Odisha Civil Services Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | April 2nd Week 2023

Q.1 With reference to vision SAGAR, which of the following statements is true/correct?

1. It aims to establish India as a global leader in solar energy, by creating the policy conditions for its diffusion across the country as quickly as possible.
2. It is an ambitious national initiative aimed at bringing about a step change in India’s logistics sector performance, by unlocking the full potential of India’s coastline and waterways.
3. It aims to improve the efficiency of existing corridors through development of Multimodal Logistics Parks and elimination of choke point.
4. It provides a mechanism for India to expand strategic partnerships with other IOR littorals in Asia and Africa.

 

S1. Ans.(d)

Sol.

• In 2015, India unveiled it’s strategic vision for the Indian Ocean i.e. Security and Growth for All in the Region (SAGAR).
• It is an increasing recognition of the increasing importance of maritime security, maritime commons and cooperation.
• Through SAGAR, India seeks to deepen economic and security cooperation with its maritime neighbours and assist in building their maritime security capabilities. For this, India would cooperate on the exchange of information, coastal surveillance, building of infrastructure and strengthening their capabilities.
• Further, India seeks to safeguard its national interests and ensure Indian Ocean region to become inclusive, collaborative and respect international law.

 

Q2. Consider the following statements regarding Pithora paintings

1. This tribal painting is a wall mural painting associated with the tribals of Odisha.
2. Depiction of animals is common especially horses.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S2.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Pithora: Pithora is a highly ritualistic painting done on the walls by the Rathwa and Bhilala tribes who live in central Gujarat. It is also done in Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh region. Pithora paintings are executed on three inner walls of their houses to bring peace and prosperity. · Depiction of animals is common especially horses.

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding Gandhara art

1. The Gandhara art is a blend of Indian and Greek art forms.
2. The chief patrons of Gandhara art were Mauryas
3. The Gandhara art forms are primarily dedicated to the depiction of Buddhism as well as Jainism

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 only
4. 1,2 and 3

 

S3.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The blending of Greek and Indian art led to the development of Gandhara art which developed later.

1. The theme of sculptures in predominantly Buddhist but their style is Greek.

A large number of statues of the Buddha were built by the artisans of these schools, especially after the first century AD under the influence of the Kushanas. Under the Gandhara school of art life-like statues of Buddha and Bodhisattvas.

Were made in the likeness of Greek gods even, though the ideas, inspirations, and subjects were all Indian. Rich ornaments, costumes drapery were used to impart physical beauty. The sculptures were in stone, terracotta, cement-like material, and clay.

The chief patrons of Gandhara art were the Shakas and Kushanas

 

Q4. Consider the following statements

1. As per Article 174 of the Constitution requires the Governor to summon the House.
2. The Governor can’t act independently on summoning the House and must act on the aid and advice of the council of ministers
3. Governor may from “time to time” prorogue the House

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1,2 and 3

S4.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The Governor has to act according to the aid and advice of the council of ministers. Constitutionally, the office of the Governor has little discretion to not act on the cabinet’s advice. However, there are a few instances when the Governor can act independently on summoning the House. For example, when the chief minister has lost the support of the House and his strength is debatable, then the Governor need not wait for the advice of the council of ministers to hold a floor test.

Under Article 174, a Governor shall summon the House at a time and place, as she or he thinks fit. Article 174 (2) (a) says a Governor may from “time to time” prorogue the House and 174 (2) (b) allows her or him to dissolve the Legislative Assembly.

 

Q5. Consider the following statements

1. Article 163 of the Constitution says that there shall be a council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advice the Governor in the exercise of his function.
2. The Constitution  does not permit the Governor to summon the House on its own discretion

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S5.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Governor’s power to summon the assembly Article 163 of the Constitution says that there shall be a council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advice the Governor in the exercise of his function.

Article 174 of the Constitution says that the Governor shall from time to time summon the House or each House of the Legislature of the State to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit. The provision also puts on the Governor the responsibility of ensuring that the House is summoned at least once every six months.

The Constitution permits the Governor to summon the House on recommendation of the Cabinet. But it also adds that she or he would not need their advice if the Constitution requires her or him to carry out any function at her/his discretion.

