Odisha Civil Services Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | June 4th Week 2023

The mock paper consists of a comprehensive set of questions that are framed in accordance with the syllabus prescribed by the OPSC. It aims to evaluate the candidates’ analytical and problem-solving abilities, as well as their familiarity with important concepts, events, and issues.

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Q1. Consider the following countries:

1. Armenia
2. Azerbaijan
3. Croatia
4. Romania
5. Uzbekistan

Which of the above are members of the Organization of Turkic States?

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 5

(d) 3, 4 and 5

 

S1.Ans.(c)

Sol.

• Organization of Turkic States (then called the Cooperation Council of Turkic Speaking States – Turkic Council) was established in 2009 as an intergovernmental organization, with the overarching aim of promoting comprehensive cooperation among Turkic States.
• Its four founding member states are Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan and Turkey. During the 7th Summit held in Baku in October 2019, Uzbekistan joined as a full member. Hungary received observer status at the Organization during its 6th Summit in Cholpon-Ata, Kyrgyz Republic in September 2018. And in lately in the 8th Summit held in November 2021, Turkmenistan joined as an Observer Member to the Organization. So, points 2 and 5 are correct.
• Armenia, Croatia and Romania are not its members. So, point 1, 3 and 4 are not correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer

 

 

Q2. ‘TRAPPIST 1-b’ seen in news recently is a/an

(a) High precision Enzymes as molecular scissors

(b) Exo-planet

(c) Genetically modified variety of Wheat

(d) Asteroid

 

S2.Ans.(b)

Sol.

TRAPPIST-1 b is a hot rocky exoplanet orbiting an ultracool red dwarf star TRAPPIST-1. It is the innermost of seven known planets in the TRAPPIST-1 system. It has 1.4 times the mass and 1.1 times the radius of Earth. It orbits its star at a distance of 0.011 astronomical unit (AU), completing one circuit in just 1.51 Earth days. It receives about four times the amount of energy that Earth gets from the Sun.

 

Q3. With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:

1. The first Mongol Invasion of India happened during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji.
2. During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and besieged the city.
3. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost portions of north-west of his kingdom to Mongols.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• 1 and 2
• 2 only
• 1 and 3
• 3 only

 

S3.Ans.(b)

Sol.

• JalaluddinKhalji ruled from 1290 to 1296. First Mongol invasion happened when Mongols were pursuing JalaluddinMangbarani of Khwarezm who had ran to India in 1221. So, statement 1 is not correct.
• During the reign of Alauddin Khilji, Mongols invaded India and put a siege around Delhi in 1303. So, Statement 2 is correct
• After about 1307 the Mongol threat suddenly receded; and only on one occasion subsequently does it appear to have attained to the same proportions. Early in the reign of Muhammad Tughluq, the Chaghatai Khan Tarmashirin led an incursion in which the Mongol forces once again advanced to the Jumna but retired without actually entering the capital when he was paid a ransom. Thereafter, Hindustan was free of major inroads from this quarter for another sixty years or more, until the sack of Delhi by Timur in 1398. So, Statement 3 is not correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

 

Q4.Consider the following statements with reference to the term ‘Court of Record’:

1. The Supreme court maintains records of all courts including lower courts.
2. The court that is competent to give directions and issue writs.
3. The court has power to punish for contempt of court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

S4.Ans.(c)

Sol.

option c is the correct answer Statement 1 is incorrect: A ‘court of record’ is a court that preserves all its records, not of lower courts. The judgements, proceedings and acts of the court are recorded for perpetual memory and testimony. These records are admitted to be of evidentiary value and cannot be questioned when produced before any court. They are recognized as legal precedents and legal references.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The power to give directions and issue writs is given by the constitution to the courts. This power is not because the court is a ‘court of record’.

Statement 3 is correct: A court of record has power to punish for contempt of court either with simple imprisonment for a term up to six months or with fine up to Rs 2,000 or with both.

 

Q5.Consider the following statementsabout stem cells.

1. Embryonic stem cells made from in vitro fertilization arepluripotent.
2. Recently scientists have developed an induced pluripotent stem cell that can be transformed into every kind of cell and tissue.

Which of the statements given aboveis/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S5.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct. The embryonic stem cells used in research today come from unused embryos. These result from an in vitro fertilisation procedure. These embryonic stem cells are pluripotent. This means that they can turn into more than one type of cell.

