Odisha Civil Services Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | March 2nd Week 2023

Q1. With reference to Shallow Ecologism and Deep Ecologism, consider the following statements:

1. Shallow Ecologism refers to focusing on lifestyle without any consideration for environment conservation.

2. Deep Ecologism involves radically changing the relationship of humans with nature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. a) 1 only
2. b) 2 only
3. c) Both 1 and 2
4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S1.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Shallow ecologism, also referred to as weak ecologism, refers to the philosophy wherein the present lifestyle is continued, but with specific tweaks to minimise the damage to the environment. Thus, it does consider environment concerns, but believes that environmental preservation should only be practiced to the extent that it meets human interests. This branch of ecologism primarily serves to maintain the lifestyle of those dwelling in developed countries. For example, using vehicles that cause less pollution or air conditioners that do not release chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).

Statement 2 is correct: Deep ecologism refers to the philosophy wherein the exponents believe that humans should radically change their relationship with nature. It rejects shallow ecologism as it prioritises humans above nature. It aims to preserve nature subsequent to environmental destruction. For instance, the US constitutes only 5% of the world’s population, but consumes 17% of the world’s energy consumption.

 

Q2. Which among the following committees is / are associated with designation of Eco sensitive zone in India?

1. Kasturirangan Committee
2. Pronab Sen committee
3. Gadgil committee

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S2.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option(d) is correct: The Kasturirangan committee report proposes 37 per cent of the total area of Western Ghats. The report recommended a blanket ban on mining, quarrying, setting up of red category industries and thermal power projects. It also stated that the impact of infrastructural projects on the forest and wildlife should be studied before permission is given for these activities. Union Environment appointed Gadgil Committee under the chairmanship of ecologist Madhav Gadgil in 2010. This commission, also called The Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP), was based on the environmental research of the entire Western Ghats of India. The panel, in its report, classified the extensive region of 64% of the Western Ghats, spanning over six States, 44 districts and 142 taluks, into Ecologically Sensitive Zones, called ESZ 1, ESZ 2 and ESZ 3. The ministry of environment and forest has set up Pronab sen commiitte for identifying parameter for designating ESZ.

 

Q3. Consider the following statements with reference to the Layers of the Atmosphere:

1. Height of the troposphere decreases from the equator towards the poles.
2. Ozone gas is highly concentrated in the upper part of the stratosphere.
3. Exosphere is the coldest layer of the atmosphere.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S3.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Statements 1 is correct: The troposphere is the lowermost layer of the atmosphere. It extends approximately to a height of 8 km from the poles and 18 km from the equator. The height of the troposphere changes seasonally also. It increases during summer and decreases during winter. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Stratosphere is the second layer of the atmosphere found above the troposphere. It approximately extends up to a height of 50 km from the earth’s surface. Temperature is constant up to a height of 20 km and increases gradually up to the stratopause where temperature is nearly -4°C. The lower part of this layer is highly concentrated with ozone gas which is called ‘ozonosphere’. It prevents the ultra- violet rays from the Sun from entering into the lower part of the atmosphere as the rays are highly harmful; it causes skin cancer and other ill effects to living organisms. But the ozone layer safeguards life on the earth.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The mesosphere is the third layer of the atmosphere found approximately up to a height of 85 km above the surface of the earth. It is the coldest layer of the atmosphere. The temperature decreases with increase of altitude due to the absence of ozone.

 

Q4. With reference to biofuels, consider the following statements:

1. Ethanol is used as a blending agent with gasoline to cut down the emission of carbon monoxide. 2. Biomass cannot be converted directly into liquid fuels.
2. Biodiesel can be produced by combining alcohol with vegetable oil.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

 

S4.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Ethanol (CH3CH2OH) is a renewable fuel that can be made from various plant materials, collectively known as “biomass.”

Statement 1 is correct: Ethanol is an alcohol used as a blending agent with gasoline to increase octane and cut down carbon monoxide and other smog-causing emissions. The most common blend of ethanol is E10 (10% ethanol, 90% gasoline) and is approved for use in most conventional gasoline- powered vehicles up to E15 (15% ethanol, 85% gasoline).

