Odisha Civil Services Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | March 4th Week 2023

Q1. Which of the statement given below is not correct?

1. It is a mosquito-borne flavivirus that was first identified in monkeys.
2. It can cause Guillain-Barré syndrome in infants.
3. There is licensed vaccine available to prevent Zika virus infection.
4. A person can be co-infected with Zika virus and Dengue.

 

S1.Ans.(c)

Sol.

• Zika virus is a mosquito-borne flavivirus that was first identified in Uganda in 1947 in monkeys. It was later identified in humans in Uganda and the United Republic of Tanzania. So, statement A is correct.
• Zika virus infection during pregnancy can cause infants to be born with microcephaly and other congenital malformations, known as congenital Zika syndrome. It also causes complications of pregnancy including preterm birth and miscarriage. An increased risk of neurologic complications is associated with Zika virus infection in adults and children, including Guillain-Barré syndrome, neuropathy and myelitis. So, statement B is correct.
• No vaccine is yet available for the prevention or treatment of Zika virus infection. Symptoms are treated and patients are advised to take precautions. So, statement C is incorrect.
• There are numerous reports of Dengue (DENV) and Zika Virus (ZIKV) co-infection and ZIKV and chikungunya virus (CHIKV) coinfection among humans. So, statement D is correct.

 

Q2.Consider the following statements regarding SWAMIH investment fund’

7. It is a social impact fund which is formed for completing stressed and stalled residential project
8. The Fund is sponsored by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
9. Brownfield projects are excluded under this

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 only
4. 1,2 and 3

 

S2.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Recently, The Special Window for Affordable and Mid-Income Housing (SWAMIH) Investment Fund I has raised Rs 15,530 crore so far to provide priority debt financing for the completion of stressed, brownfield and Real Estate Regulatory Authority (RERA)-registered residential projects that fall in the affordable, mid-income housing category. Therefore it is a social impact fund specifically formed for completing stressed and stalled residential projects.

The Fund is sponsored by the Ministry of Finance, Government of India, and is managed by SBICAP Ventures Ltd., a State Bank Group company. According to the Finance Ministry, SWAMIH Fund has one of the largest domestic real estate private equity teams focused only on funding and monitoring the completion of stressed housing projects.

 

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding UN High Seas Treaty

1. It is also referred to as the ‘Paris Agreement for the Ocean’.
2. The treaty is legally binding and aims to protect marine life in international waters.

Select the correct answer using the code below

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S3.Ans.(c)

Sol.

About UN High Seas Treaty: • The UN High Seas Treaty is the first-ever treaty to protect the world’s oceans outside national boundaries. • It is also referred to as the ‘Paris Agreement for the Ocean’. • The treaty is legally binding and aims to protect marine life in international waters. • Its goal is to establish protected areas covering 30% of the seas by 2030, a pledge made by countries at the UN biodiversity conference in 2022. • The treaty provides a legal framework for creating marine protected areas (MPAs) to safeguard wildlife and share genetic resources of the high seas. • It covers environmental assessments to evaluate potential damage from commercial activities, like deep-sea mining. • The treaty establishes a conference of the parties (CoP) that meets periodically to hold member states accountable for governance and biodiversity issues. • Signatories of the treaty pledge to share ocean resources. • The UN High Seas Treaty is built on the legacy of the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), the last international agreement on ocean protection signed in 1982. UNCLOS established an area called the high seas.