 

Q6. Consider the following statements regarding Press Council of India (PCI)

1. The PCI was established by an executive resolution of the cabinet.
2. The Chairman of PCI is selected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, and the Prime minister of India
3. It has quasi-judicial powers and Decisions of the PCI are final and cannot be appealed before a court of law

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 3 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 1,2 and 3

S6.Ans.(b)

Sol.

What is the Press Council of India (PCI)?

The PCI was established under the PCI Act of 1978 for the purpose of preserving the freedom of the press and of maintaining and improving the standards of newspapers and news agencies in India.

The PCI consists of a chairman and 28 other members.  The Chairman is selected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, and a member elected by the PCI.

What are its powers?

The PCI has the power to receive complaints of violation of journalistic ethics or professional misconduct by an editor or journalist.

The PCI is responsible for inquiring into complaints received.  It may summon witnesses and take evidence under oath, demand copies of public records to be submitted, even issue warnings and admonish the newspaper, news agency, editor, or journalist.  It can even require any newspaper to publish details of the inquiry.

It has quasi-judicial powers and adjudicates the complaints against the Press for violation of journalistic ethics. Decisions of the PCI are final and cannot be appealed before a court of law

 

Q7. Which among the following rules govern the exit polls in India? c

1. Representation of the People Act, 1951
2. Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961
3. Information Technology Rules, 2021

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

S7.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Rules governing exit polls in India

• Representation of the People Act, 1951: Section 126A of the act prohibits the conduct of exit polls and dissemination of their results by electronic or print media during a defined period. o The period of prohibition starts from the beginning of the hours fixed for polling in the first phase of an election and continues till the end of polling in the last phase of the election.
• Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961: It provides guidelines on the conduct of exit polls and mandates that any person who wishes to conduct an exit poll must obtain prior permission from the ECI.  The rule also requires the pollsters to provide certain information to the ECI, such as the methodology used, the sample size, and the time and place of the survey.
• Cable Television Networks (Regulation) Act, 1995: The act prohibits the transmission or re-transmission of any program or advertisement that violates the provisions of the RPA Act, 1951, including the prohibition on the dissemination of exit poll results during the specified period.
• Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021: The rules impose obligations on digital media platforms to ensure compliance with the provisions of the RPA 1951.
• Note: Violations of these laws can result in penalties, including fines and imprisonment, as well as the cancellation of the registration of the media organization or the pollster.

 

Q8.With reference to Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme, which of the statements given below is incorrect?

1. It provides loans to micro, small and medium enterprises (MSMEs) only.
2. It was rolled out as part of the Centre’s Aatmanirbhar package in response to the COVID•19 crisis.
3. It has a corpus of ₹41,600 crore and provides fully guaranteed additional funding of up to ₹3 lakh crore.
4. None

S.8 Ans. (a)

Sol.

• The Centre has expanded its credit guarantee scheme for micro, small and medium enterprises (MSMEs) to cover loans given to larger firms, as well as to self•-employed people and professionals who have taken loans for business purposes.
• The Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme was rolled out in May as part of the Centre’s Aatmanirbhar package in response to the COVID­19 crisis.
• It has a corpus of ₹41,600 crore and provides fully guaranteed additional funding of up to ₹3 lakh crore.

Q9. Consider the following pairs :

Glaciers Location

1. Milam – Himachal Pradesh
2. Rupal – Kashmir
3. Pindari – Uttarakhand
4. Shafat – Ladakh

How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d) All four pairs

 

S9.Ans.(c)

Sol.

A glacier is a mass of ice formed from compacted, recrystallized snow that is thick enough to flow plastically. Milam Glacier is one of the remotest yet accessible glaciers in the state of Uttarakhand. It is the largest glacier in the Kumaon Himalayas covering an area of 37 square kilometers. Milam glacier is situated 60km from Munsiyari. So, Pair 1 is not correct.

 

Q10. Consider the following statements with reference to the Hot weather season in India :

1. The weather conditions are generally hot and dry throughout the country.
2. The hot weather season lasts till the end of June in the northern regions of India.
3. Loo, a hot, dry wind blows during December and January, mainly over the northern plains.
4. Light showers are experienced in Kerala, West Bengal and the Assam.

