Odisha Civil Services Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | March 1st Week 2023

Q1.Consider the following statements

1. In 1990 two economists – Prof. Mehbub Al Haque and Prof. Amartya Sen introduced the concept of Human Development.
2. World Bank releases the Human Development Index (HDI) and publishes a report which is known as Human Development Report (HDR)
3. India ranks 131 in the latest HDI index

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1,2 and 3

 

S1.Ans. (c)

Sol.

World Bank releases the Human capital Index.

In 1990 two economists – Prof. Mehbub Al Haque and Prof. Amartya Sen introduced the concept of Human Development. From 1990 onwards, United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), each year calculate Human Development Index (HDI) and publish it as a report which is known as Human Development Report (HDR). This report is published each year in which almost all the countries are placed under three categories, high, medium and low based on the defined parameters.

India dropped one spot to 131 among 189 countries in the 2020 human development index.

Norway topped the index, followed by Ireland, Switzerland, Hong Kong and Iceland

 

Q2.Consider the following statements regarding National Multidimensional Poverty Index Report

1. In India National Multidimensional Poverty Index report is prepared by NSO
2. The MPI is based on three major dimensions — health, education, and standard of living — with each having a weighting of one-third in the index.
3. As per the latest report, the population of Bihar has the highest level of poverty among the population

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 2 and 3
2. 1 and 2
3. 1 and 3
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S2.Ans. (a)

Sol.

Recently, National Multidimensional Poverty Index was published by NITI Aayog in collaboration with Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) and the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) was released.

The MPI seeks to measure poverty across its multiple dimensions and in effect complements existing poverty statistics based on per capita consumption expenditure. It has three equally weighted dimensions – health, education, and standard of living – which in turn are represented by 12 indicators such as nutrition, school attendance, years of schooling, drinking water, sanitation, housing, bank accounts among others.

Bihar, Jharkhand and Uttar Pradesh have emerged as the poorest states in India, according to NITI Aayog’s Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI)

As Kerala registered the lowest poverty across the country in the just-released NITI Aayog report the Kottayam was named a district with close to 0% poverty

 

Q3.Consider the following statements regarding Magellan spacecraft

1. The Magellan spacecraft aims to map the surface of Venus
2. It was launched by NASA and JAXA as joint mission
3. Maat Mons is the planet’s highest volcano

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1,2 and 3

 

S3.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The Magellan spacecraft was a 1,035-kilogram robotic space probe launched by NASA of the United States, on May 4, 1989, to map the surface of Venus by using synthetic-aperture radar and to measure the planetary gravitational field.

Recently Researchers have said radar images taken by NASA’s Magellan spacecraft showed that a volcanic vent about 1.6 km wide on the Venusian surface expanded and changed shape over an eight-month span in 1991. The vent is situated on Maat Mons, which at about 9 km tall is the planet’s highest volcano and second-highest mountain.

 

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding the Censorship of the Press Act of 1799:

1. It was originally imposed by Lord Wellesly.
2. This Act warranted that all content was to be cleared by the Secretary to the Government.
3. Every publisher was required to get a license from the government, in case of default, the penalty was Rs.400 and the Press would be ceased by the government.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S4.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Press Censorship was imposed by Lord Wellesley in the year 1799 through Censorship of the Press Act which imposed strict restriction on the newspapers published from India. So, Statement 1 is correct.

According to the Act, The newspapers instructed to print clearly the every issue, the name of the printer, the editor and the proprietor. The Publishers had to submit all the material for pre- censorship to the Secretary to the Government. Breach of these rules were punishable offence. These restrictions were relaxed under Lord Hastings. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Every publisher was required to get a license from the government, in case of default, the penalty was Rs.400 and the Press would be ceased by the government, is a provision of Licensing Regulations, 1823 enacted by Governor General John Adams. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

 

Q5. With reference to Administrative reforms carried out by William Bentinck, consider the following statements:

1. He abolished provincial courts of appeal.
2. He introduced local languages in the higher and lower courts in the place of Persian.
3. He is one of the major reason for the Indianization of the Government services.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

 

S5.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Lord William Bentinck assumed the office of Governor-General in 1828. His administrative reforms speak of his political maturity and wisdom. In the judicial department, he abolished the provincial courts of appeal established by Cornwallis and redistributed their work to Commissioners and District Collectors. They were largely responsible for the huge arrears of cases. This step was readily accepted by the Directors since it cut down their expenditure. So, Statement 1 is correct.