 

Q4. With reference to ‘Scrub Typhus’ consider the following statements:

1. It is a viral disease.
2. It is a major public health threat in South and Southeast Asia.
3. There is no specific vaccine available to treat Scrub Typhus.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 only
4. 1,2 and 3

 

S4.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Scrub Typhus, also known as bush typhus, is a disease caused by a bacteria called Orientia tsutsugamushi. It is a major public health threat in South and Southeast Asia. There is no specific vaccine available to treat Scrub Typhus

 

Q5. Consider the following statements with reference to Fincluvation :

1. It is an initiative with start-ups to co-create and innovate solutions for financial inclusion.
2. It was launched by the Department of Economic affairs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S5.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Fincluvation is a joint initiative of India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) and Fintech Startup community to cocreate and innovate solutions for financial inclusion. It is an Industry first initiative to create a powerful platform to mobilize the startup community towards building meaningful financial products aimed at financial inclusion. So, Statement 1 is correct. India Post Payments Bank (IPPB), a 100% government-owned entity under the Department of Posts (DoP), announced the launch of Fincluvation. So, Statement 2 is not correct

 

Q6. Consider the following statements with reference to the All-India Household Consumer Expenditure Survey :

1. It aims at generating estimates of household Monthly Per Capita Consumer Expenditure.
2. It is usually conducted by the National Statistical Office.
3. Usually, it is conducted every two years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S6.Ans.(c)

Sol.

All-India Household Consumer Expenditure Survey was carried out by the National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. The Consumer Expenditure Survey generates estimates of household Monthly Per Capita Consumer Expenditure (MPCE). It is designed to collect information regarding expenditure on the consumption of goods and services (food and non-food) consumed by households. The results will include separate data sets for rural and urban parts, splice spending patterns for each State and Union Territory, and different socio-economic groups. So, statement 1 and 2 are correct. . 35 The All-India Household Consumer Expenditure Survey is usually conducted at quinquennial intervals (every five years) by the National Statistical Office. The last Survey was conducted from July 2017 to June 2018. So, statement 3 is not correct

 

Q7. World Governance Indicators’ sometimes seen in the news recently, is released by :

(a) World Economic Forum

(b) International Monetary Fund

(c) Inter-Parliamentary Union

(d) World Bank

 

S7.Ans.(d)

Sol.

The Worldwide Governance Indicators (WGI) project which is released by the World Bank, reports aggregate and individual governance indicators for over 200 countries and territories and it has six dimensions of governance such as, ¾ Voice and Accountability ¾ Political Stability and Absence of Violence/Terrorism ¾ Government Effectiveness ¾ Regulatory Quality ¾ Rule of Law ¾ Control of Corruption These aggregate indicators combine the views of a large number of enterprise, citizen, and expert survey respondents in industrial and developing countries. So, Option (d) is correct

 

Q8. With reference to Zero Tillage, consider the following statements :

1. It is one of the principles of Conservation Agriculture.
2. It slows down evaporation.
3. It can be an alternative to burning and tilling land between the rice harvest and wheat planting

season.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S8.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Conservation Agriculture (CA) is a farming system that can prevent losses of arable land while regenerating degraded lands. It enhances biodiversity and natural biological processes above and below the ground surface, which contribute to increased water and nutrient use efficiency and improved and sustained crop production. Three principles of Conservation Agriculture are: 3⁄4 Minimum mechanical soil disturbance (i.e., no-tillage) 3⁄4 Permanent soil organic cover 3⁄4 Species diversification So, Statement 1 is correct. In Zero Tillage or No-Tilling farming practices, crop residue on the surface field is left over without ploughing to create more soil nutrients, and the organic materials or the plant residues that are left behind in no-tillage capture water, and this help keep the soil moist and minimize the evaporative effects of the wind and sun absorbs water in the soil or it facilitates the field’s easier absorption of water or which lowers evaporation and reduces the water runoff, and irrigation efficiency is improved. So, Statement 2 is correct. Zero tillage as an innovative approach provides farmers with a mechanized alternative to burning and tilling land between the rice harvest and wheat planting season as the rice straw was burned in the fields by farmers after harvest as the fastest and cheapest way to prepare the land for wheat planting. The zero-tillage approach offers to sow wheat directly into paddies without ploughing the field using innovative machinery that can chop the leftover rice stalks, spread the residue evenly as mulch, and plant seeds into the soil without the need for clearing it. So, Statement 3 is correct.

