Odisha Civil Services Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | April 3rd Week 2023

Q1.Which of the following statements about Bal Gangadhar Tilak is/are correct?

1. He founded the Fergusson College in Pune.
2. He was part of the extremist faction of Indian National Congress.
3. He was associated with the Hindu Mahasabha.

Select the correct answer using code below

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 ad 3

 

S.1 Ans. (a)

Sol. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

• He was commonly known as Lokamanya Tilak.
• He was one of the founders of the Fergusson College in Pune.
• He was part of the extremist faction of the INC and was a proponent of boycott and Swadeshi movements. Along with Bipin Chandra Pal and Lala Lajpat Rai, he was called the ‘Lal-Bal-Pal’ trio of extremist leaders.
• He was also called the ‘Father of Indian Unrest’.
• Lala Lajpat Rai was involved with the Hindu Mahasabha.

Note: August 1, 2020 marks 100 years of Bal Gangadhar Tilak’s death anniversary.

 

Q2.Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Dhole?

1. They are endemic to India.
2. Besides the tiger, it is the only large carnivore in India that is under the IUCN’s ‘endangered’ category.
3. Karnataka, Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh rank high in the conservation of the endangered dhole in India.

Choose correct answer:

1. 1 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3
4. 1, 2 and 3

S.2 Ans. (c)

Sol.

• Three States rank high in dhole conservation – Karnataka, Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh
• On the other hand, Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Telangana and Goa will need to increase financial investments in the forest and wildlife sectors, and reduce the ease of granting forest clearances for infrastructure projects.
• Dholes play an important role as apex predators in forest ecosystems. Besides the tiger, the dhole is the only large carnivore in India that is under the International Union for Conservation of Nature’s ‘endangered’ category.

 

Q3. In the context of the Power sector in India, consider the following statements:

1. Private sector has the largest installed power generation capacity in India.
2. Presently, non-fossil fuel contributes to the largest source of power generation in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S3.Ans.(a)

Sol.

As per the Ministry of Power, India’stotal installed power generation capacity is 4,07,797 MW (100%)

x Central Sector share is 99,005 MW (24.3%),

x State Sector share is 1,04,966 MW (25.7%), and

x Private sector share is 2,03,825 MW (50.0%).

So, Statement 1 is correct.

As per the Ministry of Power, presently fossil fuel (like coal, lignite, gas, and diesel) power generation is the largest source of power generation in India which is 2,36,086 MW of power (57.9%) and non-fossil fuel (like hydro, wind, solar, etc.) share is 171,710 MW (42.1%).

So, Statement 2 is not correct.

 

Q4.   Consider the following statements regarding Zealandia

1. Scientists confirmed it as the existence of an eighth continent
2. It is a long, narrow microcontinent that is mostly submerged in the South Pacific Ocean.
3. Zealandia is supposed to be separated from Laurasia

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1,2 and 3

          

S4.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Scientists confirmed the existence of an eighth continent, called Zealandia, under New Zealand and the surrounding ocean in 2017. Because 94% of Zealandia’s 2 million square miles are underwater, mapping the continent is challenging.

How Zealandia evolved? 

Gondwana formed when Earth’s ancient supercontinent, Pangea, split into two fragments.

Laurasia in the north became Europe, Asia, and North America and Gondwana in the south dispersed to form modern-day Africa, Antarctica, South America, and Australia.

It is a long, narrow microcontinent that is mostly submerged in the South Pacific Ocean. Zealandia started to separate from Gondwana about 105 million years ago and gradually sank beneath the waves, with over 94% of the landmass remaining underwater.

   

Q5. Consider the following statements with reference to temperature distribution of Ocean water:

1. Temperature of the ocean surface decreases from the equator towards the poles.
2. Oceans in the southern hemisphere receive more heat than the northern hemisphere due to their contact with larger extent of land.
3. The highest ocean surface temperature is observed at equator.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S5.Ans.(a)

Sol.

statements 1 is correct: The factors which affect the distribution of temperature of ocean water are: (i) Latitude: the temperature of surface water decreases from the equator towards the poles because the amount of insolation decreases poleward. Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect: The factors which affect the distribution of temperature of ocean water are: (ii) Unequal distribution of land and water: the oceans in the northern hemisphere receive more heat due to their contact with larger extent of land than the oceans in the southern hemisphere. The oceans in the northern hemisphere record relatively higher temperature than in the southern hemisphere. The highest temperature is not recorded at the equator but slightly towards north of it. The average annual temperatures for the northern and southern hemisphere are around 19° C and 16° C respectively. This variation is due to the unequal distribution of land and water in the northern and southern hemispheres.