He introduced local languages in the lower courts and English in the higher courts in place of Persian. So, Statement 2 is not correct

After 1813 under Hastings, there started the process of the gradual Indianisation of the lower branches of services, mainly the judiciary. Bentinck advocated the inclusion of Indians on the grounds of orienting administration to the local needs, which could only be defined by the Indians themselves. He became one of the major factor for the Indianization of the Government services. So, Statement 3 is correct.

 

Q6. Consider the following statements with reference to the ‘Langya Virus’, which has sometimes

been seen in the news recently :

1. It is a new zoonotic virus that has infected people in Sri Lanka
2. As of now, there are no licensed drugs meant for humans.
3. The virus transfers easily between humans

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S6.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Langya Henipavirus or the LayV is a zoonotic virus reported in China, with 35 people infected. The new type of Henipavirus has been found in China’s Shandong and Henan provinces. Henipaviruses are classified as Bio safety Level 4 (BSL4) pathogens.

The pathogen belongs to the henipavirus family, is closely associated with Nipah and Hendra viruses, and was noticed to cause fever and respiratory symptoms among 35 people in China since 2018. So, Statement 1 is not correct. Currently, there are no licensed drugs or vaccines meant for humans. Hence, it is slightly incurable. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Langya, a unique Henipavirus that spreads from animals to humans, is not as contagious as coronavirus. There has been no reported human-to-human transmission yet. They can cause severe illness in animals and humans, but scientists say they are not overly concerned because the virus doesn’t seem to spread easily between people, nor is it fatal. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

 

Q7. “Scalp”, “Crystal Maze” recently seen in the media related to which one of the following ?

(a) They are new psychoactive substances aimed to mimic the effects of existing illicit drugs like

cannabis

(b) Air-to-surface missiles systems

(c) Supercomputers developed by Japan

(d) Type of malware used to steal classified information

 

S7.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Recently, Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) received a proposal to develop a prototype of the indigenous Light Combat Aircraft `Tejas’ Mk2 Project. The LCA MK-2 features enhanced range and endurance, including Onboard Oxygen Generation System (OBOGS), which is being integrated for the first time. Heavy stand-off weapons of the class of Scalp (stealth, air to surface missile), lethal Israeli Crystal Maze long-range air-to-surface missiles and SPICE- 2000 bombs will also be integrated into the MK-2. The MK-2 will be a heavier and much more capable aircraft than the current LCA variants, with the aircraft 1350mm longer, featuring canards and can carry a payload of 6,500 kg compared to 3,500 kg by the LCA. So, Option (b) is correct.

 

Q8. With reference to the working of the constitution assembly, Consider the following Pairs:

Head of Committee Committee

1. Jawaharlal Nehru – States Committee
2. G. V. Mavlankar – House Committee
3. Dr.Rajendra Prasad – Rule of Procedure

committee

4. Sardar Patel – Minorities and Tribal and Excluded areas Committee

How many pair(s) given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d) All the pairs

 

S8.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The constituent assembly appointed committees to handle different works of constitution making. Of that 8 were major committees and others were minors.

• Jawaharlal Nehru – States Committee (Committee for Negotiating with States)
• Pattabhi Sitaramayya – House Committee
• Dr. Rajendra Prasad – Rules of Procedure Committee
• Sardar Patel – Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas So, Option (c) is correct.

 

Q9. Why the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) could not be considered a ‘State’ under Article 12 of the Indian Constitution?

1. It is not created by any law of the Parliament.
2. The government does not have any share capital in the BCCI.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S9.Ans.(c)

Sol.