 

Q9. Consider the following statements with reference to the Project Dolphin :

1. It is one of the activities planned under Arth Ganga.
2. It does not cover the dolphins living in the seas.
3. It is handled by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S9.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Project Dolphin is the Special conservation programme for Gangetic Dolphin, the national aquatic animal and indicator species for the river Ganga spread over several states. It is one of the activities planned under Arth Ganga. And it will also give a boost to biodiversity and also create employment opportunities. So, Statement 1 is correct. Project Dolphin will focus on both types of dolphins living in the rivers and the seas. It will involve the conservation of Dolphins and aquatic habitats through the use of modern technology, especially in enumeration and anti-poaching activities. The project will engage the fishermen and other river/oceandependent populations and will strive for improving the livelihood of the local communities. The conservation of dolphins will also envisage activities that will also help in the mitigation of pollution in rivers and oceans. So, Statement 2 is not correct The Project Dolphin is being “handled” by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, and they have “prepared” and “submitted” a Cabinet note recently. So, Statement 3 is correct.

 

Q10. Consider the following statements :

1. It is dubbed as Asia’s largest teak and sal forest.
2. It was the only forest in India guarded by the central forces to protect valuable teak trees from

smugglers.

3. It is located near the Chilika lake and Salia dam.

The above statements are about which of the below forest area ?

(a) Khandapada forest

(b) Chandaka Forest

(c) Phulbani Forest

(d) Barbara forest

 

S10.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Khandapada Forest Range (Park) is located in Sanpada, Odisha. The characteristics mentioned above are not the features of Khandapada Forest. These are features of the Barabara Forest. So, Option (a) is not correct. Chandaka Sanctuary Nestled on the Khurdha uplands of the’ North-Eastern Ghats’ biotic region, Chandaka forest is a relic of wildland that once extended all over Bhubaneswar. Spread over 193.39 sq. km of rolling table land and small sprawling hillocks of Khurdha and Cuttack Districts, it is a wildlife sanctuary since August 1982. The sanctuary, literally abutting the capital city of Odisha, is the pachyderm country. So, Option (b) is not correct. Phulbani Forestspreads over Phulbani Sub-division & part of Balliguda Sub-Division in the district of Kandhamal, Odisha. Boudh Forest Division bounds this Division in the North, Ghumusur North Division in the South, Nayagarh Forest Division in the East & Balliguda Forest Division in the West. Pulbani forest doesn’t have the features of the above statements. So, Option (c) is not correct. Dubbed as Asia’s largest teak and sal forest, the Barbara forest in Odisha was perhaps the only forest in India guarded by the jawans of the Central Reserve Police Force (for protecting forest resources). It is close to Chilika Lake and the Salia Dam, and the Barbara forest has remained unexplored. Its teak plants are about 80-ft tall with a circumference of 10 feet each, rarely found anywhere else in the country. Teak species from 10 different States are also preserved here. So, Option (d) is correct.

 

Q11. Consider the following statements regarding the Forward Policy of the British with respect to Afghanistan:

1. It was a precursor to the Anglo-Afghan war of 1838, advocated by Lord Metcalfe.
2. It implied India should react aggressively to any Russian attack on the boundary of British India. 3. It led to a Tripartite Treaty between the British, Raja Ranjit Singh and Shah Suja, enabling the armed help of the Sikhs to Shah Suja’s claim to the throne.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S11.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Lord Auckland, the Governor-General in 1836, looked at Sindh from the perspective of saving India from a possible Russian invasion and wished to obtain a counteracting influence over the Afghans. So, Statement 1 is not correct. Auckland who came to India as the governor-general in 1836, advocated a forward policy. This implied that the Company government in India had to take initiatives to protect the boundary of British India from a probable Russian attack.It is a preventive measure and not reactive. So, Statement 2 is not correct. The Amir of Afghanistan, Dost Mohammed, wanted British friendship but made it conditional on the British helping him recover Peshawar from the Sikhs. This prompted the British government to go ahead with the forward policy, and a Tripartite Treaty (1838) between the British, Sikhs and Shah Shuja. So, Statement 3 is correct.

