Can I attempt Odisha Civil Services Prelims GS Mock Paper-I for OCS 2023?

Yes, you can attempt Odisha Civil Services Prelims GS Mock Paper-I.

Odisha Civil Services Prelims GS Mock Paper-I

Q1. Provision of Right to Education is included under which of the following rights?

(a) Cultural and educational rights

(b) Right to Equality

(d) None of the above

S1.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Right to education comes under article 21A, whereas Cultural and educational rights contains articles 29,30 and Right to Equality (14 to 18). So, Options (a) and (b) could be eliminated. Cultural and educational rights (articles 29–30) safeguard the rights of religious linguistic minority groups in India and enable them to preserve their distinct culture, language, or script. (a) Protection of language, script, and culture of minorities (Article 29). (b) Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions (Article 30) So, Option (a) is not correct.

Right to equality assures equal rights to all people by prohibiting legal discrimination based solely on caste, race, religion, sex, or place of birth. The purpose of this right is to establish the rule of law where all the citizens should be treated equally before the law. It has five provisions (Articles 14-18) to provide for equality before the law or the protection of law to all the persons in India and also to prohibit discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. So, Option (b) is not correct

The right to Freedom is one of the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution of India covered in Articles 19 to 22.

Q2. When personal liberty is taken away by competent legislation, then the person affected can have no remedy. This statement implies which one of the following concepts?

(a) Procedure Established by Law

(b) Due Process of Law

(d) A law passed during the National Emergency

S2.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The Right to life and personal liberty is of utmost importance and very essential to the enjoyment of all other rights. Personal liberty refers to the freedoms and dignity to be provided to all the citizens of the country so that they can live in peace without the interference of the state in their life matters, which can be limited only by the authority of a politically organized society. When the personal liberty of a person is taken away by competent legislation (by passing a law in the Parliament) through appropriate procedure, then the affected person is not able to seek any remedy like approaching the court. Then the country is said to follow the concept of “Procedure Established by Law”. This concept of Procedure Established by Law can be witnessed in Britain, where the Parliament is sovereign and even have the right to curtail the liberty of a person, where the affected person doesn’t have any remedy. So, Option (a) is correct.

Q3. Consider the following statements with reference to the Deccan Trap :

It is the result of Volcanic eruption.
It is largely made of granitic rocks believed to be contributed by the Reunion Hotspot volcano.
The lava plateau has a minimum thickness along the coast of Mumbai, from where it increases

towards the south and east of the Deccan trap.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

S3.Ans.(c)

Sol.

At the close of the Cretaceous period (144- 65 Million years), peninsular India witnessed a major phase of volcanic activity. It was a remarkable event in the geology of India, where numerous lava flows were poured out mainly through fissure-type of volcanic eruption and covered a vast area of the Deccan Plateau in western and central India. These lava flows formed one of the Largest Igneous Provinces in the world, known as the Deccan Traps or Deccan Volcanic Province. It consists of a composite thickness of more than 6,500 feet (>2,000 m) of flat-lying basalt lava flows and covers an area of nearly 200,000 square miles (500,000 square km) in west-central India. The Deccan lava covers about 5 lakh sq km of area in Gujarat (Katch, Kathiawad), Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh (Malwa Plateau), Chhattisgarh, northern Andhra Pradesh, and north-western Karnataka. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Deccan Trap volcanism is associated with a deep mantle plume or hot spot. The plume or hot spot caused the continent to break apart. This Hotspot is known as the Reunion hotspot. The reunion Hotspot is suspected of both causing the Deccan Traps eruption and opening the rift that separated the Mascarene Plateau from India. Thus the Deccan trap is largely made of Basaltic rocks and not Granitic rocks. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

The Indian lava plateau (Deccan Trap) has a maximum thickness of around 3000 m along the coast of Mumbai, after which it thins down towards the south and east. It is around 800 m in Kachchh, 150 m in Amarkantak, and 60 m in Belgaum (Karnataka). Individual lava flows range in thickness from 5 m to 29 m on average. Such discharges were discovered in digging near Bhusawal (Maharashtra). So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Q4. Which of the following rivers have their origin in Kanchenjunga ?

