila pass Ladakh Range
2. Khardung La Zanskar
3. Photu La Pir Panjal
4. Banihal Great Himalayas

How many pairs given above is /are correctly matched?

(a) One pair only

(b) Two pairs only

(c) Three pairs only

(d) All four pairs

 

S8.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Some of the important passes of the Kashmir region are Zoji La on the Great Himalayas, Banihal on the Pir Panjal, Photu La on the Zaskar and Khardung La on the Ladakh range. Some of the important fresh lakes such as Dal and Wular and salt water lakes such as Pangong Tso and Tso Moriri are also in this region.

Pair 1 is correct: Zoji La is a high mountain pass at an elevation of 3.528m (11,575ft) above the sea level, located in the Kargil district of Ladakh, in India: Zozila pass is located in Ladakh, Great Himalayas Range.

Pair 2 is incorrect: Khardung la pass is located in Ladakh Range. Famously known as the gateway to the Nubra and Shyok Valleys in the Ladakh region of Jammu and Kashmir.

Pair 3 is incorrect: Photu la is a mountain pass on the Srinagar-Leh highway in the Zanskar Range of the Himalayas in India. At an elevation of 4,108 metres (13,478 ft), it is the highest point on the highway, surpassing the famed Zoji La

Pair 4 is incorrect: Banihal pass is located in Pir Pangal range, it connects Jammu and Shrinagar.

 

Q9. Arrange the following environmental movements in the chronological order of their occurrence (starting year).

1. Save Silent Valley Movement
2. Narmada Bachao Andolan
3. Appiko Movement

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1-3-2

(b) 1-2-3

(c) 3-1-2

(d) 3-2-1

 

S9.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Save Silent Valley was a social movement aimed at the protection of Silent Valley, an evergreen sub- tropical forest in the Palakkad district of Kerala, India. It was started in 1973 by an NGO led by Kerala Sasthra Sahithya Parishad (KSSP) to save the Silent Valley from being flooded by a hydroelectric project.

Narmada Bachao Andolan (NBA) , 1985 is an Indian social movement spearheaded by native tribals (adivasis), farmers, environmentalists, and human rights activists against a number of large dam projects across the Narmada River, which flows through the states of Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, and Maharashtra.

Appiko Movement: In 1983, men, women, and children of Salkani “hugged the trees” in Kalase forest. (The local term for “hugging” in Kannada is appiko.) Appiko Andolan gave birth to a new awareness all over southern India. The movement took place in the Uttar Kannada district of Karnataka.

 

Q10. Consider the following statements about the nitrogen cycle:

1. Nitrogen in the atmosphere must be converted into ammonia or nitrates, before it is used as a nutrient by plants or animals.
2. Denitrification is the process through which nitrogen leaves the soil and is released into the atmosphere as nitrogen or nitrous oxide gas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S10.Ans.(c)

Sol.

• Nitrogen (N2) in the atmosphere cannot be directly used as a nutrient by plants or animals. It must be converted into its compound form of ammonia (NH3), nitrates or nitrites. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• This occurs through four steps, of fixation, nitrification, ammonification and denitrification.
• Nitrogen fixing bacteria feed off the root nodules of certain plant species such as beans, peas and alfalfa while they fix nitrogen. This nitrogen is then converted into ammonia to be used by those plants. o Any unused ammonia undergoes nitrification. In the ammonification step, specialised bacteria and fungi feed and convert dead material (from animals) into compounds such as ammonia and water-soluble salts containing ammonium ions. These compounds are absorbed by plants for growth. In this manner, nutrients are recycled back from animals to plants. • Finally, the denitrifcation step completes the nitrogen cycle as nitrogen leaves the soil and is released into the atmosphere as nitrogen or nitrous oxide gas. Hence statement 2 is correct.

 

Q11. Consider the following statements regarding environment and habitat:

1. All habitats are an environment, but all environments are not habitats.
2. There is no natural habitat on earth that is inhabited only by a single species.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S11.Ans.(c)

Sol.

