Odisha Civil Services Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | April 4th Week 2023

Q1.Recently, Polonnaruwa district was in news. Which of the statements given below is/are true with regard to it?

1. The district is known internationally for its evocative rock•-cut Buddha sculptures and ancient city.
2. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
3. It is called Sri Lanka’s rice hub.

Choose correct answer:

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. None

S.1 Ans. (c)

Sol

Polonnaruwa district is known internationally for its evocative rock•cut Buddha sculptures and ancient city — now a UNESCO World Heritage Site that one strand of popular history traces to the Cholas. It is also the country’s rice bowl, with the district’s farmers producing the highest amount — 3 lakh metric tonnes last year — of paddy in the country.

 

Q2.to Information, Public Participation in Decision-Making and Access to Justice in Environmental Matters is also known as

1. Aarhus Convention
2. Marpol Convention
3. London Convention
4. OSPAR Convention

 

S2.Ans. (a)

Sol

• Formal name of the Aarhus Convention is UNECE Convention on Access to Information, Public Participation in Decision­making and Access to Justice in Environmental Matters. It was signed in 1998 in the Danish city of Aarhus and entered into force in 2001. It is ratified by 41 countries which include the EU members and Central Asian Countries.
• The most notable feature enshrined in EU legislations based upon this treaty is Water Framework Directive.
• Aarhus Convention grants the public rights regarding access to information, public participation and access to justice, in governmental decision­making processes on matters concerning the local, national and Transboundary environment.

 

Q3. Which one of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India?

1. An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment.
2. A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment.
3. An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India.
4. A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India.

 

S3.Ans.(b)

Sol.

• The procedure for the amendment of the Indian Constitution is laid down in Article 368 of the Constitution. The Constitutional Amendment bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the President. So, statement 1 is not correct.
• After duly passed by both the Houses of Parliament and ratified by the state legislatures, where necessary, the bill is presented to the President for assent. The President must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament. So, statement 2 is correct.
• Each House of the Parliament must pass the bill separately by a special majority. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill. So, statement 3 is correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

 

 

Q4. With reference to ‘National Investment Fund (NIF)’, which of  the following statement is incorrect?

1. The fund is created by the Department of Investment and Public asset management (DIPAM).
2. The capital in the fund is to be mobilised through bonds issued by the Reserve Bank of India.
3. NIF is permanent in nature and is maintained outside the Consolidated fund of India.
4. The funds from NIF can be used for recapitalization of public sector banks in India.

 

S4.Ans.(b)

Sol.

• As per the Anti-defection Law, a nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being a member of the House if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat in the House. Thus, she/he can join a political party before the expiration of 6 months after becoming a member. So, statement 1 is not correct.
• Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is to be decided by the presiding officer of the House. The law does not provide a time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case. So, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

 

Q5. With reference to the Start-ups in India, consider the following statements

1. Among the Indian states, Karnataka has the highest number of recognised start-ups.
2. Unicorn is a term given to Start-up company whose annual profit is more than $1 billion.
3. Under the Start-up India initiative, there is no direct fund allocation from Union government to states governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

S5.Ans.(d)

Sol.

• In the performance of his official duties, the Attorney General has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India. Further, as per the Article 88, he has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named a member, but without a right to vote. Solicitor General has no similar right to participate in the parliamentary meetings. So, statement 1 is not correct.
• Attorney General holds office during the pleasure of the president. This means that he may be removed by the president at any time. He may also quit his office by submitting his resignation to the president. Conventionally, he resigns when the government (council of ministers) resigns or is replaced, as he is appointed on its advice. Thus, it is a convention and not mentioned in the Constitution of India. So, statement 2 is not correct. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

 

Q6. Consider the following statements with respect to Pennaiy ar River

1. This is the 2nd longest river in Tamil Nadu after Cauvery.
2. The river flows through Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh states.
3. It is a west flowing river in the southern part of India.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 3 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 1 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

 

S6.Ans.(c)

Sol.