According to Article 12 of the Indian Constitution, “the State” includes the Government and Parliament of India and the Government and the Legislature of each of the States, and all local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India. It also includes all agencies of the government, private bodies, or agencies working as an instrument of the State. But BCCI does not have such characteristics. BCCI was formed in December 1928 as a society, registered under the Tamil Nadu Societies Registration Act. It is not considered as a ‘State’ under Article 12 as it is not created by the law of parliament. It is an autonomous body and doesn’t fall under the preview of the National Sports Federation of India. Neither the government have any share capital in BCCI nor does the BCCI receive any financial support from the government. So, it is not considered as a ‘State’ under Article 12 of the Constitution of India. So, Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

 

Q10. With reference to Transgenic plants, consider the following statements:

1. These plants are produced by modifying their DNA using genetic engineering techniques.
2. The inserted genes must come from the different plant of the same species.
3. The Cartagena Protocol has been adopted to address safety concerns related to it.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S10.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct: Transgenic plants are the ones, whose DNA is modified using genetic engineering techniques. The aim is to introduce a new trait to the plant which does not occur naturally in the species. A transgenic plant contains a gene or genes that have been artificially inserted.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The inserted gene sequence is known as the transgene, it may come from an unrelated plant or from a completely different species. The purpose of inserting a combination of genes in a plant, is to make it as useful and productive as possible. Through the use of transgenics, one can produce plants with desired traits and even increased yields. The transgenics would allow for more crops that last longer and withstand pests and diseases. Statement 3 is correct: Recognizing the need of biosafety in Genetic Engineering research and development activities, an international multilateral agreement on biosafety “the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety (CPB)” has been adopted by 167 parties, including 165 United Nations countries, Niue, and the European Union. The Protocol entered into force on 11 September 2003.

 

Q11. With reference to Thermoregulation in animals, consider the following statement:

1. Poikilotherms lack the physiological means to generate heat.
2. Homeotherms have specific physiological adaptations for regulating their body temperatures.
3. Amphibians, and reptiles are the example of homeotherms.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S11.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Animals occupy diverse types of biomes and aquatic environments. A key factor in their success is the ability for many species to adapt to external environmental fluctuations and maintain a consistent internal environment. Cannon (1932) described the capacity for an animal to regulate its internal environment as the product of a suite of physiological processes, called homeostasis. Homeostatic mechanisms are dynamic and regulate many different parameters in the animal body (e.g., pH, dissolved oxygen, glucose concentration). Types of Thermoregulations.

Statement 1 is correct and statement 3 is incorrect: There are two primary responses to fluctuating ambient temperatures exhibited by animals: poikilothermy and homeothermy. Because poikilotherms lack the physiological means to generate heat, the body temperature of these animals tends to conform to that of the outside environment in the absence of any behavioural intervention. Examples of poikilotherms include the “cold-blooded” animals, such as most fish, amphibians, and reptiles.

Statement 2 is correct: On the other hand, homeotherms have specific physiological adaptations for regulating their body temperatures; body temperatures of homeotherms do not fluctuate as much as those of poikilotherms. Indeed, all homeotherms maintain high body temperatures in the range of 36 to 42oC and include the “warm-blooded” animals, such as birds and mammals.

 

Q12. Consider the following statements with reference to Periyar river:

1. It rises in the Varushanad Hills of western ghats.
2. The river is surrounded by Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve.
3. Kallanai Dam is built across this river.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3.

 

S12.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Periyar river has a length of 244 km and is the longest river in the Kerala. It is a perennial river and used for supplying drinking water. It is popularly called as the lifeline of Kerala. The river originates in the Shivgiri hills of Western Ghats and flow through the Periyar National Park and reaches the Periyar Lake. The water from here then flows into the Vembanad Lake and then finally to the Arabian Sea.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The river is surrounded by the Periyar Tiger Reserve & National Park. Statement 3 is incorrect: The main tributaries of Periyar are Muthirapuzha, Mullayar, Cheruthoni, Perinjankutti and the Edamala rivers. The largest hydro electricity project called as Idukki dam is commissioned here which is biggest in Asia. There are some other dams on this river which includes Neriyamangalam, Mullaperiyar, Pallivasal etc.

 

Q13. Consider the following pairs regarding minor plates:

Minor plate Location of the plate

1. Cocos plate Between North America and Pacific plate
2. Nazca plate Between South America and Pacific plate
3. Caroline plate Between Philippine and Indian Plate
4. Fuji plate South–East of Australia

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d) All four pairs

 

S13.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option (b) is correct:

The theory of plate tectonics proposes that the earth’s lithosphere is divided into seven major and some minor plates. Young Fold Mountain ridges, trenches, and/or faults surround these major plates. Some important minor plates are listed below:

(i) Cocos plate: Between Central America and Pacific plate

(ii) Nazca plate: Between South America and Pacific plate

(iii) Arabian plate: Mostly the Saudi Arabian landmass

(iv) Philippine plate: Between the Asiatic and Pacific plate

(v) Caroline plate: Between the Philippine and Indian plate (North of New Guinea)

(vi) Fuji plate: North-east of Australia. These plates have been constantly moving over the globe throughout the history of the earth.