Statement 2 is incorrect: Unlike other renewable energy sources, biomass can be converted directly into liquid fuels, called “biofuels,” to help meet transportation fuel needs. The two most common types of biofuels in use today are ethanol and biodiesel, both of which represent the first generation of biofuel technology. Biodiesel is a liquid fuel produced from renewable sources, such as new and used vegetable oils and animal fats and is a cleaner-burning replacement for petroleum- based diesel fuel.

Statement 3 is correct: Biodiesel is nontoxic and biodegradable and is produced by combining alcohol with vegetable oil, animal fat, or recycled cooking grease.

 

Q5. Consider the following statements:

1. Preservatives prevent the growth of microbes in edible commodity.
2. Pasteurised milk can be consumed without boiling.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S5.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct: Salts and edible oils are the common chemicals generally used to check the growth of microorganisms in foods itoms. Therefore, they are called preservatives. Salt or acid preservatives are added to pickles to prevent the attack of microbes. Sodium benzoate and sodium metabisulphite are common preservatives. These are also used in jams and squashes to check their spoilage. Dimethyl Sulfoxide is a highly polar organic liquid that is used widely as a chemical solvent and a free radical scavenger. It shows a range of pharmacological activity including analgesia and anti-inflammation.

Statement 2 is correct: Pasteurised milk can be consumed without boiling as it is free from harmful microbes. The milk is heated to about 700C for 15 to 30 seconds and then suddenly chilled and stored. By doing so, it prevents the growth of microbes. This process was discovered by Louis Pasteur. It is called pasteurisation.

 

Q6. Consider the following statements:

1. The Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister aids and advises the President in the exercise of his functions.
2. The Council of Ministers can be removed from office by Lok Sabhaif a vote of no-confidence is adopted by it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S6.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct: The Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister aids and advises the President in the exercise of his functions. The Council of Ministers consists of two levels of Ministers– Cabinet Ministers and Ministers of State. The President appoints the Ministers on the advice of the Prime Minister.

Statement 2 is correct: The Council of Ministers consists of all category of Ministers, while the Cabinet is a smaller group consisting of senior Ministers. The Council of Ministers as a whole rarely meets. It is the Cabinet which determines the policies and programmes of the Government. All the Ministers are collectively as well as individually responsible to the Lok Sabha. The Council of Ministers can be removed from officeby Lok Sabha if a vote of no-confidence is adopted by it. The Cabinet formulates the external and internal policies of the government. It coordinates the working of various departments. It has full control over the national finance. A money bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha by a Minister.

Q7. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Finance Commission:

1. It is constituted by President after every five years.
2. It is a quasi-judicial body. 3. Its recommendations are binding in nature.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

S7.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Article

280 provides for a Finance Commission as a quasi-judicial body. It is constituted by the President every fifth year or even earlier. It is required to make recommendations to the President on the following matters:

• The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes to be shared between the Centre and the states, and the allocation between the states, the respective shares of such proceeds.
• The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid to the states by the Centre (i.e., out of the Consolidated Fund of India).
• The measures needed to augment the Consolidated fund of a state to supplement the resources of the panchayats and the municipalities in the state on the basis of the recommendations made by the State Finance Commission.
• Any other matter referred to it by the President in the interests of sound finance. Statement 3 is incorrect. The recommendations made by the Finance Commission are only of advisory nature and hence, not binding on the government. It is up to the Union government to implement its recommendations on granting money to the states.

 

Q8. Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding Western Coastal Plains of India?

1. As compared to eastern coastal plain, the western coastal plain is broader and is an example of an emergent coast.
2. It has less number of ports and harbours as compared to eastern coastal plain.
3. It is broader in the middle and get narrower towards North and South.
4. The rivers flowing through this coastal plain do not form any delta.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

 

S8.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Statement 1 is incorrect: As compared to western coastal plain, the eastern coastal plain is broader and is an example of an emergent coast.