 

Q12. Consider the following statements regarding the Police system in Colonial India:

1. Cornwallis organized a regular police force by setting up Faujdar Thanas and asked Zamindars to assist Faujdars in suppressing Dacoits.
2. Bentinck abolished the office of the Superintendent of Police and made the collector the head of the police force.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S12.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Faujdar was a military officer (whatever might be the rank) in charge of an army under the command of chief during the pre-Mughal period. Warren Hastings restored the institution of Faujdars or military outposts in 1774 AD and asked the Zamindars to assist them in suppressing dacoits, violence and disorder. So, Statement 1 is not correct. Bentinck, the governor-general, 1828-35, abolished the office of the SP. The collector/magistrate was now to head the police force in his jurisdiction, and the commissioner in each division was to act as the SP. This arrangement resulted in a badly organised police force, putting a heavy burden on the collector/magistrate. Presidency towns were the first to have the duties of collector/magistrate separated. Presidency towns were the first to have the duties of collector/magistrate separated. So, Statement 2 is correct.

 

Q13. To Whom did the term “Mirasidar” refer in British India?

(a) Hereditary landholders

(b) Tenant holding patta

(c) Village Servant

(d) Local accountants

 

S13.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The word Miras means land held under hereditary title; the right of hereditary occupation. Miras-Ijara means base or settlement of land to be enjoyed hereditary. Thus, Mirasdar is used as title for holders of hereditary land rights. Mirasdar was an important landed class in central and southern India. It was a pre-colonial revenue collecting officer which has patronised by the colonial state too. In time it emerged to be a very powerful agency both for the colonial administration as well as a basis of emerging middle class.So, option (a) is correct.

 

Q14. Consider the following statements with reference to Lab-made diamonds :

1. Lab-made diamonds are developed from a mixture of carbon and lithium placed in a microwave

chamber and superheated into a glowing plasma ball.

2. They are costlier than mined diamonds.
3. India leads in the chemical vapour decomposition technology for producing lab-made diamonds,

which are certified as the purest type of diamonds.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

 

S14.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Lab-made diamonds are man-made diamonds developed from a carbon seed placed in a microwave chamber and superheated into a glowing plasma ball. The process creates particles that crystallize into diamonds in weeks. The only difference between lab-grown diamonds and natural diamond is that instead of digging the earth, it is created in a lab under a machine. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

Lab-made diamond is a tech-based diamond manufacturing that directly cuts down the capital and labor- intensive factors of the mined diamond chain. So lab-grown diamonds cost 30-40 percent cheaper than mined despite being 100 percent diamond. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

There are two types of lab-grown diamonds — Chemical Vapour Decomposition (CVD) and High-Pressure, High-Temperature (HPHT) which are used in the USA and India whereby; India specializes and leads in the (CVD) technology that is certified as the purest type of diamonds. So, Statement 3 is correct.

 

Q15. Consider the following statements :

1. BPaL is an oral regimen for treating extensively drug-resistant tuberculosis.
2. TB is a potentially serious infectious parasitic disease.
3. TB Alliance is a not-for-profit organization dedicated to the discovery, development and delivery

of affordable tuberculosis drugs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

 

S15.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Bedaquiline, pretomanid and linezolid (BPaL) is a new all-oral, 6-month regimen comprised of bedaquiline, the new drug pretomanid and linezolid, endorsed by the World Health Organization (WHO) for use under operational research conditions in patients with extensively drug-resistant tuberculosis. So, Statement 1 is correct. Tuberculosis (TB) is a potentially serious disease caused by a bacter

ium called Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The bacteria usually attack the lungs, but TB bacteria can attack any part of the body, such as the kidney, spine, and brain. The germs spread from person to person through the air. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

TB Alliance is a not-for-profit product development partnership (PDP) uniquely positioned to leverage a global network of public and private partners to advance TB drug development most efficiently. PDPs build partnerships between the public, private, academic, and philanthropic sectors to drive the development of new products for diseases of poverty. So, Statement 3 is correct.