How many statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one statement

(b) Only two statements

(c) Only three statements

(d) All four statements

 

S10.Ans.(c)

Sol.

• During the Hot weather season (March to May in the south and up to June in the north) in India, the sun’s apparent movement towards the north increases the temperatures in the northern plains. As a result, spring sets in soon, giving way to the hot weather season, which lasts till the end of June in this region. The temperature increases northwards and reaches around 45°C in mid-May in most parts of the northern plains.
• During this season, the wind direction is variable, and the weather conditions are usually hot and dry throughout the Indian Subcontinent. So, Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

A striking feature of the hot weather season is the ‘loo’. These are strong, gusty, hot, dry winds blowing during the day over north and northwestern India, mainly during May and June (not during December and January). These winds cause heat stroke resulting in the deaths of hundreds of people every year. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

 

Q11. In comparison to the Himalayan rivers, consider the following statements with respect to

Peninsular rivers :

1. These rivers are much younger than the Himalayan rivers
2. These rivers make both deltas and estuaries
3. These are mostly perennial
4. These rivers usually have large basins

 

How many statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one statement

(b) Only two statements

(c) Only three statements

(d) All four statements

S11.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The Peninsular river is older than the Himalayan River. This is evident from the broad, largely-graded shallow valleys and the maturity of the rivers. So, Statement 1 is not correct. E

stuaries are formed by some peninsular rivers, such as the Narmada and the Tapi Deltas are formed by Peninsular rivers, such as the Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, and Cauvery. So, Statement 2 is correct.

The Peninsular rivers receive water from rainfall, and water flows in these rivers only during the rainy season. As a result, these rivers are either seasonal or non-perennial. And also these rivers have small catchment regions and basins when compared to the Himalayan rivers. So, Statements 3 and 4 are not correct.

Q12. With reference to ‘Climate Change’, which one of the following statements correctly describe the term ‘Social Cost of Carbon’ (SCC)?

1. It is the total impact of excess carbon emission on the vulnerable sections including tribals, women and children.
2. It is a mechanism to set price on carbon by defining a tax rate on greenhouse gas emissions.
3. It is the marginal cost of the impacts caused by emitting one extra tonne of greenhouse gas.
4. It is the number of work days lost by people due to negative impacts of atmospheric carbon.

 

S12.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option c is the correct answer.

Option c is correct: The social cost of carbon (SCC) is the marginal cost of the impacts caused by emitting one extra tone of greenhouse gas (carbon dioxide equivalent) at any point in time, inclusive of ‘non- market’ impacts on the environment and human health. The social cost of carbon is a calculation focused on taking corrective measures on climate change which can be deemed a form of market failure When we emit a ton of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, it sticks around for a while and causes warming, affecting human outcomes. The social cost of carbon is the total damage that an additional ton of CO2 has on outcomes, converted into monetary term.

Option b is incorrect: A carbon tax directly sets a price on carbon by defining a tax rate on greenhouse gas emissions or – more commonly – on the carbon content of fossil fuel.

Option d is incorrect: Carbon trading is the process of buying and selling permits and credits that allow the permit holder to emit carbon dioxide.

 

 

Q13. E9 Initiative, sometimes seen in the news, is related to :

(a) Environmental protection

(b) Electric vehicle adaptation

(c) Protection of elephants

(d) Education For All

 

S13.Ans.(d)

Sol.

The “E” stands for education, and the “9” represents the following nine countries: Bangladesh, Brazil, China, Egypt, India, Indonesia, Mexico, Nigeria and Pakistan, representing over half of the world’s population and 70% of the world’s illiterate adults. According to Unesco, the cultural education body of the UN, the Covid-19 crisis and its learning offer a once-in-a-generation opportunity to leap-frog children and youth into fast-moving, competitive, interconnected and digitalised economies. It is a United Nations initiative with a motto of fulfilling Sustainable Development Goal- 4 (which aims to ensure inclusive and equitable quality education and promote lifelong learning opportunities for all). So, Option (d) is correct.