 

Q6. Torres Strait, sometimes seen in the news recently, separates which of the following two countries?

1. Indonesia and Vanuatu
2. Indonesia and New Zealand
3. Australia and Papua New Guinea
4. Australia and Indonesia

 

S6.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The Australian government recently took a historical step with the referendum to give Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islanders recognition in the constitution. Torres Strait Torres Strait, passage between the Coral Sea, on the east, and the Arafura Sea, in the western Pacific Ocean. To the north lies New Guinea and to the south Cape York Peninsula, Australia. It has many reefs and shoals dangerous to navigation, and its larger islands are inhabited.

 

 

Q7. Consider the following statements :

1. In Ladakh’s cold desert region, dry weather conditions persist throughout the year.
2. As part of Karakoram wildlife sanctuary, a dark sky reserve is proposed in Ladakh to boost Astro- tourism.
3. Leh berry, which is a product of cold desert, is being promoted by The Council of Scientific and

Industrial Research (CSIR).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 3 only

 

S7.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Ladakh is a cold desert lying in the Great Himalayas on the eastern side of Jammu and Kashmir. The altitude in Ladakh varies from about 3000m in Kargil to more than 8,000m in Karakoram. Due to its high altitude, the climate is extremely cold and dry weather conditions. As it lies in the rain shadow of the Himalayas, there is little rainfall, as low as 10 cm every year. Thus the cold desert region of Ladakh, having dry weather conditions, exists throughout the year. So, Statement 1 is correct.

A Dark Sky Reserve is public or private land with a distinguished nocturnal environment and starry nights that have been developed to preserve the night sky from light pollution and illumination. The Ladakh Union Territory administration is leading the efforts to establish the country’s first Dark Sky Reserve. To be situated at the height of 4,500 meters above sea level, the Hanle Dark Sky Reserve (HDSR) will come up within the Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary. Thus it is not part of Karakoram wildlife sanctuary. So, Statement 2 is not correct

The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR), under the aegis of the Union Ministry of Science & Technology, is promoting “Leh Berry,” an exclusive food product of the cold desert and a means of wide-ranging entrepreneurship as well as self-livelihood. So, Statement 3 is correct.

 

 

Q8. Recently, four species of azooxanthellate corals were recorded for the first time in India from the waters of

(a) Gulf of Kutch

(b) Gulf of Mannar

(c) Lakshadweep

(d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

 

S8.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Azooxanthellate corals are a group of corals that do not contain zooxanthellae and derive nourishment not from the sun but from capturing different plankton. These groups of corals are deep-sea representatives, with most species reporting from 200 m to 1000 m. Their occurrences are also reported in shallow coastal waters. Scientists have recorded four species of azooxanthellate corals for the first time from Indian waters. These new corals were found in the waters of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. The four species are Truncatoflabellum crassum, T. incrustatum, T. aculeatum, and T. irregulare whereby all four groups of corals are from the same family, Flabellidae. So, Option (d) is correct.

 

 

Q9. Consider the following statements about the Tropical Ozone hole :

1. It is an ozone hole occurring in the lower stratosphere over the tropical regions of the earth.
2. But compared to the ozone hole over the Antarctica region, this is much smaller in size.
3. It is well-documented that chlorofluorocarbons have a significant role in ozone layer depletion.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

 

S9.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Ozone is a gas comprised of O3, or oxygen atoms bound together in groups of three — forms in Earth’s upper atmosphere. The ozone hole is not technically a “hole” where no ozone is present, but is actually a region of exceptionally depleted ozone in the stratosphere over the Antarctic that happens at the beginning of Southern Hemisphere spring (August–October). According to NASA, an ozone hole is an area where ozone levels drop below the historical threshold of 220 Dobson Units (DU is the measure of ozone concentrations).