 

 

Q16. With reference to Agni-V, consider the following statements:

1. It is a Surface to Air Ballistic Missile.
2. It uses a three-stage solid-fuelled engine.
3. It is capable of striking targets at ranges above 5,000 kilometers with a very high degree of

accuracy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

 

S16.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Agni-V is a Surface-to-Surface Intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) and not a Surface-to-Air ballistic missile developed by the Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO) and Bharat Dynamics Limited. Agni-V is a fire-and-forget missile that, once launched, cannot be stopped except by an interceptor missile. It was developed as part of the Integrated Guided Missile Development Program (IGMDP). So, Statement 1 is not correct

The missile uses a three-stage solid-fuelled engine and can carry a nuclear warhead of about 1.5 tonnes. It can reach an exceptional Mach 24 speed of 29,401 km/h, 18,269 mph or 8.1670 km/s. So, Statement 2 is correct According to the ministry of defence, Agni-V is capable of striking targets at ranges up to 5,000 km with high accuracy. So, Statement 3 is correct.

 

Q17. Consider the following statements with reference to the Andaman and Nicobar Islands:

1. It consists of more than 500 islands.
2. They are separated by the Nine-Degree Channel.
3. They are endowed with tropical rainforests.
4. Paddy is the main food crop, mostly cultivated in the Andaman group of Islands.

How many statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one statement

(b) Only two statements

(c) Only three statements

(d) All four statements

 

S17.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Andaman & Nicobar Islands comprise 572 Islands (including islets & rocks) and has a geographical area of 8,249 sq km, constituting 0.25% of the country’s total geographical area. So statement 1 is correct

The Andaman islands and Nicobar islands are the two groups separated by the 10° N Channel, whereby the Andaman lies to the north of this latitude and the Nicobar to the south. So statement 2 is not correct

Andaman & Nicobar Islands support very luxuriant and rich vegetation due to tropical hot and humid climate with abundant rains. As per the Champion & Seth Classification of Forest Types (1968), the forests in Andaman & Nicobar Islands belong to four Type Groups i.e.

• Tropical Wet Evergreen,
• Tropical Semi-Evergreen,
• Tropical Moist Deciduous,
• Littoral & Swamp Forests.

The Middle & North Andaman are characterised by Moist Deciduous & Wet Evergreen forests,

respectively. The Evergreen forests dominate the Central & Southern Islands of the Nicobar group. The moist deciduous forests are common in the Andamans; they are almost absent in the Nicobar islands.

 

Q18. Consider the following statements with reference to the Cold Desert of India (Ladakh):

1. The Karakoram range in the north and the Zanskar mountains in the south enclose it.
2. The rivers do not form deep valleys and gorges in these regions.
3. The air at this altitude is so thin that the heat of the Sun can be felt intensely.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S18.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The Cold Desert of India is situated in the Himalayas and stretches from Ladakh (in the state of Jammu and Kashmir, or J&K) in the north to Kinnaur (in the state of Himachal Pradesh, or H.P.) in the south. The Karakoram Range in the north and the Zanskar mountains in the south enclose the cold desert, the Ladakh. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Several rivers flow through Ladakh, Indus being the most important among them. The rivers form deep valleys and gorges. These deep valleys with steep rock sides and gorges were formed by the down-cutting of the river during the period of the Himalayan uplift. So, Statement 2 is not correct

The altitude in Ladakh varies from about 3000m in Kargil to more than 8,000m in Karakoram. Due to its high altitude, the climate is extremely cold and dry. The air at this altitude is so thin that the heat of the sun can be felt intensely. This area experiences freezing winds and burning hot sunlight. We will be surprised to know that if we sit in the sun with our feet in the shade, we may suffer from both sunstroke and frostbite at the same time. So, Statement 3 is correct.