• An ecosystem is a functional unit of nature, where living organisms interact among themselves and also with the surrounding physical environment. The part of the earth which is inhabited by the living organism is called as biosphere.
• Ecosystems contain biotic or living, parts, as well as abiotic factors, or nonliving parts. Biotic factors include plants, animals, and other organisms. Abiotic factors include rocks, temperature, and humidity.
• Habitat is the physical environment in which an organism lives (address of an organism). Many habitats make up the environment.
• The habitat is a defined place or area of the environment according to the requirements of a particular life form. Therefore, a habitat is always an environment, but an environment is not always a habitat. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• A habitat always has life in it, whereas the environment does not necessarily have life in it.
• A habitat is always a preference of one species, whereas an environment could be a preference of many species that could eventually become many habitats.
• There is no natural habitat on earth that is inhabited only by a single species and such a situation is even inconceivable. For any species, the minimal requirement is one more species on which it can feed. Even a plant species, which makes its own food, cannot survive alone; it needs soil microbes to break down the organic matter in soil and return the inorganic nutrients for absorption. Hence statement 2 is correct.

 

Q12. Consider the following statements regarding Asiatic Cheetah

1. It is larger compared to African Cheetah.
2. It is the fastest animal on the planet.
3. Its lives inarid and semi-arid open habitats.
4. Asiatic Cheetah is more in number as compared to African cheetah

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3
2. 2 and 4
3. 2 and 3
4. 1 and 4

S12.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The Asiatic cheetah is slightly smaller and slender than the African cheetah. The neck is much smaller and longer

Many believe that they could be faster than the African species with longer legs, but no tests have confirmed this theory.

Asiatic cheetah favoring the more open habitats – scrub forests, dry grasslands, savannas, and other arid and semi-arid open habitats.

The African cheetah is spread out across Africa from Northwest Africa, East Africa, and Southern Africa. With a bigger territory, the African cheetahs have the highest populations compared to their Asiatic counterparts. On the other hand, Asiatic Cheetahs are only found in a small region between Iran and Pakistan. Asiatic cheetahs once roamed the whole expanse of the central Asian continent from India to Afghanistan and Pakistan, but with their numbers reduced, it is hard for them to be sighted outside Iran.

 

Q13.  ‘Yaya Tso’ a lake seen in news recently is located in

1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. Ladakh
3. Sikkim
4. Jammu Kashmir

 

S13.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Lake Yaya Tso is known as a bird’s paradise for its beautiful lake located at an altitude of 4,820 metres in Ladakh. It is also one of the highest breeding sites of the black-necked crane in India. Yaya Tso is set to become Ladakh’s first biodiversity heritage site.

Q14. With reference to Lisbon declaration on ocean conservation, consider the following statements: 1. All the members of United Nation adopted the declaration.

2. It aims to protect biodiversity in areas beyond national jurisdiction of member countries.

Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S14.Ans.(c)

Sol.

UN Ocean Conference ends with call for greater global commitment to address dire state of the ocean.

Statement 1 is correct: All 198 members of the United Nations unanimously adopted July 1, 2022 the Lisbon Declaration on ocean conservation. The nations, on the last day of the UN Ocean Conference 2022, committed to follow science-based and innovative actions on an urgent basis.

Statement 2 is correct: The fifth round of negotiations to implement the international treaty will be held in New York from August 15-26, 2022. It aims to protect biodiversity in Areas Beyond National Jurisdiction, which lie outside the 200- mile (322-kilometre) exclusive economic zones of countries. India committed to a Coastal Clean Seas Campaign and will work toward a ban on single use plastics.

 

Q15. Consider the following pairs :

Straits Links between

1. Bass strait – South and East China sea
2. Bosphorous strait – Red Sea and Gulf of Aden
3. Magellan strait – Atlantic Ocean and Pacific Ocean

Which of the above pairs is/are matched correctly ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S15.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Bass Strait is a strait in the pacific ocean separating the island state of Tasmania from the Australian mainland, more specifically, the coast of Victoria.  Recently, 14 young sperm whales were found dead on King Island, part of the state of Tasmania, in the Bass Strait between Melbourne and Tasmania’s northern coast. It is the only maritime route into the economically prominent Port Phillip Bay. Taiwan strait which connects between South china sea and East china sea. So, Pair (1) is not correct.