 

Q14. Consider the following statements with reference to the Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance (RAMP) scheme:

1. It is an Asian development Bank-assisted central sector program to strengthen India’s Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) sector.
2. It is monitored by the apex National MSME Council headed by the Minister for MSME.
3. It aims to improve access to market and credit, technology upgradation and address issues of delayed payments and greening of MSMEs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 2 only

 

S14.Ans.(b)

Sol.

The Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance (RAMP) scheme is a central sector program to strengthen India’s Micro Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) sector. It is a World Bank-assisted central government program announced in the Union Budget of 2022-23 with an outlay of INR 6,062.45 crore, of which INR 3750 crore would be loaned by the World Bank and the remaining 2312.45 crores would be contributed by the Indian government. So, Statement 1 is not correct. The overall monitoring and policy overview of RAMP would be done by an apex National MSME Council, headed by Minister for MSME, including representation from various Ministries and supported by a secretariat. So, Statement 2 is correct. This scheme aims at strengthening institutions and governance at the Centre and State, improving Centre- State linkages and partnerships and improving access of MSMEs to market and credit, technology upgradation and addressing issues of delayed payments and greening of MSMEs. So, Statement 3 is correct.

 

Q15. Consider the following statements with reference to Index of Industrial Production (IIP):

1. It is a composite indicator that measures the short-term changes in the volume of production of a basket of industrial products in a given period.
2. IIP index is currently calculated using 2015-2016 as the base year.
3. It is compiled and published by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) None of the above

 

S15.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is a composite indicator that measures the short-term changes in the volume of production of a basket of industrial products during a given period concerning that in a chosen base period. IIP index is currently calculated using 2011-2012 as a base year. So, Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is not correct. The National Statistics Office (NSO) earlier, known as Central Statistical Organization, is responsible for the compilation and publication of the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) every month which is under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). Hence, it is not done by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

 

Q16. Which of the following best describes the Environment Impact Assessment (EIA)?

(a) It is the process of identifying, predicting and evaluating the bio-physical and social effects of development proposals to make decisions.

(b) It is a decision-making tool that compares various alternatives for a project and seeks to identify the best combination of economic and environmental costs.

(c) EIA is a decision-making tool that identifies the environmental and social impacts of a project.

(d) None of the above

 

S16.Ans.(d)

Sol.

The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) defines Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) as a tool used to identify a project’s environmental, social and economic impacts prior to decision-making. The following definition below best describes the Environment Impact Assessment as “the process of identifying, predicting, evaluating and mitigating the biophysical, social, and other relevant effects of development proposals prior to major decisions being taken and commitments made.” So, Option (d) is correct.

 

Q17. Consider the following statements with reference to UNFCCC’s Sustainable Development Mechanism(SDM) :

1. SDM supports the implementation of the Clean Development Mechanism (CDM), Joint Implementation and International Emissions Trading.
2. The SDM is an offsetting tool in complement to the mechanisms established under the Kyoto Protocol.
3. SDM manages the Non-State Actor Zone for Climate Action platform and supports the COP Presidencies’ Climate Action Champions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S17.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Under the Kyoto Protocol in 1996, Clean Development Mechanism was established as a pure offsetting mechanism. The term offset means when developing countries’ reductions in emissions produce credits that could offset increased emissions in developed countries but still meet their climate targets. Whereas Sustainable Development Mechanism (SDM), established by the 2015 Paris Agreement, was not used as an offsetting mechanism. SDM has the specific goal to ‘deliver an overall mitigation in global emissions,’ meaning that using the SDM must lead to emissions reductions. Given the overall Paris framework and objectives, it becomes clear that offsetting is not an appropriate tool for the climate change . 62 challenge. Therefore, in contrast to the mechanisms established under the Kyoto Protocol, the SDM cannot be an offsetting tool. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