Statement 2 is incorrect. There are 2 types of adult stem cells. One type comes from fully developed tissues such as the brain, skin, and bone marrow. There are only small numbers of stem cells in these tissues. They are more likely to generate only certain types of cells. For example, a stem cell that comes from the liver will only make more liver cells. The second type is induced pluripotent stem cells. These are adult stem cells that have been changed in a lab to be more like embryonic stem cells. Induced pluripotent stem cells don’t seem to be different from embryonic stem cells, but scientists have not yet found one that can develop every kind of cell and tissue.

Q6.Which of the following best describeterm “Bugyals” in the context of Indianphysical geography?

(a) Tribal of north western Himalaya

(b) Summer grasslands in the higher

reaches of the Himalayas

(c) Temperate forest of Nilgiri hills

(d) Tribes of Kerala

 

S6.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option (b) is correct: Darjiling and Sikkim Himalayas The two distinguishing features of this region from the point of view of physiography are the ‘Shiwalik’ and ‘Dun formations. Some important duns located in this region are the Chandigarh-Kalka dun, Nalagarh dun, Dehra Dun, Harike dun and the Kota dun, etc. Dehra Dun is the largest of all the duns with an approximate length of 35-45 km and a width of 22-25 km. In the Great Himalayan range, the valleys are mostly inhabited by the Bhotia’s. These are nomadic groups who migrate to ‘Bugyals’ (the summer grasslands in the higher reaches) during summer months and return to the valleys during winters. The famous ‘Valley of flowers’ is also situated in this region. The places of pilgrimage such as the Gangotri, Yamunotri, Kedarnath, Badrinath and Hemkund Sahib are also situated in this part.

 

Q7.With reference to the band gap of semi-conductors, which of the followingstatements is incorrect?

(a) It represents the energy required for electrons to transition from the valence band to the conduction band.

(b) In wide-band-gapsemiconductors, the bond strength between atoms become strong.

(c) Wide band gap devices have lowthermal conductivity.

(d) Wide band gap semiconductors are suitable for high powerapplication devices.

 

S7.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option (a) is correct: The energy required for electrons and holes to transition from the valence band to the conduction band is called a band gap. Si (Silicon) has a band gap of 1.12 eV (electron volt). A semiconductor with a large value is called a wide-band-gap semiconductor. SiC (Silicon Carbide) and GaN (Gallium Nitride) are wide-band-gap semiconductors.

Option (b) is correct and (c) is incorrect: Since wide-band-gap semiconductors have small lattice constants, the bond strength between atoms becomes strong. This means high electric breakdown field and high thermal conductivity.

Option (d) is correct: The high breakdown voltage of wide bandgap semiconductors is a useful property in high power applications that require large electric fields. Devices for high power and high temperature applications have been developed. Both gallium nitride and silicon carbide are robust materials well suited for such applications.

 

Q8. With reference to the Anti-defection law, consider the following statements:

1. A member is not disqualified if he has taken prior permission of his party.
2. Nominated members will be disqualified if they join any political party six months after getting nominated. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S8.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Disqualification on ground of defection: A legislator belonging to a political party will be disqualified if he

○ (i) voluntarily gives up his party membership, or

○ (ii) votes/abstains to vote in the House contrary to the direction issued by his political party.

○ A member is not disqualified if he has taken prior permission of his party, or if the voting or abstention is condoned by the party within 15 days. Hence statement 1 is correct.

○ Independent members will be disqualified if they join a political party after getting elected to the House.

○ Nominated members will be disqualified if they join any political party six months after getting nominated. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

 

Q9.Which of the following is correct with respect to the Judicial administration during the Mauryan

empire?

• Capital punishments were totally absent during the Mauryan time.
• The Dharmasthiya courts deals with criminal matters only.
• The Kantakasodhana courts relied on spies for information about anti-social activities.
• Ashoka tried to establish rule of law based on Varna system.

 

S9.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option c is the correct answer. Justice was administered through courts which were established in all the major towns. Two types of courts were prevalent during this time. Option a is incorrect: During the Mauryan period, punishments for crimes were usually quite severe. Punishments for offences and crimes ranged from fines to mutilation of limbs, or even capital punishment.

Option b is incorrect: The dharmasthiya courts mostly dealt with civil law relating to marriage, inheritance and other aspects of civil life. The courts were presided over by three judges well-versed in sacred laws and three amatyas (secretaries).

Option c is correct: The main purpose of kantakasodhana courts was to clear the society of anti-social elements and various types of crimes, and it functioned more like the modern police, and relied on a network of spies for information about such anti-social activities.