Kosi
Gandak
Tista
Dhubri
Rapti

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a) 3, 4 and 5 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

S4.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Kanchenjunga, is the world’s third highest mountain, with an elevation of 28,169 feet (8,586 metres). It is situated in the eastern Himalayas on the border between Sikkim state (North-eastern India) and Eastern Nepal. The major rivers that originate from Kanchenjunga are River Teesta and River kosi (tamur kosi).

Teesta River originates from the Zemu glacier, which is at the east side of Kanchenjunga.
Kosi River originate in the Kanchenjunga.
Gandak River is the north bank tributary of the Ganga in India. It rises at 7620 m in Tibet near the Nepal border.
Rapti rises in Nepal at an elevation of about 3048 m in the Dregaunra range and it is a left bank tributary of the ghaghra.

Q5. Consider the following statements about the

UN High Seas Treaty :

The treaty is proposed to deal with the Biodiversity of the areas beyond the National Jurisdiction.
The proposed treaty would be the first treaty dedicated to protecting ocean resources, especially on High Seas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

S5.Ans.(c)

Sol.

UN High Seas Treaty also referred to as the ‘Paris Agreement for the Ocean,’ is the treaty to deal with Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction. The proposed treaty concerns the ocean existing beyond the Exclusive Economic Zones that lie from a country’s coast to about 200 nautical miles or 370 km into the sea until it has special exploration rights. Waters beyond that are known as open seas or high seas. So, Statement 1 is correct. In 1982, the UN adopted the Convention of the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) led to the establishment of territorial sea boundaries 22 km offshore, deciding the region up to which countries could claim full sovereign territorial rights, as well as the 200 nautical miles Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) limit. It also created the International Seabed Authority and other conflict-resolution mechanisms. But a treaty dedicated to protecting ocean health does not exist. Conversely, every country has the right to access open seas, resulting in large-scale drilling and trawling operations for catching fish and other animals for commercial purposes. The proposed treaty would be the first to protect ocean resources, especially on High Seas. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Q6. ‘Tree Cities of the World’ is an initiative of :

(a) International Union for Conservation of natural resources (IUCN)

(b) Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO)

(d) World Health Organization (WHO)

S6.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Recently, Hyderabad and Mumbai has been recognized as the ‘2021 Tree City of the World’ by the Food and Agriculture Organisation of the United Nations (UN) jointly with Arbor Day Foundation for its “commitment to growing and maintaining urban trees and greenery in building healthy, resilient and happy cities.” The Food and Agriculture Organisation of the United Nations’ Tree City of the World programme provides direction, assistance, and worldwide recognition for communities’ dedication to its urban forest. It provides a framework for healthy, sustainable urban forestry. So, Option (b) is correct.

Q7. Which of the below initiatives/agreements were adopted during the United Nations Climate Change Conference in its COP27 ?

Loss and Damage Fund
Mangrove Alliance for Climate
Sustainable Debt Coalition Initiative
ENACT Initiative

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

S7.Ans.(d)

Sol.

On 20 November 2022, The United Nations Climate Change Conference COP27 closed with a breakthrough agreement to provide “loss and damage” funding for vulnerable countries hit hard by climate disasters. Governments took the ground-breaking decision to establish new funding arrangements and a dedicated fund to assist developing countries in responding to loss and damage.

At COP27, the Mangrove Alliance for Climate (MAC) was launched with India as a partner. The move, in line with India’s goal to increase its carbon sink, will see New Delhi collaborating with Sri Lanka, Indonesia and other countries to preserve and restore the mangrove forests in the region. The Alliance seeks to educate and spread awareness worldwide on the role of mangroves in curbing global warming and its potential as a solution for climate change.

Advancing from the dialogue at the 2022 Egypt – International Cooperation Forum and Meeting of African Ministers (Egypt-ICF) proposed a global coalition of the willing on sustainable debt at COP27, including both sovereign debtor and creditor nations. This would support initiatives to increase access to affordable green finance and to facilitate refinancing existing debt or issuance of new debt, aligned with climate key performance indicators.Advancing from the dialogue at the 2022 Egypt – International Cooperation Forum and Meeting of African Ministers (Egypt-ICF) proposed a global coalition of the willing on sustainable debt at COP27, including both sovereign debtor and creditor nations. This would support initiatives to increase access to affordable green finance and to facilitate refinancing existing debt or issuance of new debt, aligned with climate key performance indicators.