Statement 2 is incorrect: It has more number of ports and harbours as compared to eastern coastal plain. Statement 3 is incorrect: It is broader in the North and South and is narrower in the middle. Western Coastal Plains of India As compared to western coastal plain, the eastern coastal plain is broader and is an example of an emergent coast. It has more number of ports and harbours as compared to eastern coastal plain. It is broader in the North and South and is narrower in the middle. The rivers Á owing through this coastal plain do not form any delta.

 

Q9. Which of the following statements regarding the features of the Himalayas is correct?

(a) Himadri range terminates abruptly at the syntaxial bends.

(b) Lesser Himalayas are the only Himalayan range having northern slope steeper than the southern slope.

(c) Shivalik range is completely absent in Arunachal Pradesh.

(d) Shivalik range is very broad between the valleys of Tista River and Raidak River.

 

S9.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Himalayan range All the three ranges have steeper southern slope and gentler northern slope Shiwalik Range, also known as Outer Himalayas, is located in between the Great Plains and Lesser Himalayas. The southern slopes are steep while the northern slopesare gentle. The width of the Shiwaliks varies from 50 km in Himachal Pradesh to less than 15 km in Arunachal Pradesh. Thus, Shivalik is narrow in Arunachal Pradesh but not absent. It is absent between the valleys of Tista River and Raidak River. Middle or the Lesser Himalaya is in between the Shiwaliks in the south and the Greater Himalayas in the north. They have steep, bare southern slopes and gentler, forest covered northern slopes. The Great Himalaya is also known as Inner Himalaya, Central Himalaya or Himadri. It terminates abruptly at the syntaxial bends. One in the Nanga Parbat in north-west and the other in the Namcha Barwa in the north-east.

 

Q10.Match the following wetlands with their places these are located

Wetland                                                 Place

1. Keshopur-Miani Wetland                      Uttar Pradesh
2. Nawabganj Wetland                                Punjab
3. Ashtamudi Wetland                           Maharshtra
4. Nandur Madhmeshwar                            Kerala

Choose the correct code from below

• 1A-2B-3C-D4
• 1B-2A-3D-4C
• 1D-2A-3B-4C
• 1C-2D-3A-4B

 

S10.Ans. (b)

Sol.

There are 47 Ramsar sites in India. These are wetlands deemed to be of “international importance” under the Ramsar Convention.

Maharashtra’s first Ramsar site, the Nandur Madhmeshwar bird sanctuary; three more from Punjab (in Keshopur-Miani, Beas Conservation Reserve, and Nangal); and six more from Uttar Pradesh (in Nawabganj, Parvati Agra, Saman, Samaspur, Sandi, and Sarsai Nawar) were added in 2020.

Ashtamudi Wetland is in Kerala and it has been convened the status of wetland since 19 August 2002.

Additional info:

The wetlands that received the latest tags in 2021 are Bhindawas Wildlife Sanctuary and Sultanpur National Park from Haryana; and Thol Lake Wildlife Sanctuary and Wadhvana Wetland from Gujarat

 

Q11. Many wetland plants have one or more morphological and anatomical adaptations that allow them to tolerate soil saturation and anoxia for short to long time periods. Which of the following adaptations they have-

3. Absence of aerenchyma
4. Presence of lenticels,
5. adventitious or stem roots growing above the water

Select the correct code from below:

• 1 and 2
• 2 and 3
• 1 and 3
• 1,2 and 3

 

S11.Ans. (b)

Sol.

Many wetland plants have one or more morphological and anatomical adaptations that allow them to tolerate soil saturation and anoxia for short to long time periods, primarily by allowing more oxygen to reach the plant root system. Key morphological adaptations include (a) aerenchyma, air spaces in roots and stems that allow oxygen diffusion from stems above water to roots; (b) hypertrophied lenticels, enlarged openings in stems and roots that allow gas exchange between internal plant tissue and the atmosphere; (c) adventitious or stem roots developed above the water line; and (d) the ability to grow new roots under anoxic conditions.