 

Q19. With references to India, ‘Kantu’, ‘Kakni’, ‘Ghugri’, and ‘Sukri’ are the names of?

(a) Small rivers

(b) Saline lakes

(c) Mangrove areas

(d) Water reservoirs

 

S19.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The area of inland drainage in the Rajasthan Desert Basin extends over the states of Haryana and Rajasthan. It is bounded by the Punjab plains on the north and east, by the Aravalli range on the south, and by the Thar Desert on the west. The small rivers draining into the basin are the Kantu, the Kakni, the Ghugri, and the Sukri. So, Option (a) is correct.

A Salt Lake or saline lake is a landlocked land body of water with a concentration of salts (typically sodium chloride) and other dissolved minerals significantly higher than most lakes (i.e., bodies of water with salinities above 3 grams per). So, Option (b) is not correct.

Mangroves are a group of trees and shrubs that live in the coastal intertidal zone, and In India, it is spread over an area of 4,975 sq. km (1.2 million acres), which is 0.15% of the country’s total geographical area.” Mangrove forests only grow at tropical and subtropical latitudes near the equator because they cannot withstand freezing temperatures. So, Option (c) is not correct.

A reservoir is an artificial lake where water is stored. Most reservoirs are formed by constructing dams across rivers. So, Option (d) is not correct.

 

Q20. Consider the following statements:

1. The directives, enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, requires legislation for its implementation.
2. The Judiciary cannot issue the Writ of Mandamus against the state to enforce DPSP.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 Nor 2

 

S20.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Though the Directive Principles enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution are non-justiciable through the judiciary, the Constitution (Article 37) makes it clear that ‘these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws’. Thus, they impose a moral obligation on the state authorities for their application, but the real force behind them is political, that is public opinion. Hence, it requires legislation for its implementation. So, Statement 1 is correct. Mandamus is an order issued to an authority to do the duty mandated to it by law which it has refused to perform. Directives Principles of State Policy are the ideals that the State should keep in mind while formulating policies and enacting laws. These Principles are Non-Justiciable in Nature and not enforceable in the courts. Thus, the Writ of Mandamus cannot be issued by Judiciary against the state for the enforcement of the DPSP. So, Statement 2 is correct.

 

Q21. Consider the following statements with reference to Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority:

1. It is a Statutory Authority under the Department of Food and Public Distribution.
2. The Authority has launched an electronic Negotiable Warehouse Receipt(eNWR).
3. NWR will help the farmers to seek loans from banks to avoid distressed sales of agricultural

produce.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S21.Ans.(d)

Sol.

The Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority (WDRA) were established under the Warehousing (Development and Regulation) Act, 2007. The WDRA is a Statutory Authority under the 105 Department of Food and Public Distribution, Government of India, and it has headquarters in New Delhi. So, Statement 1 is correct.

The Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority launched the electronic Negotiable Warehouse Receipt (eNWR) on 26th September 2018 and thereby migrated to the IT-based eNWR ecosystem. All the registered warehouses are on boarded to Repository System for issuing eNWR against the deposits. The depositor can use eNWR to get loans against underlying commodities from banks and a lien will be marked by the repository. So, Statement 2 is correct.

The Negotiable Warehouse Receipts (NWR) issued by the WDRA will help the farmers to seek loans from banks against the NWRs to avoid distressed sales of agricultural produce during the peak marketing season and to avoid post-harvest storage loss. So, Statement 3 is correct.

 

Q22. Consider the following statements with reference to SWAMIH Investment Fund :

1. It is a social impact fund aimed at providing priority debt financing for the completion of

stressed and brownfield residential projects.

2. The fund is sponsored and managed by SBICAP Ventures, a unit of the State Bank of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S22.Ans.(a)

Sol.

SWAMIH Investment Fund I, India’s largest social impact fund, has been formed to complete the construction of stalled, brownfield, RERA-registered residential developments in the affordable housing / mid-income category that are networth positive and require last-mile funding to complete the construction. So, Statement 1 is Correct.