As a part of COP27, Egypt is championing the ENACT initiative, which coordinates global efforts to address climate change, land and ecosystem degradation, and biodiversity loss through Nature-based Solutions (NbS).

Q8. Consumer Price Index (CPI) Inflation in India is measured on a

(a) Weekly basis

(b) Quarterly basis

(d) Yearly basis

S8.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Reference dates for calculating inflation are from the preceding and succeeding month of the same year. You can see the data here Until recently, India had several sectoral consumer price indices (CPI) and a national level wholesale price index (WPI). A national-level consumer price index (CPI-combined) was released in 2011 and the inflation target for monetary policy is prescribed in terms of all-India CPI-combined index.

9 The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) is released by

(a) Office of the Governor, RBI

(b) Ministry of Finance

(d) Office of the Economic Adviser, DIPP

S9.Ans.(d)

Sol.

WPI is an important statistical indicator, as various policy decisions of the Government, like inflation management, monitoring of prices of essential commodities etc., are based on it. It is one of the key variables for monetary policy changes by the Reserve Bank of India. In addition to its role as a policy variable, WPI is also used by various departments for arriving at the escalation costs of various contracts.

Q10. Which of these is not a/an example of Fixed capital formation?

Accumulation of foreign exchange reserve
Road and bridge construction
Energy infrastructure
Office equipment, such as computers

S10.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Statement 1: Currency is not considered as fixed capital, it is liquid capital. Fixed capital is the assets used in the productive process. Other examples include Building or expanding existing factories, Purchase of transport equipment and all other machinery used in the productive process. Generally, the higher the capital formation of an economy, the faster an economy can grow its aggregate income. Increasing an economy’s capital stock also increases its capacity for production, which means an economy can produce more. Producing more goods and services can lead to an increase in national income levels.

Q11. With reference to Prithvi defense vehicle missile, consider the following statements :

It is an EXO-Atmospheric Anti-Ballistic missile.
It is a three-stage missile with solid propellant in the first two stages and liquid propellant in the

third stage.

It has been developed indigenously by DRDO.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

S11.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Prithvi Defence Vehicle (PDV) missile is an EXO-Atmospheric Anti-Ballistic missile. It means it can intercept a missile out in the atmosphere and has the same range as Prithvi Air Defence PAD (300- 2000 km). e. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Prithvi defence vehicle is a two-stage missile system where both stages are powered by solid propellants. It has an accurate Guidance system using a Ring Laser Gyro-based inertial navigation system and redundant micro navigation system for Mid-Course and Imaging Infrared Homing for the Terminal phase. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

The PDV interceptor is a part of a multi-layered Ballistic Missile Defence (BMD) system developed indigenously by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) of India to protect the cities from hostile attacks. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Q12. With reference to Nanobots, consider the following statements :

It is a man-made nanoscale crystal that can transport electrons.
It helps to clean heavy metals from polluted water.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

S12.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Quantum dots (QDs) are man-made nanoscale crystals that can transport electrons. Nanobots are robots that are microscopic in nature (50–100 nm wide), measured largely on the scale of nanometers. Nanobots are made by combining inorganic elements, such as metals or diamonds or materials with biological components, such as cells, proteins or DNA. They are expected to perform specific tasks at the atomic, molecular and cellular levels, especially in medical science. Nanobots are also known as nanomachines, nanorobots, nanomites, nanites or nanoids. So, Statement 1 is not correct. Thermo-sensitive magnetic nanorobots can bond with heavy metals under certain circumstances and release them. The new nanorobots were prepared using magnetite nanoparticles (Fe3O4) coated with a tri- block copolymer (PTBC), which are the ‘hands’ that grab the pollutants, when the temperature rose above 25°C, PTBC dehydration and stronger interactions between the polymer blocks trapped pollutants in the PTBC matrix. Thus nanobots help to clean heavy metals from polluted water. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Q13. In India, which of the following acids is permitted by FSSAI to be used in packaged food products to increase their shelf life ?