Most ozone sits in the lower stratosphere, the atmospheric layer that lies 10 to 50 kilometers above the planet’s surface. The gas acts as a kind of sunscreen, shielding Earth from the sun’s powerful ultraviolet (UV) rays. A tropical zone hole in the lower Stratosphere appears across all seasons, unlike Antarctica, which is visible only in the spring. So, Statement 1 is correct.

The tropical ozone hole, which makes up 50 percent of Earth’s surface, could cause a global concern due to its associated risks. It is likely to cause skin cancer, cataracts, and other negative effects on the health and ecosystems in tropical regions. The ozone hole is located at altitudes of 10-25 km over the tropics. The tropical ozone hole is about seven times larger than Antarctica. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Ozone-depleting substances include carbon tetrachloride (CCl4), methyl chloroform, bromine- containing halons, HCFCs, and chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs). Previously used as coolants, foaming agents, fire extinguishers, solvents, insecticides, and aerosol propellants, these compounds are still occasionally utilized in these products. CFCs escape into the atmosphere from refrigeration and propellant devices and processes. In the lower atmosphere, they are so stable that they persist for years, even decades. This long lifetime allows some of the CFCs to eventually reach the stratosphere. In the stratosphere, ultraviolet light breaks the bond . 24 holding chlorine atoms (Cl) to the CFC molecule. A free chlorine atom goes on to participate in a series of chemical reactions that both destroy ozone and return the free chlorine atom to the atmosphere unchanged, where it can destroy more and more ozone molecules. Thus, Chlorofluorocarbon’s (CFC) role in depleting the ozone layer is well-documented. So, Statement 3 is correct.

 

Q10.Consider the following statements regarding A-HELP programme

3. It aimsto help registered self-help groups in  animal husbandry activities and give their vital contribution in preventing various infectious diseases of animals, artificial insemination.
4. It is a centrally sponsored scheme.
5. It is  implemented under under Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM), by Ministry of Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying and ministry of rural development

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1,2 and 3

 

S10.Ans.(c)

Sol.

A-HELP Program It is a central sector scheme. Ministry – Ministry of Rural Development and Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying. Members of women self-help groups registered under State Rural Livelihood Mission, who are helping in various animal husbandry activities in the form of Pashu Sakhi, will be trained as ‘A-HELP’. A-HELPs (Accredited Agent for Health and Extension of Livestock Production). Under this program trained A-HELPs will give their vital contribution in preventing various infectious diseases of animals, artificial insemination. It is implemented under Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM), tagging of animals and animal insurance. ‘A-HELP’ are community based women activists, who assist veterinarians in local departmental activities. They also help livestock farmers to take loans for entrepreneurship development, fill applications, mark the ear tagging of animals and register them in INAF portal and help with insurance etc. It is related to the promotion of vaccination, artificial insemination, promotion of dairy activities, promotion of ear tagging and insurance etc.

 

 

Q11.Consider the following statements regarding ULPIN scheme

4. Under this scheme 14 digits, Alphanumeric unique ID will be assigned to  each land parcel for online digitisation of plots across the country
5. It will have the longitude and latitude coordinates of the land parcel and is based on detailed surveys and geo-referenced cadastral maps.
6. This scheme is launched by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1,2 and 3

 

S11.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN) Scheme

Under this scheme, a 14-digit identification number will be assigned to every plot of land in the country within a year’s time. It will subsequently integrate its land records database with revenue court records and bank records, as well as Aadhaar numbers on a voluntary basis. The Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN) or Bhu-Aadhaar will have the longitude and latitude coordinates of the land parcel and is based on detailed surveys and geo-referenced cadastral maps. Department of Land Resources (DoLR) along with the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, the Department of Science and Technology and the National Remote Sensing Centre came up with the Unique Land Parcel Identification Number system.

 

Q12.Consider the following statements regarding Data Empowerment and Protection Architecture (DEPA):

1. It is a joint public-private effort for an improved data governance approach.
2. It creates a digital framework that allows users to share their data on their own terms through a third-party entity, who are known as Consent Mangers (
3. It was launched by Ministry of electronics and information technology

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1,2 and 3

 

 

 

S12.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Data Empowerment and Protection Architecture (DEPA): It was launched by the NITI Aayog in 2020 on the premise that individuals themselves are the best judges of the ‘right’ uses of their personal data.