Bosphorus Strait is a natural strait and an internationally significant waterway located in Istanbul in north-western Turkey. It forms part of the continental boundary between Asia and Europe and divides Turkey by separating Anatolia from Thrace. It is the world’s narrowest strait used for international navigation. It is located near the Black Sea and Sea of Marmara, not in the Red sea. The Bab el-Mandeb Strait is a sea route between the Horn of Africa and the Middle East, connecting the Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden and Arabian Sea. So, Pair (2) is not correct.

The Strait of Magellan is a navigable sea route in southern Chile, separating mainland South America to the north and Tierra del Fuego to the south. The strait is considered the most important natural passage between the Atlantic and Pacific oceans. It is an important route for steam and sailing ships travelling between the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans. So, Pair (3) is correct. .

 

Q16. With reference to a particular river in India, consider the following statements:

1. The river forms a delta that hosts the Coringa mangrove forests.
2. Pravara and Indravati are its important tributaries.
3. It forms the boundary between the states of Telangana and Maharashtra.

Which of the following rivers has been described in the statements given above?

(a) Tapi

(b) Kaveri

(c) Mahanadi

(d) Godavari

 

S16.Ans.(d)

Sol.

• The Godavari River is the largest river in peninsular India and is known as the ‘Dakshina Ganga’. The Godavari Basin is the second largest basin after the Ganges basin and accounts for nearly 9.50 % of the total geographical area of the country.
• The river rises in the Sahyadris, at an altitude of 1,067 m above mean sea level near Trimbakeshwar in the Nashik district of Maharashtra and flows across the Deccan Plateau from the Western to the Eastern Ghats. The main river forms the interstate boundary between the States of Telangana and Maharastra; and Telangana and Chattisgarh.
• The Pravara and the Manjra are the main tributaries joining on the right bank of the river and the Purna, the Pranhita, the Indravati and the Sabari are the main tributaries joining on the left bank.
• Known for its unique biological diversity, the Godavari Delta, located on the Eastern Coast of the Indian peninsula, is an intrinsic component of India’s coastal and marine heritage. The complex mesh of roots and the thick canopy of lush green branches spanning over acres and acres of inter-tidal zones are a sight to behold. The East Godavari River Estuarine Ecosystem (EGREE) encompassing Godavari mangroves is the second largest mangrove area, after the famous Sunderbans in West Bengal.
• Thus, the description given in the statements matches the river Godavari. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

 

Q17. The Peninsular Plateau region of India extends over which of the following states?

1. Rajasthan
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Tamil Nadu
4. Jharkhand

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

S17.Ans.(d)

Sol.

• The plateau region situated in the south of the Great Plains and surrounded by seas on three sides is known as Peninsular India. It is a triangular plateau with its base in the north which coincides with the southern edge of the Great Plains and its apex is formed by Kanyakumari.
• It extends over southeastern Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Telangana, and parts of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Orissa, Tamil Nadu, as well as Jharkhand. It has an outlier in Meghalaya in the east. It is surrounded by the hill range on all three sides. To its north are the Aravalli, the Vindhyan, the Satpura, and the Rajmahal hills. Along with its western and eastern edges are the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats respectively.

 

Q18. Consider the following statements with reference to the Indo-Pacific Economic Forum :

1. It is a grouping of 14 countries in the Indo-Pacific region.
2. It makes up over 40% of the global Gross Domestic Product.
3. India is not a member of this forum.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S18.Ans.(a)

Sol.

India agreed to be a part of the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF), a U.S.-led economic grouping comprising 12 countries. Prime Minister of India, who was in Japan for the Quad Summit, joined U.S. President Joe Biden, Japanese Prime Minister Fumio Kishida and leaders of ten countries at the launch of the framework in Tokyo, initiating the path for negotiations among the ‘founding members.’ These include Australia, Brunei, India, Indonesia, Japan, South Korea, Malaysia, New Zealand, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand and Vietnam. Together this group of 14 countries will define the rules of trade among countries which believe in fair play, transparency and rules-based trading in the future, and these countries account for 40 per cent of the global Gross Domestic Product (GDP).So, Option (a) is correct.