Option d is incorrect: Pillar Edict IV contains Ashoka’s claim that he had introduced samata in judicial procedure. According to some interpretations this meant that he had established a uniform rule of law, abolishing varna distinctions in punishments.

 

Q10. Consider the following pairs:

National Parks (N.P.) Region

1. Tadoba Madhya Pradesh
2. BandhavGarh Maharashtra
3. Dachigam Arunachal Pradesh
4. Simlipal Orissa

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d) All four pairs

 

S10.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Tadoba National Park: Located in Chandra Pur district of Maharashtra state of India. It supports the populations of tiger, sambhar, sloth beer, lion, chital, chinkara, barking deer, blue bull, four horned deer, langur, pea foul and crocodile.

Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: BandhavGarh National Park: This Park is located in Madhya Pradesh. The principal animal kept in this park is the White Tiger.

Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Dachigam National Park: This National Park was notified in the year 1981 in the Jammu and Kashmir (India). Some of the animals protected in this park are Kashmiri Stag and Hangul.

Pair 4 is correctly matched: Simlipal National Park: Located in the district Mayurbhanj of Orissa state of India, this National Park comprises dense Sal Forest due to which this park has been chosen for the Project Tiger.

 

Q11. With reference to the tax authorities in India, Consider the following statements:

1. Directorate of revenue intelligence works under the Central Board of Indirect taxes and Customs (CBIC).
2. Central Board of Direct taxes is a non-statutory body.
3. Proceedings against Benami transactions cannot be started by an officer of rank less than an Assistant Commissioner of Income tax.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a)1 and 2 only

b)2 and 3 only

1. c) 1 and 3 only
2. d) 1, 2 and 3

 

 

 

S11.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option c is the correct answer.

The taxation in India is dealt by two agencies: 1) Central Board of Indirect taxes and Customs (CBIC) authority responsible for governing indirect taxes such as GST, central excise, customs, among others in India 2) Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) authority dealing with laws related to direct taxes through the Department of Income tax. They both come under the Department of Revenue of Ministry of Finance.

Statement 1 is correct: Department of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) works under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs, Ministry of Finance, Government of India. It is an anti-smuggling agency of India. It is assigned with task of detecting and checking the smuggling of prohibited items. Such items include drug trafficking and illicit international trade in wildlife and environmentally sensitive items. It is also tasked with combating commercial frauds related to international trade and evasion of Customs duty.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Central Board of Direct Taxes is a statutory authority under the Central Board of Revenue Act, 1963. Earlier The Central Board of Revenue under central board of revenue act, 1924 was charged with the administration of taxes. Initially the Board was in charge of both direct and indirect taxes. In 1964, the Board was split up into two bodies, namely the Central Board of Direct Taxes and Central Board of Excise and Customs.

Statement 3 is correct: Benami transaction is defined under Benami transaction (prohibition) act, 1988. In simpler terms benami transaction is if a person has paid for a certain property but it is transferred to another person’s name. Investigation for such transaction is initiated by the assistant commissioner of Income Tax. The power is conferred to him under Income tax Act, 1961.

 

Q12.With reference to Butta Bommalu dance, consider the following statements:

1. It is a folk dance of Andhra Pradesh.
2. The performers wear masks of different characters.
3. The performers sing and speak during the performance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• 1 only
• 1 and 2 only
• 2 and 3 only
• 1, 2 and 3

 

S12.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Butta Bommalu is a folk dance of Andhra Pradesh. This dance is performed to celebrate happiness during festivals. Statement 1 is correct: It is a typical folk dance form, popular in Tanuku of West Godavari District of Andhra Pradesh.

Statement 2 is correct: It is said that the name is based on the costume of the Butta Bommalu dance. The words Butta Bommalu mean basket toys. It is also called the mask dance. They wear masks of different characters. Every dancer wears a costume on their head, shoulder, and waist. The costumes of Krishna, Rama, Shiva, Parvati, Hanuman, etc are very popular.

Statement 3 is incorrect: No professional training is required for the dancers for this dance. It is very simple and can be performed by anyone. It requires some practice but not for a very long period. The dancers do not sing or speak. They only imitate the actions of the character they are following. Performers start their dance on the beat of the Dappu music instrument. It is a drum-like instrument that gives a beat to the dancer.

 

Q13.Which among the following mechanisms explains the transfer of heat energy from the earth’s surface to the lower atmosphere?