• The time limit fixed by the Supreme Court for the constitution of an inter-State river water disputes tribunal for Pennaiyar River expired recently. Pennaiy ar River
• It is a non-perennial river.
• The river originates in the Nandi Hills in the Chikkaballapura district of Karnataka and flows through Tamil Nadu to enter the Bay of Bengal at Cuddalore.
• This is the 2nd longest river in Tamil Nadu after Kaveri.
• The river is extensively dammed for irrigation, especially in Tamil Nadu.
• There are also reservoirs at Krishnagiri and Sathanur.
• Sathanur Dam is the largest dam on this river near Tiruvannamalai.
• Major tributaries – the Chinnar, Markanda, Vaniar, and Pamban.

 

Q7. Consider the following statements:

1. Rotational speed of the earth decreases as we go from the Equator toward the poles.
2. Coriolis force increases with an increase in the speed of rotation of Earth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S7.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The Earth completes one rotation on its axis in 23 hours 56 minutes and 4 seconds. As the circumference of the earth is different at different lines of latitude, the rotational speed of the earth is different at different places. As the earth’s circumference is greatest at the equatorial region, the rotational speed is greatest at the equator (about 1670 km/hr). From the equator to the poles, the circumference of the earth gradually decreases, and thus, the rotational speed of the earth decreases at an increasing rate from the equator poles. Hence statement 1 is correct. o To make a rotation in one 24-hour period, equatorial regions race nearly 1,600 kilometers (1,000 miles) per hour. Near the poles, Earth rotates at a sluggish 0.00008 kilometers (0.00005 miles) per hour.

The main cause of the Coriolis effect is the Earth’s rotation. As the Earth spins in a counter-clockwise direction on its axis, anything flying or flowing over a long distance above its surface is deflected. This occurs because as something moves freely above the Earth’s surface, the Earth moves east under the object at a faster speed.

As latitude increases and the speed of the Earth’s rotation decreases, the Coriolis effect increases. A pilot flying along the equator itself would be able to continue flying along the equator without any apparent deflection. A little to the north or south of the equator, however, and the pilot would be deflected. As the pilot’s plane nears the poles, it would experience the most deflection possible. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

 

 

Q8. Deciduous forest and tree-shredded grasslands are predominant features of which of the climate type?

1. Tropical Wet Climate
2. Tropical Wet and Dry Climate
3. Tropical monsoon climate
4. Warm Temperate (Mid-Latitude) Climates

S8.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Tropical Wet and Dry Climate (Aw)

• Extensive Aw climate is found to the north and south of the Amazon forest in Brazil and adjoining parts
• of Bolivia and Paraguay in South America, Sudan, and south of Central Africa.
• The wet season is shorter and the dry season is longer with the drought being more severe. Temperature is high throughout the year and diurnal ranges of temperature are the greatest in the dry season. Deciduous forest and tree-shredded grasslands occur in this climate

 

Q9. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
4. The well-established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 2 and 4 only

 

S9.Ans.(a)

Sol.

• In Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker is governed by Rule 8 of The Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha. According to the Rule, the election “shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix”, and the Deputy Speaker is elected once a motion proposing his name is passed. So, statement 1 is correct.
• Up to the 10th Lok Sabha, both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker were usually from the ruling party. Since the 11th Lok Sabha, there has been a consensus that the Speaker comes from the ruling party (or ruling alliance) and the post of Deputy Speaker goes to the main opposition party. So, statement 2 is not correct.
• Article 95(1) says: “While the office of Speaker is vacant, the duties of the office shall be performed by the Deputy Speaker”. The Deputy Speaker has the same powers as the Speaker when presiding over a sitting of the House. All references to the Speaker in the Rules are deemed to be references to the Deputy Speaker when he presides. No appeal lies to the Speaker against a ruling given by the Deputy Speaker or any person presiding over a sitting of the House in the absence of the Speaker. So, statement 3 is correct.
• The well-established parliamentary practice is that a motion is moved by the Parliamentary Affairs Minister and duly seconded by the treasury benches or by the opposition, which is carried by the House. So, statement 4 is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

 

Q10. With reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission, consider the following statements:

1. The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as well as the Princely States.
2. Any Province, which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S10.Ans.(b)

Sol.