 

Q18. Consider the following statements regarding Tropical Easterly Jet Stream

1. The difference in heating and cooling and the ensuing pressure gradient is what drives this jet stream
2. This jet occurs near the Tropopause over Southeast Asia India and Africa during summer.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• 1 only
• 2 only
• Both are correct
• None of the above

 

S18.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Tropical Easterly Jet Stream

• This jet occurs near the Tropopause over Southeast Asia India and Africa during summer.
• The strongest winds are over southern India but they are not as intense as the winds encountered in polar-front or subtropical jet streams.
• This jet is closely connected to the Indian and African summer monsoons.
• The existence of this jet implies that there is a deep layer of warm air to the north of the jet and colder air to the south over the Indian Ocean.
• This warm air is of course associated with the maximum heating taking place over India in summer while the colder air is over the ocean.
• The difference in heating and cooling and the ensuing pressure gradient is what drives this jet stream

 

Q19. Azores High is a subtropical high-pressure system that results in abnormally dry conditions across

(a) Indo-Pacific Region

(b) Arctic Region

(c) North Atlantic Ocean

(d) Southern Ocean

 

S19.Ans.(c)

Sol.

• Azores High is a subtropical high-pressure system that extends over the eastern subtropical North Atlantic and Western Europe during winter. It is associated with anticyclonic winds in the subtropical North Atlantic. It is formed by dry air aloft descending the subtropics and coincides with the downward branch of the Hadley Circulation.
• An extremely large ‘Azores High’ (a subtropical weather phenomenon) has resulted in abnormally dry conditions across the western Mediterranean, including the Iberian Peninsula, primarily occupied by Spain and Portugal.
• A recent research showed that the Azores High expansion is driven by external climate forces and that the only external forcing that produces this signal in the industrial era is atmospheric greenhouse gas concentrations. Its strengthening is consistent with anthropogenically driven warming. o This dramatic change in Azores High caused changes in the North Atlantic climate in an unprecedented way. The study is important to understand the future climate risks posed to productive agricultural sectors such as viticulture and olive plantations across the Iberian Peninsula.

 

Q20. With reference to the recent amendments in the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA) rules, consider the following statements:

1. The Act extends across India and also applies to the citizens of India outside India.
2. A person cannot receive foreign contribution of more than Rs. 1 Lakh from any of his relatives in a financial year without informing the central government.
3. Time period for intimation to Central Government regarding receipt of foreign contributions is 3 months for any person to receive foreign contribution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

 

S20.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct: The FCRA regulates foreign donations and ensures that such contributions do not adversely affect internal security. First enacted in 1976, it was amended in 2010 when a slew of new measures was adopted to regulate foreign donations. The Act extends across India and also applies to the citizens of India outside India.

Statement 2 is incorrect and statement 3 is correct: Amendments to Rule 6 – Intimation of foreign contribution received from relatives: 1. The threshold limit for any person to receive foreign contribution from any of his relatives in a financial year without informing the central government has been increased from rupees one lakh to rupees ten lakh. 2. Time period for intimation to Central Government regarding receipt of foreign contributions from relatives has been increased to 3 months from the existing time limit of 30 days.

 

Q21. With reference to the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR), consider the following statements:

1. It is constituted under Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015.
2. It monitors implementation of Right to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009.
3. It has ‘E-Baal Nidan’ portal for grievance redressal against violation of child rights.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S21.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR)) is a statutory body constituted under Section 3 of the Commission for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005 to protect the child rights and other related matters in the country.

Statement 2 is correct: The Commission is further mandated to monitor the proper and effective implementation of Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012; Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 and Right to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009. In one of the functions laid down under Section 13 of the CPCR Act, 2005, the Commission has been assigned with the function to examine and review the safeguards provided by or under any law for the time being in force for the protection of child rights and recommend measures for their effective implementation.

Statement 3 is correct: The Commission, to fulfil its mandate and functions under Section 13 of the CPCR Act, 2005 had developed an online complaint mechanism “E-BaalNidan” in 2015. It is an online portal wherein any person can register a complaint reporting about any violation committed against a child and after such registration, the complainant will get a complaint registration number

 

Q22. Consider the following statements

1. Under article 340 President is authorized to appoint a Commission to investigate the conditions of socially and educationally backward classes
2. Commission to examine the issue of sub-categorization of OBCs is being chaired by retired Justice G. Rohini

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• 1 only
• 2only
• Both 1 and 2
• Neither 1 nor 2

 

S22.Ans.(c)

Sol.