(a) Sorbic acid

(b) Benzoic acid

(d) Picric acid

S13.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Sorbic acid is a natural organic compound used as a food preservative. It acts up to the pH of 6.5 and reduces the various lipolytic changes. Sorbic acid retards the growth of yeast and molds and is usually added to foods as a salt. It shall be colorless needles or white, free-flowing powder having a slight characteristic odor. It’s used in meats, cheeses, baked goods, fresh produce to prevent mold growth, and in some pharmaceutical drugs and cosmetics. Sorbic acid can be used in packaged food products to increase their shelf life in the ratio as prescribed by FSSAI, depending upon the nature of the food product. For example, the use of sorbic acid under a prescribed limit of 1000 ppm max in packed food products like Sweets (Carbohydrates based and Milk product based). So, Option (a) is correct.

Q14.Consider the following statements regarding Black soils

They have high water retention capacity.
These soils are widespread in the northern plains and the river valleys.
They lack organic matter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 3 only
1 only
2 and 3
1, 2 and 3

S14.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The black soils are generally clayey, deep and impermeable. They swell and become sticky when wet and shrink when dried. So, during the dry season, these soils develop wide cracks. Thus, there occurs a kind of ‘self-ploughing’. Because of this character of slow absorption and loss of moisture, the black soil retains the moisture for a very long time, which helps the crops, especially, the rain-fed ones, to sustain even during the dry season. Thus, statement 1 is correct. Black soil covers most of the Deccan Plateau which includes parts of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh and some parts of Tamil Nadu. The Northern plains and river valleys have alluvial soils. Thus, statement 2 is incorrect. Chemically, the black soils are rich in lime, iron, magnesia and alumina. They also contain potash. But they lack in phosphorous, nitrogen and organic matter. The colour of the soil ranges from deep black to grey. Thus, statement 3 is correct.

Q15. Which of the following statement about alluvial soil in India is incorrect?

(a) Both Khadar and Bhangar contain calcareous rocks (Kankars).

(b) Alluvial soils are immature soils and have weak profiles.

(d) They are poor in phosphorus and humus.

S15.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Alluvial soils are widespread in the northern plains and the river valleys. These soils cover about 40 per cent of the total area of the country. They are depositional soils, transported and deposited by rivers and streams. Thus, they are young immature soils with poor profile. The alluvial soils vary in nature from sandy loam to clay. They are generally rich in potash but poor in phosphorous and humus. In the Upper and Middle Ganga plain, two different types of alluvial soils have developed, viz. Khadar and Bhangar. Khadar is the new alluvium and is deposited by floods annually, which enriches the soil by depositing fine silts. Bhangar represents a system of older alluvium, deposited away from the flood plains. Both the Khadar and Bhangar soils contain calcareous concretions (Kankars). These soils are more loamy and clayey in the lower and middle Ganga plain and the Brahmaputra valley. The sand content decreases from the west to east i.e., they become clayey loam towards the delta. Through a narrow corridor in Rajasthan, they extend into the plains of Gujarat. In the Peninsular region, they are found in deltas of the east coast and in the river valleys. Alluvial soils are intensively cultivated.

Q16. These soils range from red to brown in colour. They are saline in nature. It lacks humus. Lower horizons of this soil type are occupied by calcareous rocks. This description is most apt to which of the following soil type?

(a) Saline or Alkaline soil

(b) Red and Yellow soil

(d) Arid Soils

S16.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Arid soils range from red to brown in colour. They are generally sandy in structure and saline in nature. In some areas, the salt content is so high that common salt is obtained by evaporating the saline water. Due to the dry climate, high temperature and accelerated evaporation, they lack moisture and humus. Nitrogen is insufficient and the phosphate content is normal. Lower horizons of the soil are occupied by ‘kankar’ layers because of the increasing calcium content downwards. The ‘Kankar’ layer formation in the bottom horizons restricts the infiltration of water, and as such when irrigation is made available, the soil moisture is readily available for a sustainable plant growth. Arid soils are characteristically developed in western Rajasthan, which exhibit characteristic arid topography. These soils are poor and contain little humus and organic matter.