• In March 1942, a mission headed by Stafford Cripps was sent to India with constitutional proposals to seek Indian support for the war.
• It proposed that the Constituent Assembly was to be composed of elected (and not nominated) members from provinces. Only the section representing the Princely states was to be nominated. So, statement 1 is not correct.
• It also stated that if any Province which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status. This became the primary reason for the failure of the Cripps mission as this provision allowed for balkanization of India. So, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

 

 

Q11. . Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in

1. The matter of creating new All India Services
2. Amending the Constitution
3. The removal of the government
4. Making cut motions

 

S11.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in the amendment of the constitutional bill. Unlike money bill, the constitutional amendment bill has to be approved by both the houses of Parliament with special majority. There is no provision of Joint Session in case of disagreement, so, Lok Sabha cannot override the decision of Rajya Sabha. However, in the matters of formation and removal of government, the Rajya Sabha has unequal status with respect to Lok Sabha. Similarly, Rajya Sabha has less powers in the matters of finance like making cut motions, passing money bill, etc. vis-a-vis Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha has been given some special powers which it enjoys exclusively. This includes power to authorise the Parliament to create new All-India Services common to both the Centre and states (Article 312) by passing a resolution. Therefore the correct answer is (b).

 

Q12. Which of the following statements regarding Atmospheric Rivers is incorrect?

1. They are long powerful streams of moisture in the sky.
2. They transport most of the water vapour outside of the tropics.
3. It is more frequent on the west coast than the east coast.
4. If air temperature increases, the intensity of atmospheric rivers become larger.

 

S12.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Atmospheric Rivers

Atmospheric rivers are becoming more frequent in the Arctic, and they’re helping to drive dramatic shrinking of the Arctic’s sea ice cover. They are relatively long, narrow regions in the atmosphere, like rivers in the sky that transport most of the water vapour outside of the tropics. These columns of vapour move with the weather, carrying an amount of water vapour roughly equivalent to the average flow of water at the mouth of the Mississippi River. When the atmospheric rivers make landfall, they often release this water vapour in the form of rain or snow. Although atmospheric rivers come in many shapes and sizes, those that contain the largest amounts of water vapour and the strongest winds can create extreme rainfall and floods, often by stalling over watersheds vulnerable to flooding.

It is more frequent on the east coast than they are on the west coast.

If air temperature increases, the intensity of atmospheric rivers become larger. When atmospheric rivers pass over land they can cause conditions similar to those of hurricanes with intense and rapid rainfall, cyclone force winds, and significantly increased wave heights. Ten or more atmospheric rivers can be happening at once across the globe.

These events can disrupt travel, induce mudslides and cause catastrophic damage to life and property. A well-known example is the “Pineapple Express,” a strong atmospheric river that is capable of bringing moisture from the tropics near Hawaii over to the U.S. West Coast.

 

Q13. What is the primary purpose of the AUKUS grouping for which it has been formed?

1. To counter Chinese influence in Indo pacific region
2. To build a joint military partnership against Russia
3. To promote resilient supply chains and build free trade among member nations
4. To provide Australia will acquire nuclear-powered submarines

S13.Ans.(d)

Sol.

AUKUS is a new trilateral security partnership for the Indo-Pacific, between Australia, the U.K., and the U.S. (AUKUS).  As part of this, Australia will acquire nuclear-powered submarines with help from the U.K. and the U.S.

 

Q14.Consider the following statements regarding South Atlantic Anomaly (SAA)

1. The SAA is the near-Earth region where Earth’s magnetic fieldis weakest relative to an idealized Earth-centered dipole field.
2. It is observed over South America and the southern Atlantic Ocean.
3. This leads to a decreased fluxof energetic particles in this region and exposes orbiting satellites to higher-than-usual levels of radiation

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1 ,2 and 3

 

 

S14.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Recent data from NASA shows the splitting of South Atlantic Anomaly.

South Atlantic Anomaly (SAA), also called as ‘dent’ in Earth’s Magnetic Field is an unusually weak spot in the Earth’s Magnetic Field that allows charged particles from Sun to dip closer to the Earth’s surface than normal. o It is observed over South America and the southern Atlantic Ocean.