 

Q19. Consider the following statements with reference to Financial Services Institutions Bureau(FSIB):

1. It is a government body set up under the Department of public enterprises.
2. FSIB was established in place of the Banks Board Bureau.
3. It improves the Governance framework and leadership quality in financial institutions in the public sector.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 only

 

S19.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB) is an autonomous government body set up under the Department of Financial Services. •The FSIB will recommend persons for appointment as full-time directors and non-executive chairpersons on the Boards of financial services institutions. So, Statement 1 is not correct •Bank Boards Bureau (BBB) was an self-governing autonomous body of the Central Government which was established in 2016 to overhaul the functioning of the public sector banking system in India. •Its headquarters was at the Central Office of Reserve Bank of India, Mumbai. •Following the ruling of the Delhi High Court that BBB was declared an incompetent authority a new autonomous body called the Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB) was established by the central government which replaces the Banks Board Bureau. So, Statement 2 is correct •The Bureau is focused on improving the Governance framework and leadership quality in financial institutions in the public sector. •The governance framework emphasizes substance over form to improve long-term value in public sector financial institutions. •Its mission is to improve and promote excellence in Corporate Governance in Public Sector Financial Institutions. So, Statement 3 is correct

 

Q20. Which of the following statements regarding Raman Effect is incorrect?

1. When a stream of light passes through a liquid, a fraction of the light scattered by the liquid is of a different colour.
2. This happens due to the change in the wavelength of light that occurs when a light beam is deflected by molecules.
3. The frequency also change as the light scatters through a transparent object.
4. The Raman Effect involves scattering of light by molecules of gases, liquids, or solids.

1. 2 only
2. 4 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. None of the above

 

S20.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Ram an Effect

In 1986, the Government of India designated February 28 as National Science Day to commemorate the announcement of the discovery of the “Raman Effect”.

Theme of this y ear – “Global Science for Global Wellbeing”

The Raman Effect refers to the phenomenon in which when a stream of light passes through a liquid, a fraction of the light scattered by the liquid is of a different colour.

This happens due to the change in the wavelength of light that occurs when a light beam is deflected by molecules.

The frequency also change as the light scatters through a transparent object.

It involves scattering of light by molecules of gases, liquids, or solids.

Raman received Nobel Prize in Physics for this effect in 1930

The discovery give birth to a new field known as Ram an spectroscopy as a basic analytical tool to conduct non-destructive chemical analysis for both organic and inorganic compounds.

 

Q21. Consider the following statements with respect to Lithium

1. Lithium has low weight than nickel which are traditionally used in batteries.
2. Lithium will not react with water and has superior electrochemical potential.
3. India is the 5th largest lithium reserve in the world.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, and 3

 

S21.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Lithium

∙ It has the lowest density of all metals and reacts vigorously with water.

∙ Lithium-ion batteries use aqueous electrolyte solutions, where ions transfer between the anode and cathode triggering the recharge and discharge of electrons.

∙ Lithium is important to produce rechargeable batteries and EVs because they are the major storage blocks of electricity.

∙ A 2020 World Bank report on clean energy transition estimates that the production of minerals, such as graphite, lithium and cobalt, could increase by nearly 500 percent by 2050.

∙ More than 50% of Lithium are found in Argentina, Bolivia and Chile – Lithium Triangle.

∙ India recently discovers the Lithium ores in the Reasi district in the provinces of Jammu and Kashmir.

∙ This deposit alone makes India the country with the fifth-largest lithium reserves in the world. ∙ The Indian government has celebrated the discovery as part of “aatmanirbhar” – “selfreliance” because India is currently imports lithium for its use.

∙ Currently India is fully import-dependent when it comes to lithium

 

Q22. Consider the following statements regarding Bio – computers

1. Brain organoids developed in the lab using 3D cultures of brain tissue will be combined with

modern computing methods to create bio computers.

2. Brain organoids can also be developed using stem cells from individuals with cognitive disorders.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S22.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Bio-computers

Brain organoids –They are 3D cultures of brain tissue developed in the lab.

∙ They are used to study human brain development and test drugs to see how they respond.

∙ Bio computers – The brain organoids will be combined with modern computing methods to create bio computers.