 

Q14. Consider the following statements in the context of International Environmental Governance :

1. In 1945, the United Nations charter did not mention any provisions related to environmental protection.
2. No country constituted an exclusive ministry for the environment till the 1972 Stockholm conference
3. Stockholm conference resulted in the establishment of the United Nations Environment Programme.
4. Scandinavian countries are the first to establish environmental ministries to administer environmental issues.

 

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ?

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

S14.Ans.(d)

Sol.

The Charter of the United Nations is the founding document of the United Nations. It was signed on 26 June 1945, in San Francisco, after the United Nations Conference on International Organization and came into force on 24 October 1945. The UN charter never had the environment as a domain to deal with and hence did not mention any provisions related to environmental protection. United Nations Conference on the Human . 35 Environment, also known as Stockholm Conference, was the first United Nations (UN) conference that focused on international environmental issues. So, Statement 1 is correct.

The Stockholm conference was historic, for being the first on the planetary environment and nudging countries to set up their environment ministry. Until 1972, no country had an environment ministry. Norwegian delegates returned from the conference to set up a ministry for the environment; the host Sweden took a few more weeks to do so. India set up its ministry of environment and forest in 1985.So, Statement 2 is correct.

The Stockholm Conference also led to the creation of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) in December 1972 to coordinate global efforts to promote sustainability and safeguard the natural environment. So, Statement 3 is correct.

The term ‘Scandinavia’ is commonly used for Denmark, Norway and Sweden. The term “Nordic countries” is vaguely used for Denmark, Norway, Sweden, Finland and Iceland, including their associated territories of Greenland, the Faroe Islands and the Åland Islands. In 1967, Sweden created the Swedish Environmental Protection Agency. It replaced older laws with the now comprehensive Environmental Act of 1969, which collectively addressed the different sectors – such as urban planning, wastewater treatment, nature conservation, pollution, and health issues. In 1971, Denmark established a Ministry for Pollution Control. In 1972, Norway followed suit with its Ministry for Environmental Protection, and in 1973, a Finnish Environmental Protection Department and an Environmental Protection Council were created within the Ministry of the Interior. At the turn of the 1970s, Denmark, Finland, Norway, and Sweden, one after the other, created environmental protection agencies, environmental ministries, or other institutions responsible for the new policy. So, Statement 4 is correct.

 

Q15. Which of the following statements regarding LVM3-M2/ Oneweb India – 1 Mission is incorrect?

1. It is a dedicated commercial space mission of the Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN–SPACe)
2. The mission placed the satellites in the Low Earth Orbit 1200 km above Earth
3. The launch vehicle LVM3-M2 consists of three stages consisting of two solid propellant strap-ons
4. It is India’s heaviest launching vehicle

 

S15.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Recently ISRO’s LVM-3 to launch second fleet of 36 satellites Sunday, completing One Web constellation. Launch Vehicle Mark-3 (LVM3) which was earlier known GSLV-MKII is India’s heaviest launching vehicle

LVM3-M2 is the dedicated commercial satellite mission of New Space India Limited (NSIL), a Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE) under the Department of Space, Government of India. The launch is also first for LVM3- M2 to place the satellites in the Low Earth Orbit (up to 1,200 kames above the earth) unlike Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO). LVM3-M2 is a three-stage launch vehicle consisting of two solid propellant S200 strap-ons on its sides and core stage comprising L110 liquid stage and C25 cryogenic stage.

 

Q16. Consider the following statements regarding International Liquid Mirror Telescope (LMT)

1. It is the first liquid mirror telescope designed exclusively for astronomical observations
2. It is located in Deosthali, Uttrakhand
3. It is also the first optical survey telescope of Asia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1,2 and 3

 

S16.Ans.(a)

Sol.

About.

It is a 4-metre (160 in) liquid-mirror telescope located at the Devasthal Observatory in Uttarakhand, India.