In black mangrove (Avicennia), pneumatophores, vertically growing air roots, absorb oxygen that is transported to the connected, submerged, lateral growing roots.

 

Q12. Consider the following statements regarding article 19

1. This provides the freedom to every citizen to move freely throughout the territory of the country without any restriction.
2. It provides the right to move out of the country and the right to come back to the country
3. The state can’t impose restrictions on this right to freedom of movement of citizens in any part of the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• 1 only
• 2 and 3 only
• 1 and 2
• 1, 2 and 3

 

S12.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Article 19 (Freedom of Movement)

This freedom entitles every citizen to move freely throughout the territory of the country. (Hence statement 1 is correct)

The freedom of movement has two dimensions, viz, internal (right to move inside the country), and external (right to move out of the country and right to come back to the country). Article 19 protects only the first dimension. The second dimension is dealt with by Article 21 (right to life and personal liberty. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)

Further,

The state can impose reasonable restrictions. The grounds for imposing reasonable restrictions on this freedom are two, namely, the interests of the general public and the protection of interests of any

Scheduled tribe. The entry of outsiders in tribal areas is restricted to protect the distinctive culture, language, customs, and manners of scheduled tribes and to safeguard their traditional vocation and properties against exploitation. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect)

 

Q13. With reference to the national party, which one of the following statements is not correct?

• A registered party is recognized as a national party if it wins 2% of seats in the Lok Sabha from at least three different states.
• The Election Commission of India recently declared the National People’s Party as a national party.
• A registered party is recognized as a national party if it gets recognition as a state party in two states.
• The NPP is recognised as a State party in Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya and Nagaland.

 

S13.Ans. (c)

Sol.

The Election Commission of India recently declared the National People’s Party as a national party.  The NPP is recognised as a State party in Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya and Nagaland. A registered party is recognised as a national party only if it fulfils any one of the following three conditions:

1. A party wins 2% of seats in the Lok Sabha from at least three different states.
2. At a general election to Lok Sabha or Legislative Assembly, the party polls 6% of votes in any four or more states and in addition it wins four Lok Sabha seats.
3. A party gets recognition as a state party in four states.

 

Q14.Consider the following statements regarding National Green Tribunal (NGT),

1. The Chairman of the tribunal is required to be a retired judge of the Supreme Court of India.
2. The Tribunal is bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
3. The tribunal is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of the filing of the same.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1,2 and 3

 

S14.Ans. (c)

Sol.

National Green Tribunal

• It was established in 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010, passed by the Central

Government.

The Tribunal is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally

within 6 months of the filing of the same.

Principles of Justice adopted by NGT

• The NGT is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 but shall be guided by principles of natural justice.
• NGT is also not bound by the rules of evidence as enshrined in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.

 

Q15. Which of the following recommended that recommended that it is “necessary to provide for impeachment of the Governor on the same lines as provided for impeachment of the President in Article 61 of the Constitution” and that the “Governor should not be burdened with positions and powers which are not envisaged by the Constitution and which may expose the office to controversies or public criticism” like the posts of the Chancellors of the universities.

• Punchhi Commission
• Sarkaria Commission
• JVP committee
• Malimath Commission

 

S15.Ans.(a)

Sol.

On the appointment of Governors, while the Sarkaria Commission had recommended that the chief ministers be also consulted on the issue, the Punchhi panel states that the “Governor must not have participated in active politics at the Centre or State or local level for at least a couple of years before his appointment”.

The Punchhi Commission also recommended that it is “necessary to provide for impeachment of the Governor on the same lines as provided for impeachment of the President in Article 61 of the Constitution” and that the “Governor should not be burdened with positions and powers which are not envisaged by the Constitution and which may expose the office to controversies or public criticism” like the posts of the Chancellors of the universities.