Recent data shows that SAA is expanding westward and splitting into two lobes which can result in the weakening of the magnetic field and can impact: o Low-Earth orbit satellites that travel through SAA will get hit by solar particles which can result in a short circuit and further lead to permanent damage. o International Space Station, which is in low-earth orbit, instruments will also be impacted.

The South Atlantic Anomaly (SAA) is an area where Earth’s inner Van Allen radiation belt comes closest to Earth’s surface, dipping down to an altitude of 200 kilometers (120 mi). This leads to an increased flux of energetic particles in this region and exposes orbiting satellites to higher-than-usual levels of radiation.

The effect is caused by the non-concentricity of Earth and its magnetic dipole. The SAA is the near-Earth region where Earth’s magnetic field is weakest relative to an idealized Earth-centered dipole field.

 

Q15. Which among the following mechanisms explains the transfer of heat energy from the earth’s surface to the lower atmosphere?

(a) Convection Process

(b) Terrestrial Radiation

(c) Conduction Process

(d) Advection Process

 

 

S15.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option(c) is correct:

Heating of the atmosphere is an indirect process. The processes are:

1. Terrestrial radiation: The solar radiation reflected by the earth’s surface is called ‘Terrestrial radiation’. Terrestrial radiation supplies more heat energy to the atmosphere due to its long wavelength.
2. Conduction The heat energy from the earth’s surface is transferred to the lower atmosphere which is directly in contact with the surface by the process of conduction.
3. Convection and advection The movement of air molecules in vertical and horizontal direction is called ‘convection and advection’ respectively. This movement carries heat energy to the various parts of the earth and at different altitudes.

 

 

Q16. Consider the following statements with reference to Periyar river:

1. It rises in the Varushanad Hills of western ghats.
2. The river is surrounded by Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve.
3. Kallanai Dam is built across this river.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

(a) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3.

 

S16.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Periyar river has a length of 244 km and is the longest river in the Kerala. It is a perennial river and used for supplying drinking water. It is popularly called as the lifeline of Kerala. The riveroriginates in the Shivgiri hills of Western Ghats and flow through the Periyar National Park and reaches the Periyar Lake. The water from here then flows into the Vembanad Lake and then finally to the Arabian Sea.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The river is surrounded by the Periyar Tiger Reserve & National Park. Statement 3 is incorrect: The main tributaries of Periyar are Muthirapuzha, Mullayar, Cheruthoni, Perinjankutti and the Edamala rivers. The largest hydro electricity project called as Idukki dam is commissioned here which is biggest in Asia. There are some other dams on this river which includes Neriyamangalam, Mullaperiyar, Pallivasal etc.

 

Q17. Consider the following pairs:

Local Wind Associated Region

1. Chinook Rocky Mountains
2. Sirocco Mediterranean
3. Mistral Alps

How many pairs given above is /are correctly matched?

(a) One pair only

(b) Two pairs only

(c) All the three pairs

(d) None of the above pairs

 

S17.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option(c) is correct:

Local wind systems influence the weather pattern wherever they blow.

Chinook: Warm dry westerly off the Rocky Mountains. Karaburan: ‘Black storm’ a spring and summer katabatic wind of central Asia.

Mistral: Cold northerly from central France and the Alps to Mediterranean.

Sirocco, warm, humid wind occurring over the northern Mediterranean Sea and southern Europe, where it blows from the south or southeast and brings uncomfortably humid air.

The sirocco is produced on the east sides of low-pressure centers that travel eastward over the southern Mediterranean. It originates over North Africa as a dry wind and picks up moisture as it crosses the Mediterranean.

 

Q18. Which of the following best explains the absence of Tropical cyclones near the equator:

(a) Insolation over the equator is too high.

(b) Great height of the troposphere in the equator.

(c) Absence of Coriolis force.

(d) Disturbance of North east and South east trade winds.