The Sponsor of the Fund is the Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance, Government of India on behalf of the Government of India. The Investment Manager of the Fund is SBICAP Ventures Ltd., an asset management company that is a wholly-owned subsidiary of SBI Capital Markets Ltd, which in turn is a wholly-owned subsidiary of the State Bank of India. So, Statement 2 is not Correct.

 

Q23. Consider the following statements with reference to Wage Rate Index (WRI):

1. WRI is released by the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
2. The base year for calculating WRI in India is 2011-12.
3. Mining sector has the highest weightage in the wage rate index.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

 

S23.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The wage Rate Index depicts the movement of relative change experienced in the wage rates over a period of time. The Labour Bureau under the Ministry of Labour and Employment is the only agency/Department in the country, which is compiling and releasing data on Absolute Wage Rates, Wage Rate Indices and Real Wage Rates at Industry/Stratum level. There is no other agency, which is disseminating such valuable information. So, Statement 1 is correct. Ministry of labour released a new series of Wage Rate Index (WRI) with the base year 2016, which is compiled and maintained by the Labour Bureau, an attached office of the ministry. The new series of WRI with base 2016=100 will replace the old series with base 1963-65. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

At present, the Wage Rate Indices are being compiled for 37 industries (30 manufacturing industries, 4 mining industries and 3 plantation industries) on base 2016 =100. In the New WRI series with base 2016 = 100, the Manufacturing, Mining and Plantation sectors have weights of 82.57 per cent, 11.23 per cent and 6.20 per cent respectively. . So, Statement 3 is not correct.

 

Q24. Consider the following statements :

1. UNFCCC’s COP 27 decides to establish the Advisory Board of the Santiago network as part of the Warsaw International Mechanism.
2. Warsaw International Mechanism associated with the Programme on the Action for Climate Empowerment.
3. At COP 27, the G7 and the V20 launched the Global Shield against Climate Risks, with new commitments of over USD 200 million as initial funding.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

 

S24.Ans.(c)

Sol.

United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) COP 27 decided to establish the Advisory Board of the Santiago Network as part of the Warsaw International Mechanism (WIM), which will be under the authority and guidance of appropriate governing bodies, and have the roles and responsibilities outlined in the terms of reference.

An Advisory Board to provide guidance and oversight to the Santiago network secretariat on the effective implementation of the functions of the network. So, Statement 1 is correct.

The Warsaw International Mechanism for Loss and Damage associated with Climate Change Impacts, which will be under the authority and guidance of and accountable to the appropriate governing body or bodies. The Glasgow work Programme on Action for Climate Empowerment (ACE), which was approved at COP26, a framework that will guide national work on ACE. Action for Climate Empowerment (ACE) is a term adopted by the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change to denote work under Article 6 of the Convention and Article 12 of the Paris Agreement. Thus, the Programme on the Action for Climate Empowerment is not associated with Warsaw International Mechanism. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

One of the important announcements from COP27 is that the G7 (Global 7) and the V20 (the Vulnerable Twenty) launched the Global Shield against Climate Risks, with new commitments of over USD 200 million as initial funding. Implementation is to start immediately. So, Statement 3 is correct.

 

Q25. Which of the following statements with reference to the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is incorrect?

1. It is a statutory committee constituted under certain rules framed under Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
2. Clearance of the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is mandatory for the environmental release of Genetically Modified crops.
3. It does not have any power to take punitive action.
4. It has the power to appraise activities involving large-scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from the environmental angle.

 

S25.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee or any persons authorized by the committee can take punitive action under the Environment Protection Act. The State Biotechnology Coordination Committee has powers to inspect, investigate and take punitive action in case of violations of statutory provisions through the Nodal Department and the State Pollution Control Board/Directorate of Health/Medical Services. Therefore, Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee has the power to take punitive action. So, Statement 3 is not correct.