ILMT It is the first liquid mirror telescope designed exclusively for astronomical observations

It has the largest aperture telescope available in India

It is also the first optical survey telescope in India

 

Q17.  Consider the following statements regarding Abhra Weapon System

1. It is a short Range Surface to Air Missile.
2. It is a high response vertically launched supersonic missile.
3. It is a jointly developed by Israeli Aerospace Industries and DRDO

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

S17.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Medium Range Surface-to-Air Missile: ·  This weapon system also called the ‘Abhra’ Weapon Systemis a state-of-the-art medium-range air defence weapon system. ·  It is a joint venture of DRDO and Israeli Aerospace Industries (IAI) and is produced at Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL). ·     It is a high response, quick reaction, vertically launched supersonic missile, designed to neutralize enemy aerial threats – missiles, aircraft, guided bombs, helicopters. ·   Supersonic missiles exceed the speed of sound (Mach 1) but they are not faster than Mach-3.

Q18. Consider the following statements:

1. High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth.
2. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause warming effect.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

S18.Ans.(d)

Sol.

• Clouds high up in the atmosphere tend to warm Earth more than they cool. High, thin clouds trap some of the Sun’s heat. This warms Earth’s surface. So, statement 1 is not correct.
• Low clouds within a mile or so of Earth’s surface tend to cool more than they warm. These low, thicker clouds mostly reflect the Sun’s heat. This cools Earth’s surface. So, statement 2 is not correct. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

 

Q19. With reference to the water on the planet Earth, consider the following statements:

1. The amount of water in the rivers and lakes is more than the amount of groundwater.
2. The amount of water in polar ice caps and glaciers is more than the amount of groundwater. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S19.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Water in groundwater is 0.62% while in lakes and rivers it is 0.008 (Salt lakes)+0.009(freshwater lakes) + 0.0001(rivers)=0.0171. So, the statement 1 is not correct. Water in polar ice caps and glaciers is 2% while in groundwater it is 0.62%. So, the statement 2 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

 

Q20. Consider the following pairs:

Sl. No. Peak Mountains

1. Namcha Barwa : Garhwal Himalaya
2. Nanda Devi : Kumaon Himalaya
3. Nokrek : Sikkim Himalaya

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

 

S20.Ans.(b)

Sol.

• Namcha Barwa is located near the easternmost Himalayas in Arunachal Pradesh. It is around the Namcha Barwa that the mighty Brahmaputra River enters India. It is not located in Garhwal Himalaya. So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• Between the Satluj and the Kali rivers there is the 320 km long Kumaon Himalayas. Nanda Devi (7,817 m), Kamet (7,756 m), Trisul (7,140 m), Badrinath (7,138 m), Kedarnath (6,968 m), Gangotri (6,510 m) are important peaks here. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
• Nokrek is the highest peak in the Garo Hills range in Meghalaya. It has an elevation of 1412 metres above sea level, from where rise most of the major rivers and streams in the Garo Hills region. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

 

Q21. Arrange the following divisions during the Mughal state from smallest to largest unit

2. Shiqs
3. Pargana

Select correct code:

1. 1-2-3
2. 3-2-1
3. 1-3-2
4. 2-1-3

S21.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The provinces under the Delhi Sultanate were called iqtas. They were initially under the control of the nobles. But the governors of the provinces were called the muqtis or walis. They were to maintain law and order and collect the land revenue. The provinces were divided into shiqs and the next division was pargana. The shiq was under the control of shiqdar. The pargana comprising a number of villages was headed by amil. The village remained the basic unit of the administration. The village headman was known as muqaddam or chaudhri. The village accountant was called patwari.

 

Q22. With reference to the development of substyles of Hindustani classical music, consider the following statements:

1. Sufism played a major role in the development and spread of Ghazal.
2. Compositions of Thumri are usually romantic or devotional in nature.
3. Tappa is originated from the folk songs of camel riders of Punjab.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