 

S18.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The rotation of the earth about its axis affects the direction of the wind. This force is called the Coriolis force after the French physicist who described it in 1844. It deflects the wind to the right direction in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere. The deflection is more when the wind velocity is high. The Coriolis force is directly proportional to the angle of latitude. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator. The Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the pressure gradient force. The pressure gradient force is perpendicular to an isobar. The higher the pressure gradient force, the more is the velocity of the wind and the larger is the deflection in the direction of wind. As a result of these two forces operating perpendicular to each other, in the low-pressure areas the wind blows around it. At the equator, the Coriolis force is zero and the wind blows perpendicular to theisobars. The low pressure gets filled instead of getting intensified. That is the reason why tropical cyclones are not formed near the equator.

 

Q19. Which of the following statement is incorrect about the depreciated currency?

1. It occurs when the exchange rate is cut down by its government against any foreign currency
2. It leads to an increase in debt service liability,
3. It can cause Mark-to-market, problems
4. All are correct

 

S19.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Currency depreciation is a fall in the value of a currency in terms of its exchange rate versus other currencies and is market-driven. In the foreign exchange market, when the exchange rate of a domestic currency is cut down by its government against any foreign currency, it is called devaluation. It means official depreciation is devaluation.

Devaluation was done by RBI in 1991 to set the stage for rupee convertibility

New term mark-to-market, problems:

In mark-to-market, problems may occur when market-based measurements do not give the true value of an underlying asset. Problems occur mainly when a company or financial institution is forced to calculate the selling prices of its assets and liabilities during unfavorable conditions, such as a financial crisis.

A sharp depreciation in local currency would mean a correspondingincreaseindebtserviceliability, as a more domestic currency would be required to buy the same amount of foreign exchange for debt service payments. This would lead to erosion in profit margin and have ‘mark-to-market’ implications for the corporate. There would also be a ‘debt overhang’ problem, as the volume of debt would rise in local currency terms

 

Q20. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

1. Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) is defined as the percentage of persons in the labour force (i.e., working or seeking or available for work) in the population of age 15 years and above.
2. Worker Population Ratio (WPR) is defined as the percentage of employed persons in the population of age 15 years and above.
3. Unemployment Rate (UR) is defined as the percentage of persons unemployed among the persons in the labour force.
4. Current Status (CWS) report is The activity status determined on the basis of a reference period of the last  7 days preceding the date of the survey

 

S20.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Basic definition 

• Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR): LFPR is defined as the percentage of persons in the labour force (i.e., working or seeking or available for work) in the population of age greater the 15 years and above.
• Worker Population Ratio (WPR): WPR is defined as the percentage of employed persons in the population of age greater the 15 years and above.
• Unemployment Rate (UR): UR is defined as the percentage of persons unemployed among the persons in the labour force.
• Current Weekly Status (CWS): The activity status determined on the basis of a reference period of the last 7 days preceding the date of the survey is known as the current weekly status (CWS) of the person.

 

 

Q21. Consider the following statements

1. The crowding out effect refers to how increased government spending, for which it must borrow more money, tends to reduce private spending
2. A high magnitude of the crowding out effect may even lead to lesser income in the economy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. neither 1 nor 2

S21.Ans.(c)

Sol.

“Crowding out” effect refers to how increased government spending, for which it must borrow more money, tends to reduce private spending. This happens because when the government takes up the lion’s share of funds available in the banking system, less of it is left for private borrowers. This also impacts interest rates in the economy. Sometimes, government adopts an expansionary fiscal policy stance and increases its spending to boost economic activity. This leads to an increase in interest rates. Increased interest rates affect private investment decisions. A high magnitude of the crowding out effect may even lead to lesser income in the economy.

 

 

Q22. Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India has provisions against child labour under both Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy.
2. The Child labour (Prohibition and Prevention) Amendment Act, 2016 prohibits employment of children below age 14 in hazardous occupations only.
3. India has ratified International Labour Organization (ILO) conventions for ‘admission age of employment’ and ‘worst forms of child labour’.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S22.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Article 39(f) (DPSP) provides children the right to equal opportunities and facilities to develop in a healthy manner and in conditions of freedom and dignity and guaranteed protection of childhood and youth against exploitation and against moral and material abandonment. So, statement 1 is correct.