 

Q16.Consider the following statements regarding

1. Article 163 of the Constitution says that there shall be a council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advice the Governor in the exercise of his function.
2. The Constitution does not permit the Governor to summon the House on its own discretion

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S16.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Governor’s power to summon the assembly Article 163 of the Constitution says that there shall be a council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advice the Governor in the exercise of his function. Article 174 of the Constitution says that the Governor shall from time to time summon the House or each House of the Legislature of the State to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit. The provision also puts on the Governor the responsibility of ensuring that the House is summoned at least once every six months. The Constitution permits the Governor to summon the House on recommendation of the Cabinet. But it also adds that she or he would not need their advice if the Constitution requires her or him to carry out any function at her/his discretion.

 

Q17. Consider the following statements regarding News Broadcasting & Digital Standards Authority (NBDSA)’

1. It is a statutory body constituted under telegraph act 1885.
2. It has the power to initiate proceedings on its own and take action in respect to any matter falling within its regulations
3. It deals withethical, operational and  regulatory issues affecting news and current-affairs channels.
4. It works under the aegis of under the department of communication

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

1. 3 and 4
2. 1,2 and 3
3. 2 and 3
4. 1,2,3 and 4

 

S17.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The NBDSA is an independent body set up by the News Broadcasters & Digital Association (NBDA), which serves as a representative of private television news, current affairs and digital broadcasters.

It was established by leading Indian news broadcasters on 3 July 2007  as the News Broadcasters Association (NBA). In August 2021, News Broadcasters Association was renamed as News Broadcasters & Digital Association after inclusion of digital media news broadcasters in the association. The Authority may initiate proceedings on its own and issue notice or take action in respect to any matter which falls within its regulations. This can also be through complaints referred to the Authority by the Ministry of Information & Broadcasting or any other governmental body, or by anyone else via its website

 

Q18. Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to the “GigaMesh” which has sometimes seen in the news recently ?

(a) It is a web-based portal for Issuing of Licenses and Registration certificates PM-WANI scheme

(b) It is a multi-beam E-band Radio that is able to communicate from one tower to multiple towers simultaneously

(c) It is the new brand name of National Optic Fibre Network to facilitate the delivery of e-governance

(d) A flagship fiber grid program to provide internet access to improve education and health facilities

 

S18.Ans.(b)

Sol.

GigaMesh is the world’s first multi-beam E-band Radio that can communicate simultaneously from one tower to multiple towers while delivering multi GBPS throughput to each of these towers. It was developed by Astrome, supported by AI & Robotics Technology Park (ARTPARK), the Technology Innovation Hub (TIH) at the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), which aims to chart the future for millimeter wave wireless communication on Earth and in space. A single GigaMesh device can provide up to forty links with 2+ Gbps capacity, communicating up to a range of ten kilometers. This flexibility in range makes it suitable for both decongesting the dense urban networks and extending rural coverage. So, Option (b) is correct.

 

Q19. Consider the following statements :

1. It is used by police to check over-speeding of vehicles
2. It is used at airports to guide aircraft
3. Doctors use it to study heartbeats and blood flow in different parts of the body

The above statements are the applications of

(a) Law of Conservation of Momentum

(b) Newton’s third law of motion

(c) Doppler effect

(d) Frictional force

 

S19.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The Doppler effect is the apparent change in frequency between when sound or light waves leave a source and when they arrive at an observer, caused by the relative velocity of the observer and the wave source.

Application of Doppler effect :

The change in frequency caused by a moving object due to the Doppler Effect is used to measure their velocities in diverse areas such as military, medical science, astrophysics, etc. Police also use it to check the over-speeding of vehicles. A sound wave or electromagnetic wave of known frequency is sent toward a moving object. Some waves are reflected from the object, and the monitoring station detects its frequency. This change in frequency is called the Doppler shift. It is used at airports to guide aircraft and in the military to detect enemy aircraft. Astrophysicists use it to measure the velocities of stars. Doctors use it to study heartbeats and blood flow in different body parts. Here they use ultrasonic waves, which is called sonography in common practice. Ultrasonic waves enter the body of the person; some are reflected and give information about the motion of blood and pulsation of heart valves, as well as the pulsation of the fetus’s heart. In the case of the heart, the picture generated is called an echocardiogram.