It is a joint public-private effort for an improved data governance approach. DEPA creates a digital framework that allows users to share their data on their own terms through a third-party entity, who are known as Consent Mangers (In India, Account Aggregators).

 

Q13. With reference to the development of substyles of Hindustani classical music, consider the following statements:

1. Sufism played a major role in the development and spread of Ghazal.
2. Compositions of Thumri are usually romantic or devotional in nature.
3. Tappa is originated from the folk songs of camel riders of Punjab.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S13.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option d is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct: The Ghazal as a poetic form originated in Persia in the tenth century. Later Ghazal developed as a sub style of Hindustani classical music, which was influenced by Sufism. Sufi mystics (a person who believes attaining insights into mysteries transcending ordinary human knowledge) played a major role in spreading Ghazal music in India and South Asia during the 12th century.

Statement 2 is correct: Thumri a sub style of Hindustani classical music was adopted by the Bhakti saints to connect with gods. Compositions of Thumri are either romantic or devotional in nature and the main theme being the girl’s love for Krishna. It was usually sung in a female voice. The thumri is very lyrical in its structure and presentation. Thumri is a love song and hence the textual beauty is very important. This is closely coordinated with the musical rendition. And keeping in mind its mood a thumri is usually set to ragas like Khamaj, Kaphi, Bhairavi and so on and the musical grammar is not strictly adhered to. Statement 3 is correct: Tappa, a substyle of Hindustani classical music originated from the folk songs of the camel riders of Punjab known as ‘dhapa’, which was transformed into the Hindi Tappa. It gained legitimacy and popularity under the Mughal emperor Muhammad Shah.

 

Q14. With reference to Buddhist and Jain literature, consider the following statements:

1. Visuddhimagga is a treatise on Theravada doctrine.
2. Buddhist text Abhidharmamoksha is written in Sanskrit language.
3. Kalpa Sutra contains the biographies of Jain Tirthankars.
4. Jain literature is mostly written in Pali.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 4 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1, 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 3 and 4 only

S14.Ans.(c)

Sol.

During the post-Vedic period, Buddhist and Jain literature gained prominence as they were mostly written in language spoken by people. Buddhist literature is written in Pali language and can be divided into canonical and non-canonical work. Jain literature can also be divided into two categories; Canonical or religious texts called Jain Agamas or Agam and non-canonical literary works.

Statement 1 is correct: Visuddhimagga is a text on Theravada doctrine. It is written by Buddhagosh. ‘Visuddhimagga’ means ‘The way of purification’. It contains discussion on various teachings of Buddha.

Statement 2 is correct: Abhidharmamoksha is written in Sanskrit. It has been authored by Vasubandhu and is widely respected text. It contains discussion on Abhidharma.

Statement 3 is correct: Kalpa Sutra contains biographies of Jain Tirthankars , written by Bhadrabahu (3rd century BC). Kalpasutra mentions nine Ganas and 11 Ganadharas of Mahavira. Bhadrabahu is mentioned as prime Ganadhara of Mahavira. Bhadrabahu was the pioneer of the Digambara sect. He also wrote the sacred Uvasaggaharam Stotra.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Jain literature is written in Prakrit and Ardha Magadhi. Jain monks wrote in many other languages depending on the era, region and the patrons who supported them. They wrote in Tamil during the Sangam Age in south India. They also wrote in Sanskrit, Shauraseni, Gujarati, and Marathi. Source: Nitin Singhania, Indian literature

 

Q15. With reference to Akbarnama, consider the following statements:

1. It was written by Ustad Mansur on the order of Akbar’s son Jahangir.
2. It mentions the Akbar’s differences with Muslim orthodoxy.
3. It was originally written in Persian language.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 2 and 3 only

S15.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option b is the correct answer. Akbarnama is the official chronicle of the reign of Akbar, (1556–1605). It was commissioned by Akbar himself and written by his court historian and biographer, Abul Fazl.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Akbarnama, which translates to Book of Akbar, was the official chronicle of the reign of Akbar, the third Mughal Emperor. It was commissioned by Akbar himself and written by his court historian and biographer, Abu’l-Fazl.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Abul Fazal avoided writing controversial issues related to Akbar’s reign in Akbarnama. Hence, he did not mention Akbar’s differences with the Muslim orthodoxy in Akbarnama. Abdul Qadir Badauni accounts the religious discussions held in Akbar’s Ibadat Khana. He recorded the origin of Akbar’s differences with the Muslim orthodoxy that led to religious controversies in his book.