Q17. With reference to the reasons behind the success of the Britishers over French in colonising India, consider the following statements:

Unlike the French East India Company, the British East India Company was under strict government control and regulation.
In comparison to the Britishers, there was a lack of abled leaders and commanders on the French side.
France were more interested in commercial interests whereas the British were focused on political interests.
Britishers had a superior navy as compared to the French.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1, 2, 3 and 4
3 only
2 and 4 only
1, 2 and 4 only

S17.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option c is the correct answer Statement 1 is incorrect The English company was a private enterprise—this created a sense of enthusiasm and self-confidence among the people. With less governmental control over it, this company could take instant decisions when needed without waiting for the approval of the government. The French company, on the other hand, was a state concern. It was controlled and regulated by the French government and was prevented from freedom in decision making by government policies and delays in decision-making. Statement 2 is correct. A major factor in the success of the English in India was the superiority of the commanders in the British camp. In comparison to the long list of leaders on the English side-Sir Eyre Coote, Major Stringer Lawrence, Robert Clive and many others, there was only Dupleix on the French side. Statement 3 is incorrect: The French subordinated their commercial interest to territorial (Political) ambition, which made the French company short of funds. In spite of their imperialistic motives, the British never neglected their commercial interests. So, they always had the funds and the consequent sound financial condition to help them significantly in the wars against their rivals. Statement 4 is correct The English navy was superior to the French navy. It helped to cut off the vital sea link between the French possessions in India and France.

Q18. The agenda for the first Round Table Conferences held in London was to

Discuss constitutional reforms in India
Find a solution to the communal problem in India.
Find a solution for the problems of the ‘depressed classes’ of India.
Discuss the report of the Simon commission.

S18.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The three Round Table Conferences of 1930–32 were a series of conferences organized by the British government to discuss constitutional reforms in India. They were conducted as per the recommendation by the report submitted by the Simon Commission in May 1930. Demands for swaraj, or self-rule, in India, had been growing increasingly strong

Q19. Resolution on National Economic Programme By Indian National Congress Included-

exemption from rent for uneconomic holdings
right to workers and peasants to form unions
state ownership and control of key industries, mines and means of transport
better conditions of work including a living wage, limited hours of work

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 4
2 and 3
2 and 4
1,2,3 and 4

S19.Ans.(d)

Sol.

The Resolution on National Economic Programme during Karachi session included—

* substantial reduction in rent and revenue in the case of landholders and peasants

* exemption from rent for uneconomic holdings

* relief from agricultural indebtedness

* control of usury

* better conditions of work including a living wage, limited hours of work, and protection of women workers in the industrial sector

* the right to workers and peasants to form unions

* state ownership and control of key industries, mines, and means of transport

Q20. In the second stage of the nuclear power programme, the thorium mat is used in the nuclear reactors. The fuel rods in such reactors are fabricated with Molybdenum and Zircon. In this context, which of the following states provides a one-stop destination for mining all the 3 minerals ?

(a) Haryana

(b) Rajasthan

(d) Tamil Nadu

S20.Ans.(d)

Sol.

According to the Indian Bureau of Mines, Tamil Nadu possesses all three minerals (ie) thorium,

Molybdenum and zircon which are the required minerals for the second stage of nuclear power

programme. So, Option (d) is correct.

Q21. Which among the following are zoonotic diseases ?

Monkeypox
Lumpy skin disease
Rabies
Kyasanur Forest disease

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 4

S21.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Zoonotic diseases (also known as zoonoses) are caused by germs that spread between animals and Humans. Zoonotic diseases are caused by harmful germs like viruses, bacteria, parasites, and fungi. Monkeypox is a zoonotic disease caused by the Monkeypox virus, an Orthopoxvirus. Monkeypox virus can infect mammal species, including monkeys, anteaters, hedgehogs, prairie dogs, squirrels, shrews and dogs. So, Statement 1 is correct. Lumpy skin disease (LSD) is caused by a capripox virus that causes diseases in cattle and buffalo. Lumpy skin disease virus shares antigenic similarities with the sheeppox virus and the goatpox virus. It is not a zoonotic virus. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Rabies is an acute viral disease, which causes encephalomyelitis in virtually all the warm-blooded animals including man. It is a zoonotic disease transmitted to other animals and to humans through close contacts with their saliva (i.e., bites, scratches, licks on broken skin and mucous membranes). So, Statement 3 is correct. Kyasanur forest disease (KFD) is a rare tick-borne zoonotic disease that causes acute febrile hemorrhagic illness in humans and monkeys, especially in the southern part of India. 133 Kyasanur Forest disease (KFD) is caused by the Kyasanur Forest disease virus (KFDV), a member of the virus family Flaviviridae. So, Statement 4 is correct.