 

Q20. Consider the following statements with reference to Digital Embossing technology:

1. It emits fewer pollutants compared to traditional printing technologies.
2. This innovative technology has been introduced, designed and implemented in India for the first time by Survey of India.
3. Recently it has been used to produce Braille Maps for Visually challenged students

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S20.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Digital embossing technology is a technology that eliminates the need for printing plates, moulds, chemicals, and solvents, emitting no pollutants or waste and reducing overall energy usage than traditional printing technologies. This innovative technology has been introduced, designed and implemented first time in India by National Atlas & Thematic Mapping Organisation (NATMO), functioning as the Attached Office of the Department of Science & Technology not by the Survey of India. Braille Maps were produced for visually challenged students from all over the country which was developed using Digital Embossing Technology, enabling them for ease of use, user friendly, better feeling and durable in terms of quality. The soft laminated maps are placed onto the digital embossing devices with perfect registration for spot UV coating. Soft copy maps are masked in the area of interest for embossing. AI technology is used for 3D embossing to get the final Braille Maps.

 

Q21. Arrange the following faults of the Himalayas in north-south direction:

1. Main Central Thrust
2. Himalayan Frontal Thrust
3. Main Boundary Thrust

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1-2-3

(b) 1-3-2

(c) 2-3-1

(d) 3-1-2

 

S21.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option (b) is correct.

The correct order is – Main Central Thrust- Main Boundary Thrust- Himalayan Frontal Thrust. Active faults of the Himalayas The geology of the Himalayas on its southern side is characterized by three major tectonic units: The Main Central Thrust (MCT), the Main Boundary Thrust (MBT) and the Himalayan Frontal Thrust (HFT) or the Main Frontal Thrust (MFT). These structures essentially separate the different rocky formations that characterize the different stages of the Himalayan outcrop—the higher Himalayas, the lesser Himalayas, and the sub-Himalayan Shivalik range. The highest and the oldest of these is the MCT, which is a north-dipping fault and marks the tectonic contact between the higher and the lesser Himalayas. The lesser and the sub-Himalayas are separated by the MBT. The HFT or the MFT constitutes the southern-most and the youngest thrust.

 

Q22. Consider the following statements :

1. Market Transformation for Energy Efficiency (MTEE) scheme aims at improving efficiency in energy-intensive sectors.
2. PAT( Perform Achieve and Trade ) scheme is a flagship program of the Bureau of Energy Efficiency.
3. PAT scheme helps in the shift towards energy-efficient appliances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

 

S22.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Market Transformation for Energy Efficiency (MTEE) scheme is one of the four initiatives of the National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency that aims to accelerate the shift to energy-efficient appliances in designated sectors through innovative measures to make the products more affordable. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) is the flagship program under the mission implemented by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) under the aegis of the Ministry of Power.So, Statement 2 is correct. PAT scheme is a regulatory instrument to reduce specific energy consumption in energy-intensive industries, with an associated market-based mechanism to enhance cost effectiveness through certification of excess energy saving, which can be traded. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

 

Q23. Consider the following statements :

1. The Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) is a voluntary partnership of governments and civil society organizations to reduce short-lived climate pollutants.
2. CCAC focuses on carbon dioxide, methane, chlorofluorocarbons, and tropospheric ozone. 3. CCAC’s vision is to stabilize the climate with warming limited to 1.5°C and drastically reduce air pollution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

 

S23.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Short-lived climate pollutants are powerful climate forcers that remain in the atmosphere for a much shorter period of time than carbon dioxide (CO2), yet their potential to warm the atmosphere can be many times greater. Certain short-lived climate pollutants are also dangerous air pollutants that have harmful effects on people, ecosystems, and agricultural productivity. CCAC focuses on the short-lived climate pollutants black carbon, methane, tropospheric ozone, and hydrofluorocarbons which are the most important contributors to the man-made global greenhouse effect after carbon dioxide, responsible for up to 45% of current global warming which is associated with refrigeration, diesel-fueled vehicles, and solid-fuel cooking fires. But the chlorofluorocarbons are not covered under this coalition and also Carbondioxide is not covered as it is a long-lived pollutant. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

 

Q24. With reference to Global Warming potential (GWP)Which of the following statement is correct?