S22.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct: The Ghazal as a poetic form originated in Persia in the tenth century. Later Ghazal developed as a sub style of Hindustani classical music, which was influenced by Sufism. Sufi mystics (a person who believes attaining insights into mysteries transcending ordinary human knowledge) played a major role in spreading Ghazal music in India and South Asia during the 12th century. Statement 2 is correct: Thumri a sub style of Hindustani classical music was adopted by the Bhakti saints to connect with gods. Compositions of Thumri are either romantic or devotional in nature and the main theme being the girl’s love for Krishna. It was usually sung in a female voice. The thumri is very lyrical in its structure and presentation. Thumri is a love song and hence the textual beauty is very important. This is closely coordinated with the musical rendition. And keeping in mind its mood a thumri is usually set to ragas like Khamaj, Kaphi, Bhairavi and so on and the musical grammar is not strictly adhered to. Statement 3 is correct: Tappa, a substyle of Hindustani classical music originated from the folk songs of the camel riders of Punjab known as ‘dhapa’, which was transformed into the Hindi Tappa. It gained legitimacy and popularity under the Mughal emperor Muhammad Shah.

 

Q23. Consider the following statements regarding the reign of Delhi Sultanate

1. New musical instruments such as sarangi and rabab were introduced during this period
2. The Indian classical work Ragadarpan was translated into Persian during the reign of Qutub din Aibek
3. Pir Bhodan, a Sufi saint was one of the great musicians of this period

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 1 and 3
3. 2 and 3
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S23.Ans.(b)

Sol.

New musical instruments such as sarangi and rabab were introduced during this period.

The Indian classical work Ragadarpan was translated into Persian during the reign of Firoz Tughlaq. Pir Bhodan, a Sufi saint was one of the great musicians of this period. Raja Man Singh of Gwalior was a great lover of music. He encouraged the composition of a great musical work called Man Kautuhal.

 

Q24. Consider the following statements with reference to the Indo-Pacific Economic Forum :

1. It is a grouping of 14 countries in the Indo-Pacific region.
2. It makes up over 40% of the global Gross Domestic Product.
3. India is not a member of this forum.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

S24.Ans.(a)

Sol.

India agreed to be a part of the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF), a U.S.-led economic grouping comprising 12 countries. Prime Minister of India, who was in Japan for the Quad Summit, joined U.S. President Joe Biden, Japanese Prime Minister Fumio Kishida and leaders of ten countries at the launch of the framework in Tokyo, initiating the path for negotiations among the ‘founding members.’ These include Australia, Brunei, India, Indonesia, Japan, South Korea, Malaysia, New Zealand, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand and Vietnam. Together this group of 14 countries will define the rules of trade among countries which believe in fair play, transparency and rules-based trading in the future, and these countries account for 40 per cent of the global Gross Domestic Product (GDP).So, Option (a) is correct.

 

Q25. With reference to National Investment Infrastructure Fund(NIIF),consider the following statements:

1. It is India’s first sovereign wealth fund.
2. It is a collaborative investment platform for both international and Indian investors.
3. NIIF can utilize the assets of PSUs for infrastructure development.
4. NIIF aims to maximize economic impact only in brownfield infrastructure projects.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S25.Ans.(d)

Sol.

The National Infrastructure and Investment Fund (NIIF), a state-owned investment, is India’s first-ever sovereign wealth fund (SWF) used to invest in capital assets such as real estate, metals, stocks, and bonds. The Investments are mainly in the core infrastructure sector, and the NIIF would work out the priorities in consultation with the government. So, Statement 1 is correct.

The National Infrastructure Investment Fund (NIIF) is a fund manager that invests in infrastructure and related sectors in India. NIIF is a collaborative investment platform for international and Indian investors with a mandate to invest equity capital in domestic infrastructure. The funds have investment mandates to invest in infrastructure assets and related businesses that are likely to benefit from the long-term growth trajectory of the Indian economy. So, Statement 2 is correct.

The NIIF would utilize the proceeds(profits) of monetized land and other PSU assets for infrastructure development. The government monetizes its assets by transferring the revenue rights of the asset (which could be idle land or infrastructure PSU) to the private sector for a particular period. The government gets in return as proceeds and utilized for infrastructure development. The NIIF will discuss these details with the MoF to match investor preferences. So, Statement 3 is correct.

National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) aimed to maximize economic impact mainly through infrastructure investment in commercially viable greenfield and brownfield projects, including stalled ones. It could also consider investing in other nationally important projects if it is commercially viable. Therefore, it doesn’t deals only with brownfield infrastructure projects. So, Statement 4 is not correct.