Q22.Consider the following statement with reference to Leprosy in India:

It is caused by Mycobacterium leprae.
It may affect internal organs and tissues.
It can be transmitted from person to person.
It had been declared eliminated in India.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

S22.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct: Leprosy is a chronic infectious disease caused by a bacteria bacillus, Mycobacterium leprae. M leprae multiplies slowly and the incubation period of the disease, on average, is 5 years. Symptoms may occur within 1 year but can also take as long as 20 years or even more.

Statement 2 is correct: Leprosy mainly affects the skin, the peripheral nerves, mucosa of the upper respiratory tract, and the eyes. Some affected individuals have damage to internal organs and tissues.

Statement 3 is correct: Leprosy is likely transmitted via droplets, from the nose and mouth, during close and frequent contact with untreated cases. Untreated, leprosy can cause progressive and permanent damage to the skin, nerves, limbs, and eyes. Statement 4 is correct: India achieved the goal set by the National Health Policy, 2002 of elimination of leprosy as a public health problem, defined as less than 1 case per 10,000 population, at the National level in December 2005. But many new cases started getting reported post 2005. India has the highest number of new leprosy cases in the world, followed by Brazil and Indonesia. Every year, over 200,000 such cases are detected globally and India accounts for more than half of these, according to the World Health Organization (WHO).

Q23. With respect to the Project NETRA sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statement:

(a) It aims to facilitate growth in the drone sector.

(b) It is a surveillance project for women’s safety.

(d) It aims to assist the Visually Handicapped persons.

S23.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option (c) is correct: The ISRO has initiated ‘Project NETRA’ to monitor space debris. The domestic surveillance system would provide firsthand information on the status of debris, which would aid further planning on protecting space assets.

Q24. It is a ritualistic dance form of Kerala. It is performed to honour the spirit of the ancestors and gods.The actors wear crowned masks and colourful costumes. The form is-

Theyyam
Terukkuttu
Pagati Veshala
Bayalata

S24.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option a is the correct answer. Theyyam is one of the famous Indian ritualistic Dance Forms performed in Kolathunadu, Kerala. It is a ceremonial dance along with music played by instruments like Chenda, Elathalam, Kurumkuzal and Veekkuchenda. It talks about the beliefs of the ancient tribals, who gave importance to the worship of heroes and the spirits of their ancestors. Performers of theyyam wear heavy make-up and adorn flamboyant costumes. There are different patterns of facial makeup. Theyyam is characterised by the use of elaborate, crowned masks that represent particular deities. The colours used for theyyam is extracted from Nature like Chayilyam, Karimazhi, Aripodi and Maniyola.

Q25. With reference to culture history of India, consider the following statements:

Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna.
Tyagaraja created several new ragas.
Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries.
Annamacharya kirtnas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara.

Which of the statement is given above are correct?

1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3
2, 3 and 4

S25.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option b is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Tyagaraja composed thousands of devotional compositions in praise of Lord Ram, not Lord Krishna.

Statement 2 is correct. Tyagaraja adopted composing in new ragas as one of the aims of his musical career. The (approximately) 700 known kritis of Tyagaraja feature 212 ragas; 121 of these ragas have only one kriti in them. He was the first to compose kritis in “about 66 ragas”. His enthusiasm for such ragas can be seen from the fact that even among the last few kritis that he is believed to have composed, three are in new ragas: Vagadeeswari (paramatmudu), Ganavaridhi (daya juchutakidira) and Manohari (paritapamu ganiyadina). Statement 3 is incorrect. Annamacharaya was a 15th Century Hindu saint, he composed songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara. Tyagaraja was born in 1767

Statement 4 is correct. Annamacharya composed 32,000 keertanas (devotional songs) in praise of Lord Venkateswara.