Statement 3 is correct: Akbarnama was written in Persian language. It was the literary language of the Mughal court.

 

Q16. Consider the following Pairs:

Type of Fault Explanation

1. Normal Fault : Rocks on either side of a nearly vertical fault plane move horizontally.
2. Strike-Slip Fault : Rocks above the fault plane, move down relative to the rocks below the fault plane.
3. Reverse Fault : Rocks above the fault plane move up relative to the footwall.

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) All three pairs

(b) Only one pair

(c) Only two pairs

(d) None of the pairs

 

S16.Ans.(b)

Sol. Rocks respond to stress (being squeezed or pulled apart) near the Earth’s surface by breaking. When rocks break and there is no offset along either side of the break, the break is called a fracture or joint. Rocks can also break as a result of thermal expansion and contraction, the effects of fluids freezing, or when rocks are squeezed together or pulled apart.

When the rocks move past each other along the fracture surface, it is called faulting. Fault surfaces are often nearly planar, and that planar surface is referred to as a “fault plane.”

There are four types of faulting — normal, reverse, strike-slip, and oblique. 

• A normal fault is one in which the rocks above the fault plane, or hanging wall, move down relative to the rocks below the fault plane, or footwall. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• A reverse fault is one in which the hanging wall moves up relative to the footwall. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
• A strike-slip fault is when rocks on either side of a nearly vertical fault plane move horizontally. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• An oblique-slip fault is a special type of fault that forms when movement is not exactly parallel with the fault plane. Oblique movement occurs when normal or reverse faults have some strike-slip movement and when strike-slip faults have either some normal or reverse movement

 

Q17. Consider the following statements

1. Rifting is a geological process in which a single tectonic plate is split into two or more plates by convergent plate boundaries.
2. East African Rift was formed due to the convergence of Nubian, Somalian and Arabian Plates.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

S17.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Rifting Scientists have predicted that a new ocean would be created as Africa gradually splits into two separate parts.

∙ Rifting – The Earth’s lithosphere is comprised of the crust and upper part of the mantle. ∙ Lithosphere is divided into several tectonic plates that are not stationary and move in relation to each other at varying speeds.

∙ Tectonic forces not only move the plates but also have the potential to cause them to rupture.

∙ These ruptures result in the formation of a rift and potentially leading to the creation of new plate boundaries. Rifting refers to the geological process in which a single tectonic plate is split into two or more plates separated by divergent plate boundaries. East African Rift

∙ The three plates, the Nubian African Plate, Somalian African Plate and Arabian Plate, are separating at different speeds.

∙ The Arabian Plate is moving away from Africa at a rate of about an inch per y ear, while the two African plate are separating even slower, between half an inches to 0.2 inches per y ear.

∙ East African Rift was formed due to the separation of Somalian African Plate from the Nubian and Arabian plate.

∙ East African Rift is the oldest and best defined rift occurs in the Afar region of Ethiopia and this rift is usually referred to as the Ethiopian Rift

∙ Further to the South a series of rifts occurs which includes:

o Western branch – Lake Albert Rift or Albertine Rift which contains the East African Great Lakes

o Eastern branch – Keny a Rift or the Gregory Rift, roughly bisects Kenya north-to-south on a line slightly west of Nairobi.

∙ These two branches together have been termed the East African Rift (EAR).

∙ As the Somali and Nubian tectonic plates continue to pull apart from each other, a smaller continent will be created from the rift, which will include present-day Somalia and parts of Keny a, Ethiopia, and Tanzania.

∙ The EAR will further triggers the formation of a new sea, according to a recent study.

∙ This geological process will inevitably divide the continent, resulting in currently landlocked countries, such as Uganda and Zambia, obtaining their own coastlines in due time, which would take five to 10 million years.