The Central Government had enacted a new law — Child labour (Prohibition and Prevention) Amendment Act, 2016 – banning employment of child labour below 14 years of age in all occupations and processes. It further prohibits employment of adolescents (14-18 years of age) in hazardous occupations. So, statement 2 is not correct.

• India has ratified the two Core Conventions of International Labour Organization (ILO), Convention 138 regarding ‘admission age to employment’ and Convention 182 regarding ‘worst forms of Child Labour’. So, statement 3 is correct.

 

Q23.Which of the following statements regarding ‘Right to Be Forgotten’, is correct

1. It is an intrinsic part of ‘Right to Freedom’ under Article 19 of the Constitution of India.
2. It allows a person to seek deletion of private information from the internet. 3
3. Information Technology Act, 2000 provides for the Right to be Forgotten in India.
4. All are correct

 

S23.Ans.(b)

Sol.

• The Right to be Forgotten falls under the purview of an individual’s Right to Privacy. Right to Privacy was declared a Fundamental Right by the Supreme Court which said that “the right to privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 and as a part of the freedoms guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution”.
• It allows a person to seek deletion of private information from the Internet. The concept has found recognition in some jurisdictions abroad, particularly the European Union.
• While the right is not recognised by law in India, courts in recent months have held it to be an intrinsic part of the right to privacy. At least eight petitions are pending before Delhi High Court seeking removal of private information from the Internet, court records of previous convictions and proceedings, and news reports of past events.
• The Right to be Forgotten falls under the purview of an individual’s right to privacy, which is governed by the Personal Data Protection Bill that is yet to be passed by Parliament. It is a legal principle that is not yet backed by statute in India. (Information Technology Act, 2000 provides for safeguard against breaches for personal information or data from computer systems however does not provide for Right to be Forgotten).

 

Q24.Consider the following statements regarding Election Commission of India (ECI)

1. Any dispute among political groups for a symbol is decided by the Supreme Court.
2. Recognised political parties in different states within India can have a same symbol.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S24.Ans.(b)

Sol.

In case a recognised political party splits, the Election Commission decides which faction can use the symbol. The Election Symbols Order, 1968 empowers the EC to recognise political parties and allot symbols. Under the Order, it can decide disputes among rival groups staking claim to its name and symbol. The EC is the only authority to decide issues on a dispute or a merger. The Supreme Court upheld its validity in Sadiq Ali and another vs. ECI in 1971. So, statement 1 is not correct.

Two or more recognised political parties can have the same symbol provided they are not contenders in the same State or Union Territory. Example: Both the Federal Party of Manipur and Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) use ‘Rising Sun’ as their symbol. But if one of the parties wishes to open their account in the other State, it will have to contest on a different symbol. So, statement 2 is correct.

 

Q25. With reference to Enforcement Directorate (ED), consider the following statements:

1. It is set-up under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002.
2. An investigating officer forwards the details of crime to the ED if generated proceeds of crime are above ₹1 crore.
3. It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Finance, Government of India. Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

 

S25.Ans.(b)

Sol.

• The Directorate of Enforcement or the ED is a multi-disciplinary organization mandated with investigation of economic crimes and violations of foreign exchange laws. The origin of this Directorate goes back to 1st May, 1956, when an ‘Enforcement Unit’ was formed in the Department of Economic Affairs for handling Exchange Control Laws violations under Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1947 (FERA ’47). In the year 1957, this Unit was renamed as ‘Enforcement Directorate’. Thus, ED was not set-up under the PMLA. So, statement 1 is not correct.
• Whenever any offence is registered by a local police station, which has generated proceeds of crime over and above ₹1 crore, the investigating police officer forwards the details to the ED. Alternately, if the offence comes under the knowledge of the Central agency, they can then call for the First Information Report (FIR) or the chargesheet if it has been filed directly by police officials. This will be done to find out if any laundering has taken place. So, statement 2 is correct.
• In 1960, the administrative control of the Directorate was transferred from the Department of Economic Affairs to the Department of Revenue. For a short period of 04 years (1973 – 1977), the Directorate remained under the administrative jurisdiction of the Department of Personnel & Administrative Reforms. Presently, the Directorate is under the administrative control of Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, Government of India. So, statement 3 is correct.