• The Global Warming Potential (GWP) was developed to compare the global warming impacts in different countries.
• The GWP is a measure of the heat absorbed over a given time period relative to CO2 due to emissions of gases.
• The GTP (Global Temperature Potential) is a measure of the temperature change at the end of that time period relative to methane.
• Methane takes more time to break down in the atmosphere than carbon dioxide.

 

S24.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Global Warming Potential (GWP) has been developed as a metric to compare (relative to another gas) the ability of each greenhouse gas to trap heat in the atmosphere. Carbon dioxide (CO2) was chosen as the reference gas to be consistent with the guidelines of the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC). Thus, it was not developed to compare the global warming impacts in different countries but to compare the global warming impacts of different gases. So, Statement A is not correct.

Each gas has a specific global warming potential (GWP), which allows comparisons of the amount of energy the emissions of 1 ton of a gas will absorb over a given time period, usually a 100-year averaging time, compared with the emissions of 1 ton of CO2. So, Statement B is correct.

Unlike the GWP, which measures the heat absorbed over a given time period due to gas emissions, the Global Temperature Potential (GTP) measures the temperature change at the end of that time period relative to CO2 but not to Methane. The calculation of the GTP is more complicated than that for the GWP, based on models of the response of the climate system to increased greenhouse gas concentrations, that is, climate sensitivity and the amount of time it takes the system to respond, especially on the ocean’s capacity to absorb the heat. So, Statement C is not correct.

Carbon dioxide remains in the atmosphere for hundreds to thousands of years. This means that even if emissions were immediately and dramatically reduced, they would not affect the climate until later in the century. But it takes only about a decade for Methane to break down. So, reducing methane emissions now would have an impact in the near term and is critical for helping keep the world on a path to 1.5°C. Thus, Methane takes only less time to break down in the atmosphere than carbon dioxide. So, Statement D is not correct.

 

Q25. Consider the following statements with reference to the Rowlatt Act Satyagraha :

1. It was completely a non-violent satyagraha throughout India.
2. The Satyagraha Sabha concentrated mainly on publishing propaganda literature and collecting signatures on the Satyagraha pledge.
3. In Ahmedabad, the government enforced martial law.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S25.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Satyagraha was to be launched on April 6, 1919, but before it could be launched, there were large-scale violent, anti-British demonstrations in Calcutta, Bombay, Delhi, Ahmedabad, etc. Especially in Punjab, the situation became so very explosive due to wartime repression, forcible recruitments, and ravages of . 30 disease that the Army had to be called in. April 1919 saw the biggest and the most violent anti-British upsurge since 1857. So, Statement 1 is not correct. The entire agitation against the Rowlatt act proved its unorganized nature whereby the Satyagraha Sabha of Mahatma Gandhi concentrated mainly on publishing propaganda literature and collecting signatures on the Satyagraha pledge. So, Statement 2 is correct. Mahatma Gandhi left Bombay on April 8 to promote the Satyagraha agitation in Delhi and Punjab. But, as his entry into Punjab was considered dangerous by the government, Gandhi was removed from the train he was traveling at Palwal near Delhi and taken back to Bombay. The news of Gandhi’s arrest precipitated the crisis. The situation became tense in Bombay, and violence broke out in Ahmedabad and Virangam. In Ahmedabad, the government enforced martial law. In particular, the Punjab region and Amritsar witnessed the worst scenes of violence. So, Statement 3 is correct.