 

Q18. Consider the following statements regarding Tropical wet climate

1. Tropical wet climate is found near the equator
2. Amazon Basin has the Tropical wet climate
3. A significant amount of rainfall occurs every month of the year as thundershowers in the afternoon
4. Tropical evergreen forests with dense canopy cover and large biodiversity are found in this climate.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 4
2. 2 and 3
3. 1,3 and 4
4. 1,2,3 and 4

 

S18.Ans.(d)

Sol.

A tropical wet climate is found near the equator. The major areas are the Amazon Basin in South America, western equatorial Africa, and the islands of the East Indies. A significant amount of rainfall occurs every month of the year as thundershowers in the afternoon. The temperature is uniformly high and the annual range of temperature is negligible. The maximum temperature on any day is around 30°C while the minimum temperature is around 20°C. Tropical evergreen forests with dense canopy cover and large biodiversity are found in this climate

 

Q19. Which of the following statements is correct with reference to the Directive Principles of State Policy?

1. They promote political and economic democracy in the country.
2. They have been borrowed from the Russian Constitution.
3. These have been described as ‘novel features’ of the Indian Constitution.
4. These are directives only to the executive organ and not to the legislative organ.

 

S19.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option a is incorrect: The Directive Principles aim at realising the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as outlined in the Preamble to the Constitution. They seek to establish economic and social democracy in the country. Fundamental Rights aim at promoting political democracy in the country.

Option b is incorrect: The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to 51. The framers of the Constitution borrowed this idea from the Irish Constitution of 1937, which had copied it from the Spanish Constitution

Option c is correct: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described these principles as ‘novel features’ of the Indian Constitution. The Directive Principles along with the Fundamental Rights contain the philosophy of the Constitution and is the soul of the Constitution. Granville Austin has described the Directive Principles and the Fundamental Rights as the ‘Conscience of the Constitution.

Option d is incorrect: The Directive Principles resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935. The only difference is that they are instructions to the legislature and the executive. According to Article 36, the term ‘State’ in Part IV has the same meaning as in Part III dealing with Fundamental Rights. Therefore, it includes the legislative and executive organs of the central and state governments, all local authorities and all other public authorities in the country.

 

Q20. With reference to the concept of ‘Police State’ in polity, consider the following statements:

1. Its main objective is the establishment of economic and social democracy in a country.
2. This concept is based on the theory of Laissez-Faire.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

S20.Ans.(b)

Sol.

The Directive Principles in India embody the concept of a ‘welfare state’ and not that of a ‘police state’, which existed during the colonial era.

Statement 1 is incorrect: A ‘Police State’ is mainly concerned with the maintenance of law and order and defence of the country against external aggression. It is a country in which the government uses the police to severely limit people’s freedom. The concept of a ‘welfare state’ is in contrast to that of a ‘police state’. A ‘Welfare State’ seeks to establish economic and social democracy in the country.

Statement 2 is correct: The concept of Police state is based on the nineteenth century theory of individualism or laissez-faire. The theory of laissez faire in the 19th century envisages maximum free enterprise and contractual freedom. The law and order characterized the situation in the state. Its role was limited to the traditional role of government as a protector. Knowledge Base: A welfare state is a government of the State to protect and promote the economic and social welfare of its citizens. It is a core role. It is equality of opportunity, equitable distribution of wealth, and those who are unable to avail themselves of a better life for at least based on the principle of the responsibility for the public.

 

Q21. With reference to the implementation of Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) in India, consider the following statements:

1. The 25th Constitutional Amendment Act made all the DPSPs non-justiciable.
2. There is no moral obligation on the government to implement the DPSPs.
3. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 has given effect to one of the Directive Principles.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1 and 2 only

 

S21.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Statement 1 is incorrect. All the DPSP since the adoption and enforcement of the constitution have been non-justiciable. The 25th amendment act provided that any law made to give effect to the Directive Principles contained in Article 39 (b) or (c) cannot be challenged on the ground of violation of the rights guaranteed by Articles 14, 19 and 31.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Though the Directive Principles are non-justiciable, the Constitution (Article 37) makes it clear that ‘these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws’. Thus, they impose a moral obligation on the state authorities for their application. Statement 3 is correct. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, implemented the constitutional obligation stated in Article 40 (Organisation of village panchayats).