∙ Brain organoids can also be developed using stem cells from individuals with neurodegenerative diseases or cognitive disorders.

∙ Comparing the data on brain structure between ‘healthy ’ and ‘patient-derived’ organoids can reveal the biological basis of human cognition, learning, and memory.

∙ They could also help decode the pathology of and drug development for devastating Parkinson’s disease and microcephaly. Machine learning

∙ The organoids will be coupled with machine learning by growing the organoids inside flexible structures affixed with multiple electrodes.

∙ These structures will be able to record the firing patterns of the neurons and also deliver electrical stimuli, to mimic sensory stimuli and later analysed by machine-learning techniques

 

Q23. Consider the following pairs:

Wetland/Lake Location

1. Tampara Lake Odisha
2. Nanda Lake Goa
3. Suchindram Theroor Andhra Pradesh
4. Sakhya Sagar Madhya Pardesh

How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d) All four pairs

 

S23.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option (c) is correct: India is one of the Contracting Parties to Ramsar Convention, signed in Ramsar, Iran, in 1971. India signed it on 1st Feb 1982. During 1982 to 2013, a total of 26 sites were added to the list of Ramsar sites, however, during 2014 to 2022, the country has added 49 new wetlands to the list of Ramsar sites.

Pair 1 is correctly matched: Tampara Lake is among the most prominent freshwater lakes in the State of Odisha situated in Ganjam district. The depression on the ground gradually filled with rainwater from catchment flow and was called “Tamp” by the British and subsequently termed “Tampra” by the locals.

Pair 2 is correctly matched: Nanda Lake comprises intermittent freshwater marshes that lie adjacent to one of the major tributaries of the Zuari River located in Goa.

Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Suchindrum Theroor Wetland complex is part of the Suchindrum-Theroor Manakudi Conservation Reserve in Tamil Nadu. It is declared an Important Bird Area and lies at the southern tip of the Central Asian flyway of migratory birds.

Pair 4 is correctly matched: The five new wetlands that have been added to the list are the Karikili Bird Sanctuary, Pallikaranai Marsh Reserve Forest and Pichavaram Mangrove in Tamil Nadu, the Sakhya Sagar in Madhya Pradesh and Pala Wetland in Mizoram.

 

Q24. With reference to the findings of India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2021, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Madhya Pradesh witnessed maximum increase in forest cover area.
2. Total mangrove cover in the country have declined.
3. Mizoram has the highest forest cover as percentage of its total geographical area among northeastern states.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

S24.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Recently, Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change released the ‘India State of Forest Report 2021’ prepared by the Forest Survey of India (FSI) which has been mandated to assess the forest and tree resources of the country.

Statement 1 is incorrect: According to it, increase in forest cover has been observed in open forest followed by very dense forest. Top three states showing increase in forest cover are Andhra Pradesh (647 sq km) followed by Telangana (632 sq km) and Odisha (537 sq km). Statement 2 is incorrect: Total mangrove cover in the country is 4,992 sq km. An increase of 17 sq Km in mangrove cover has been observed as compared to the previous assessment of 2019. Top three states showing mangrove cover increase are Odisha (8 sq km) followed by Maharashtra (4 sq km) and Karnataka (3 sq km).

Statement 3 is correct: In terms of forest cover as percentage of total geographical area, the top five States are Mizoram (84.53%), Arunachal Pradesh (79.33%), Meghalaya (76.00%), Manipur (74.34%) and Nagaland (73.90%).

 

Q25. Which one of the following is the correct chronological sequence of events during the Indian freedom struggle?

1. Appointment of Simon Commission – Irwin-Gandhi Pact – Moplah Rebellion
2. Appointment of Simon Commission – Moplah Rebellion – Irwin-Gandhi Pact.
3. Moplah Rebellion – Appointment of  Simon Commission – Irwin-Gandhi Pact.
4. Moplah Rebellion – Irwin-Gandhi Pact – Appointment of  Simon Commission

 

S25.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The correct chronological sequence of given events is as follows :

Maplah Rebellion (1836 -1854) ?Simon Commission (1927) ?Gandhi-Irwin Pact (1931)