(a) Convection Process

(b) Terrestrial Radiation

(c) Conduction Process

(d) Advection Process

 

 

S13.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option(c) is correct: Heating of the atmosphere is an indirect process. The processes are: a. Terrestrial radiation: The solar radiation reflected by the earth’s surface is called ‘Terrestrial radiation’. Terrestrial radiation supplies more heat energy to the atmosphere due to its long wavelength. b. Conduction The heat energy from the earth’s surface is transferred to the lower atmosphere which is directly in contact with the surface by the process of conduction. c. Convection and advection The movement of air molecules in vertical and horizontal direction is called ‘convection and advection’ respectively. This movement carries heat energy to the various parts of the earth and at different altitudes.

 

Q14.With reference to bioethanol, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a fermented product of carbohydrates.
2. It can be produced from microalgal biomass.
3. Pure ethanol can be used as a fuel for vehicles.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S14.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct: Bioethanol, in general, is a fermented product of carbohydrates from crops such as sugarcane, corn, and so on.

Statement 2 is correct: It can also be produced from microalgal biomass.

Statement 3 is correct: Ethanol at its purest form can also be used as a fuel for vehicles. Presently, it is slowly getting replaced by bioethanol. The United States and Brazil largely use bioethanol as a vehicle fuel. After the fermentation process, the bioethanol is concentrated through the distillation process, which is followed by the bioethanol recovery from the fermentation broth.

 

Q15.Consider the following statements regarding International Liquid Mirror Telescope (LMT)

1. It is the first liquid mirror telescope designed exclusively for astronomical observations
2. It is located in Deosthali, Uttrakhand
3. It is also the first optical survey telescope of Asia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• 1 and 2
• 2 and 3
• 1 and 3
• 1,2 and 3

S15.Ans.(a)

Sol.

About.

It is a 4-metre (160 in) liquid-mirror telescope located at the Devasthal Observatory in Uttarakhand, India.

ILMT It is the first liquid mirror telescope designed exclusively for astronomical observations

It has the largest aperture telescope available in India

It is also the first optical survey telescope in India

 

Q16.QWhich of the following is types of imperfect markets:

1. Under the Cournot duopoly, quantity determines market competition between the two firms in the market and, thus, the output of competition.
2. Under  Bertrand’s duopolyprice is a determining factor for competition not quantity

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• 1 only
• 2 only
• Both 1 and 2
• Neither 1 nor 2

 

 

S16.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Duopoly is a market structure in which only two sellers (producers). This is the basic form of oligopoly competition. The two players serve multiple buyers and sell competing goods and services.

Duopoly types

The two main models for explaining duopoly markets are:

• Cournot duopoly
• Bertrand duopoly

Cournot duopoly

As the name suggests, this model comes from Antoine Cournot, a French mathematician, and philosopher. Under the Cournot model, quantity determines market competition and, thus, the output of competition. Both firms will produce at a rate that maximizes profits and selects output simultaneously.

Bertrand duopoly

Joseph Bertrand, a French mathematician, and economist, criticized the basis of competition in the Cournot model. According to him, price is a determining factor for competition, not the quantity of output.

Under Bertrand’s model, each company views that consumers will choose the company that provides the best (cheapest) price because the products on the market are identical. So when one company lowers its price, other players will take similar steps to avoid losing market share. A price cut by one company then creates a price war in the market.

 

Q17.Which of the following activities is/are prohibited within notified wetlands in India?

1. Setting up of any industry
2. Discharge of untreated wastes
3. Expansion of existing industries

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

S17.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option (d) is correct: The following activities are prohibited within notified wetlands: a. Conversion for non-wetland uses including encroachment of any kind. b. Setting up of any industry and expansion of existing industries. c. Manufacture or handling or storage or disposal of construction and demolition waste covered under the Construction and Demolition Waste Management Rules, 2016; hazardous substances covered under the Manufacture, Storage and Import of Hazardous Chemical Rules, 1989 or the Rules for the Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or cells, 1989 or the Hazardous Wastes (Management, Handling and Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2008; electronic waste covered under the E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2016;

 

Q18.During the reign(s) of which of the following rulers of the Delhi Sultanate was the city ofDelhi attacked by the Mongols?

1. Iltutmish
2. Muhammad bin Tughlaq
3. AlauddinKhalji

Select the correct code from below:

• 1 and 2 only
• 2 and 3 only
• 3 only
• 1,2 and 3

 

S18.Ans.(c)

Sol.

In 1221, during the reign of Iltutmish, the Mongols, under Changez Khan, came up to the Indus in pursuit of the Khwarizmi prince Jalaluddin who had crossed the river into India. Despite remainingthere for threemonths Changez Khan did not cross into India.