Q22. Consider the following statements

1. The minority status of religious and linguistic communities is “State-dependent”
2. Currently, only the National Commission for Minorities (NCM) Act 1992 allows the Centre to notify minorities on a linguistic and religious basis.
3. Article 350B provides for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1,2 and 3

 

 

S22.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The Supreme Court recently said that the minority status of religious and linguistic communities is “state-dependent”. Every person in India can be a minority in one state or the other, it noted.

the petitioner has challenged Section 2(c) of the National Commission for Minorities (NCM) Act 1992, which gave “unbridled power” to the Centre to notify minorities in defiance of the Supreme Court’s 11-judge Bench judgment in T.M.A Pai case that linguistic and religious minorities should be identified at the State level and not the national level.

Article 350A provides for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups.

Article 350B provides for a special officer designated as commissioner for linguistic minorities to investigate all matters relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under the Constitution.

 

 

Q23. Consider the following statements regarding Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996”.

1. All posts of Chairpersons of PRIs in the areas covered under PESA are reserved for tribal community
2. A quorum of the Gram Sabha will be as per State PESA Rules, State Panchayati Raj Acts, and State Panchayati Raj Rules.
3. The Gram Sabha has the legal right to ensure that no land belonging to Scheduled Tribes is transferred to nonpersons.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1,2 and 3

 

 

S23.Ans.(c)

Sol.

All posts of Chairpersons of pris in the areas covered under PESA are reserved for the tribal community and only persons belonging to the tribal community can contest for these posts.

A quorum of the Gram Sabha will be as per State PESA Rules, State Panchayati Raj Acts, and State Panchayati Raj Rules. For example, in Rajasthan quorum is 10% of the total members of Gram Sabha. In Andhra Pradesh, the quorum is not less than 1/3” of members of Gram Sabha of whom at least 50% shall be ST members

PESA empowers Gram Sabha to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas and take appropriate action to restore unlawfully alienated land of a Scheduled Tribe. The Gram Sabha must ensure that no land belonging to Scheduled Tribes is transferred to nonpersons. If Gram Sabha thinks that attempts are being made to alienate land belonging to sts, it may go into details of such cases and pass a resolution as to how such attempts should be tackled

 

Q24.   Consider the following statements

1. Section 69 (A) of the IT Act, 2000 allows the Centre to issue blocking orders to social media intermediaries.
2. Social media intermediary” defined is defined under section 66A of the IT act.
3. Significant social media intermediary” (SSMI) comprising social media intermediaries with more than five million registered users in India as per the IT act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1,2 and 3

S24.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Section 69 (A) of the IT Act, 2000 allows the Centre to give orders to social media intermediaries to block any content “in the interest of sovereignty and integrity of India, defence of India, security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States or public order or for preventing incitement to the commission of any cognisable offence relating to above.”

The term ‘intermediary’ is a broadly defined term in the IT Act covering a range of entities involved in the transmission of electronic records. The Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021Rules introduce two new sub-categories, being:

• “social media intermediary” is defined (in Rule 2(w)) as one who “primarily or solely enables online interactionbetween two or more users and allows them” to exchange information; and
• “significant social media intermediary” (SSMI) comprising social media intermediaries with more than five million registered users in India

 

Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 made it a punishable offence for any person to send ‘grossly offensive’ or ‘menacing’ information using a computer resource or communication device.

 

Q25. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S25.Ans.(b)

Sol.

• An Advocate is a person authorized to appear in a litigation on behalf of a party and who possess a law degree, enrolled with the Bar Council in accordance to the prescriptions laid by the Advocates Act, 1961. In this case, law firms are not recognised as advocates. A patent attorney is an individual who is entitled to deal with patent litigation by virtue of holding a law degree. A patent attorney or patent lawyer is an advocate. So, statement 1 is not correct.
• Functions of Bar Councils include to promote legal education and to lay down standards of legal education. This is done in consultation with the Universities in India imparting legal education and the State Bar Councils. They also have the power to recognise Universities whose degree in law shall be a qualification for enrolment as an advocate and for that purpose to visit and inspect Universities. So, statement 2 is correct. Therefore option (b) is the correct answe