National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) proposed the sub-categorization of Other Backward Classes (OBCs) back in 2015. In October 2017, President Ram Nath Kovind, in the exercise of the powers conferred by Article 340 of the Constitution, appointed a commission to examine the issue of sub-categorization of OBCs, chaired by retired Justice G. Rohini, to ensure social justice in an efficient manner by prioritizing the Extremely Backward Classes (EBCs).

Need for sub-categorization:

Sub categorization of the OBCs will ensure that the more backward among the OBC communities can also access the benefits of reservation for educational institutions and government jobs. At present, there is no sub-categorization and 27% of reservation is a monolithic entity.

 

Q23.         Consider the following statements

1. He initiated the famous “Rampa Rebellion” or Manyam Rebellion
2. He was given  the “Hero of Jungle” for his protest against Forest Act, 1882
3. He adopted aspects of the Non-cooperation movement and Asserted that India could be liberatedonly by force, not non-violence.

Identify the above freedom fighter:

• Pingala Venkaya
• Potti Sriramulu
• Alluri Sitarama Raju
• Pattabhi Sittaramayya

 

S23.Ans.(c)

Sol.

In the tribal areas, the villagers were exploited by Britishers, as they lacked knowledge and were powerless. Sri Alluri Seetarama became their voice and strength to them. She united various tribes, taught them guerrilla warfare, and trained them to fight back against the colonial power. He was one of the bravest revolutionaries and freedom fighters.

When the British government passed the Forest Act, 1882 (which banned the villagers from practicing their traditional agricultural system of shifting cultivation, forcing them to raise particular types of crops). Alluri Seetarama initiated the famous “Rampa Rebellion” or Manyam Rebellion in 1922-1924. During the period of two years, he fought multiple times with the British troops, always winning against them. This gave him the title of “Manyam Veerudu” or the “Hero of Jungle

He talked of the greatness of Gandhi, he was inspired by Non-cooperation Movement, & persuaded people to wear khadi and give up drinking. But at the same time, he asserted that India could be liberated only by force, not non-violence.

 

Q24. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

1. Insurance penetration is measured as the ratio of insurance premium to the population of the country.
2. Insurance density is calculated as the ratio of insurance premium to the GDP of the country.
3. India performs better in terms of life insurance penetration than the non-life insurance penetration.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• 1 and 3 only
• 1 and 2 only
• 3 only
• 2 and 3 only

 

S24.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option c is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Internationally, the potential and performance of the insurance sector are generally assessed based on two parameters, viz., insurance penetration and insurance density. Insurance penetration is measured as the percentage of insurance premium to GDP of the country.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Insurance density is calculated as the ratio of insurance premium to population.

Statement 3 is correct: In India, insurance penetration was 2.71 per cent in 2001 and has increased to 4.2 per cent in 2020. As of 2020, the penetration for life insurance in India is 3.2 percent and nonlife insurance penetration are 1 percent.

 

Q25. With reference to Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in insurance sector, consider the following

statements:

1. FDI under automatic route in insurance company cannot exceed 49% limit.
2. It is mandatory for insurance companies with foreign investment to have the majority of their directors as resident Indians.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• 1 only
• 2 only
• Both 1 and 2
• Neither 1 nor 2

 

S25.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option b is the correct answer. The Finance Ministry notified the Indian Insurance Companies (Foreign Investment) Amendment Rules, 2021. These rules will apply to all insurers irrespective of the stake held by the foreign partner.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Parliament had passed the Insurance Amendment Bill 2021 to increase the FDI limit in the insurance sector to 74% from 49%. Government raised the permissible FDI limit from 49percent to 74percent in Insurance Companies under the automatic route and allow foreign ownership and control with safeguards.

Statement 2 is correct: As per Insurance Companies Amendment Rules, 2021, any Indian insurance company with foreign investment exceeding 49% should have half of its board of directors as an independent director. Indian insurance companies, with foreign investment, should have the majority of their directors and key management persons as resident Indians.