In the early years of Muhammad bin Tughlaq’s reign (1324-51), the Mongols under theirleader Tarmashrin burst into Sindh, and a force reached up to Meerut, about 65 km from Delhi.The first time the Mongols launched a serious campaign to establish their rule over Delhi wasin 1299 when a Mongol force under Qutlugh Khwaja entered many streets in the city. In 1303, the Mongols appeared again and the people of Delhi had to face many hardships. On both these

occasions, the Mongols retreated without achieving anything. The ruler of the Delhi Sultanate on both theseoccasions was AlauddinKhalji.

 

Q19.Consider the following statements regarding Total Fertility rate

1. The TFR is the number of children born per woman during her childbearing years that 18-49.
2. Replacement fertility is the total fertility rate at which women give birth to enough babies to sustain population levels.
3. Currently, the Total Fertility Rate (TFR)of India is more than the standard Replacement fertility rate prescribed by the UN

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• 1 and 2
• 2 and 3
• 1 and 3
• 1,2 and 3

 

S19.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The TFR is the number of children born per woman during her childbearing years that 18-49.

Replacement fertility is the total fertility rate at which women give birth to enough babies to sustain population levels.

According to the UN Population Division, a total fertility rate (TFR) of about 2.1 children per woman is called replacement-level fertility. If replacement level fertility is sustained over a sufficiently long period, each generation will exactly replace itself.

India’s national Total Fertility Rate (TFR) has fallen below 2.0 for the first time, as per the latest National Family Health Survey (NFHS) which means revealed that the average number of children born to a woman over her lifetime has dropped below the replacement level for the first time.

 

Q20.  Which of the following statements is correct regarding Wetlands as mentioned in the Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017?

(a) A wetland includes areas of marine water, the depth of which at low tide does not exceed six meters.

(b) A wetland includes river channels and paddy fields.

(c) A wetland includes man-made water bodies/tanks specifically constructed for drinking water purposes.

(d) A wetland includes man-made structures specifically constructed for aquaculture and salt production.

 

S20.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Statement (a) is correct: A wetland includes areas of marine water the depth of which at low tide does not exceed six meters.

Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017 and Ramsar Convention Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017:

• A wetland includes areas of marine water the depth of which at low tide does not exceed six meters.
• According to the Convention, wetlands include almost any habitat where water is a key to the environment and its wildlife.
• Wetlands include swamps, marshes, billabongs, lakes, salt marshes, mudflats, mangroves, coral reefs, fens, peat bogs, or bodies of water – whether natural or artificial, permanent or temporary.
• Water within these areas can be static or flowing; fresh, brackish, or saline; and can include inland rivers and coastal or marine water to a depth of six meters at low tide. There are even underground wetlands. Anywhere from estuaries, lakes, and rivers to underground aquifers, mangroves, coral reefs, and rice paddies count.

 

Q21.Consider the following statements regarding Cabinet Committees

4. These committees are extra-constitutional in nature and are nowhere mentioned in the Constitution.
5. All the committees are headed by the Prime Minister.
6. The members of the Cabinet Committee can be from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• 1 and 2
• 2 and 3
• 1 and 3
• 1,2 and 3

 

S21.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The eight Committees of the Cabinet are:

Appointments Committee of the Cabinet

Cabinet Committee on Accommodation

Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs

Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs

Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs

Cabinet Committee on Security

Cabinet Committee on Investment and growth

Cabinet Committee on Employment & Skill Development

All committees of the cabinet except that of Parliamentary Affairs and Accommodation are chaired by the Prime Minister. Cabinet Committee on Accommodation is headed by Home Minister Amit Shah and Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs is headed by Rajnath Singh.

 

Q22.Consider the following statements with reference to Typhoon:

1. It draws its energy from the warm sea surface.
2. It characterized by highly vertical development of cumulonimbus clouds.
3. Generally, it is concentrated near equatorial region.
4. Recently, typhoon Noru occurred in Japan.

Which of the following given statements given above is/are correct:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

 

S22.Ans.(a)

Sol.

tropical cyclone, also called typhoon or hurricane, an intense circular storm that originates over warm tropical oceans and is characterized by low atmospheric pressure, high winds, and heavy rain.

Statement 1 and 2 are correct: Tropical cyclones draw energy from warm ocean surfaces and use this energy to strengthen a cyclonic disturbance into an intense vortex, which is called a hurricane, typhoon, or cyclone, depending on where in the world it occurs. The tropical cyclone initiates from a collection of cumulonimbus clouds before the intense vortex dominates the dynamics. However, the convective clouds in the genesis stage exhibit differences from ordinary cumulonimbus, including very intense “convective bursts” and rotating convective cells called “vortical hot towers.”

Statement 3 is incorrect: Generally, it is formed in tropic seas away from equator/ equatorial region due to absence of coriolis force. Every year during the late summer months (July–September inthe Northern Hemisphere and January–March in the Southern Hemisphere), cyclones strike regions as far apart as the Gulf Coast of North America, northwestern Australia, and eastern India and Bangladesh.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Tropical cyclones are known by various names in different parts of the world. In the North Atlantic Ocean and the eastern North Pacific they are called hurricanes, and in the western North Pacific around the Philippines, Japan, and China the storms are referred to as typhoons. In the western South Pacific and Indian Ocean they are variously referred to as severe tropical cyclones, tropical cyclones, or simply cyclones. All these different names refer to the same type of storm. Noru, known locally as Karding, a super typhoon, occurred in Philippines.

 

Q23.Consider the following statements with reference to the Initiative on Climate Action and Nutrition (I-CAN) :

1. Launched at the 27th session of UNFCCC in partnership with WHO, FAO and Global Alliance for Improved Nutrition.
2. The goal of I-CAN is to support member and non-member states in delivering climate change adaptation and mitigation policy action besides improving nutrition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

 

 

S23.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Initiative on Climate Action and Nutrition (I-CAN) was officially launched at the “Adaptation and Agriculture” thematic day during the 27th session of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) Conference of the Parties (COP27) in Sharm El-Sheikh, 6-18 November 2022. I-CAN is a multi-stakeholder, multi-sectoral initiative that will be implemented with the support of UN agencies and partners, including the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and the Global Alliance for Improved Nutrition (GAIN) and emphasizes pillars of action that consist of implementation, action and support, capacity building, data and knowledge transfer, policy and strategy, and investments.So, Statement 1 is correct. The aspirational goal of I-CAN is to support only Member States in delivering climate change adaptation and mitigation policy action, which simultaneously improves nutrition and triggers transformative action to deliver healthy diets from sustainable food systems, thus contributing to achieving the global targets for SDG 13, SDG3 and SDG2. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

 

 

Q24.Consider the following statements with reference to Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority:

1. It is a Statutory Authority under the Department of Food and Public Distribution.
2. The Authority has launched an electronic Negotiable Warehouse Receipt(eNWR).
3. NWR will help the farmers to seek loans from banks to avoid distressed sales of agricultural produce.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

 

 

S24.Ans.(d)

Sol.

The Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority (WDRA) were established under the Warehousing (Development and Regulation) Act, 2007. The WDRA is a Statutory Authority under the 105 Department of Food and Public Distribution, Government of India, and it has headquarters in New Delhi. So, Statement 1 is correct. The Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority launched the electronic Negotiable Warehouse Receipt (eNWR) on 26th September 2018 and thereby migrated to the IT-based eNWR ecosystem. All the registered warehouses are on boarded to Repository System for issuing eNWR against the deposits. The depositor can use eNWR to get loans against underlying commodities from banks and a lien will be marked by the repository. So, Statement 2 is correct. The Negotiable Warehouse Receipts (NWR) issued by the WDRA will help the farmers to seek loans from banks against the NWRs to avoid distressed sales of agricultural produce during the peak marketing season and to avoid post-harvest storage loss. So, Statement 3 is correct.

 

Q25.Which of the following statements regarding Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) is incorrect

• The CAT had been established under Article 323 – A of the Constitution.
• Members of the CAT are appointed based on the recommendations of a high-powered selection committee led by a sitting Supreme Court Judge.
• The Tribunal is bound by the procedure, prescribed by the Civil Procedure Code.
• All are correct

 

S25.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Article 323 – A: The Central Administrative Tribunal had been established under Article 323 – A of the Constitution for adjudication of disputes and complaints with respect to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or other authorities under the control of the Government.

The CAT is a multi-member body led by a chairman and members.  They are appointed by the president and come from both the judicial and administrative branches.  Members of the CAT are appointed based on the recommendations of a high-powered selection committee led by a current Supreme Court Judge selected by the Chief Justice of India.

Appointments are made with the permission of the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet after getting the concurrence of the Chief Justice of India.

The Tribunal is guided by the principles of natural justice in deciding cases and is not bound by the procedure, prescribed by the Civil Procedure Code.

 

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