Odisha Civil Services Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | May 2nd Week 2023

 

Q1. With reference to Vedangas, consider the following statements:

1. Nirukta Vedanga consists of explanations for usage of various Vedic terms.
2. Kalpa Vedanga contains procedural codes to perform Vedic sacrifices.
3. Chanda Vedanga deals with grammar of Vedic language.
4. Siksa Vedanga establishes rules for correct chanting of Vedic hymns.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2 and 3 only

 

S1.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option c is the correct answer. Vedic literature consists of auxiliary texts known as Vedangas (limbs of the Vedas). They are designed to help in the correct pronunciation of the terms, right interpretation of texts, and employment of the proper mantras during the course of sacrifices, rituals, and ceremonies. The Vedangas are six in number namely Siksha, Chhanda, Vyakarana, Nirukta, Jyotisha and Kalpa.

Statement 1 is correct: Nirukta provides the reasons for usage of the Vedic terms particularly those that are archaic and have ancient uses with unclear meaning. This auxiliary discipline has focused on linguistic analysis to help establish the proper meaning of the words.

Statement 2 is correct. Kalpa Vedanga contains procedural codes of the performance of sacrifices. Kalpas are in the form of sutras (a sutra is a distinctive feature of spiritual and philosophical composition). Hence, this field focused on standardizing procedures for Vedic rituals, rites of passage rituals associated with major life events such as birth, wedding and death in family, as well as discussing the personal conduct and proper duties of an individual in different stages of his life.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Chandas deals with science of prosody. Meaning it deals with poetic rythms or rhythmic patterns of Vedic hymns. Hence, this discipline has focused on the rythmic structures. Vyakarana Vedanga lays down the grammar of the Vedic language. Statement 4 is correct: Siksa Vedanga deals with the science of proper articulation and pronunciation of varnas (letters) and words. It lays down the rules for the correct chanting of Vedic hymns.

 

Q2. Consider the following statements regarding Blood donation

1. Whole blood donation is about a pint (about half a liter) of whole blood and then separated into red cells, plasma and platelets.
2. Double red cell donation collects liquid portion of the blood.
3. Plasma donation collects concentrated amount of red blood cells.
4. In India, transgender and gay people are not allowed to donate blood.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 4 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1 , 2, 3 and 4

 

S2.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Blood Donation Whole blood donation – Whole blood donation is about a pint (about half a liter) of whole blood and then separated into red cells, plasma and platelets.

Apheresis

• Platelet donation – collects only platelets that are the cells that help stop bleeding by clotting in blood vessels.
• Donated platelets are commonly given to people with clotting problems or cancer and people who will have organ transplants or major surgeries.
• Double red cell donation – collects a concentrated amount of red blood cells that are deliver oxygen to the organs and tissues.
• Donated red blood cells are given to people with severe blood loss, such as after an injury or accident, and people with sickle cell anemia.
• Plasm a donation – collects the liquid portion of the blood (plasma).
• Plasma helps blood clot and contains antibodies that help fight off infections.
• Plasma is commonly given to people in emergency and trauma situations to help stop bleeding. Guidelines for Blood Donor Selection & Blood Donor Referral, 2017
• It was issued by the National Blood Transfusion Council (NBTC) and the National Aids Control Organisation.
• It excludes transgenders, gay people, and female sex workers as blood donors by including them in the “at risk” category for HIV, Hepatitis B, or C infections.

 

Q3. Consider the following statements with respect to Upward Lightning

1. It is a phenomenon where lightning streaks develop from tall objects that travel upward toward electrified storm.
2. It occurs due to the difference in electrical charge between the top and bottom of a cloud.
3. Storm electrification and the resulting presence of a cloud charge region are enabling factors for this event to happen.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S3.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Upward lightning

• Upward lightning is a phenomenon where lightning streaks develop from tall objects that travel upward toward electrified storm clouds (opposite to normal Lightening)
• Upward lightning occurs when there is a tall object, such as a building or a lightning rod, on the ground and there is an electrically charged storm cloud overhead.

Lightning

• It is a very rapid and m assive discharge of electricity in the atmosphere.
• It is the process of occurrence of a natural ‘electrical discharge of very short duration and high voltage between a cloud and the ground or within a cloud’, accompanied by a bright flash and sound, and sometimes thunderstorms.
• It is a result of the difference in electrical charge between the top and bottom of a cloud

 

Q4. Consider the following statements with respect to Akash Weapon Sy stem (AWS)

1. It is a Medium Range Surface to Air Missile (SRSAM) Sy stem.
2. It is indigenously designed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
3. The weapon sy stem’s range is up to 30 kms only .

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S4.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Ministry of Defence signed contracts for improved Akash Weapon System & 12 Weapon Locating Radars Swathi (Plains) for Indian Army Akash Weapon Sy stem (AWS)

• The AWS is a Short Range Surface to Air Missile (SRSAM) Air Defence Sy stem· It is indigenously designed and developed by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
• In order to meet aerial threats, two additional Regiments of AWS with Upgradation are being procured for Indian Army for the Northern borders.
• Improved AWS has Seeker Technology, Reduced Foot Print, 360° Engagement Capability and improved environmental parameters.
• The project will give a boost to the Indian missile manufacturing industry in particular and the indigenous defence manufacturing ecosystem as a whole.
• The project has overall indigenous content of 82% which will be increased to 93% by 2026- 27 · The induction of the improved AWS into the Indian Army will increase India’s self-reliance in Short Range Missile capability.
• Around 60% of the project cost will be awarded to the private industry, including MSMEs, thereby creating large scale of direct and indirect employment

 

 

 

Q5. With reference to Indian rhinoceros, consider the following statements:

1. They are found only in the Brahmaputra valley, parts of North Bengal, and parts of southern Nepal.
2. They are listed as vulnerable in the IUCN Red List.

Select the correct statements using the codes given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S5.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Statement 1 and 2 are correct. Indian rhinoceros are found only in the Brahmaputra valley, parts of North Bengal, and parts of southern Nepal. They are listed as vulnerable in the IUCN Red List

 

Q6. Consider the following statements:

1. Western Ghats are known for their biological diversity and endemism.
2. Western Ghats are younger than Himalayas.
3. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve lies in the southern part of the Western Ghats.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 only
4. 1 and 2 only

 

S6.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct. Western Ghats are known for their biological diversity and endemism. Statement 2 and 3 are incorrect. Western Ghats are older than Himalayas. The northern part of the WG includes the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve

 

Q7. Consider the following statements:

1. Heat pumps do not produce harmful particulate matter.
2. Construction of building do not emit any greenhouse gases.
3. Biogas or wood pellets are a climate-friendly alternatives to fossil fuels.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S7.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Statement 1 and 3 are correct. Heat pumps do not produce harmful particulate matter and, if green electricity is used, no CO2. Biogas or wood pellets are a climate-friendly alternatives to fossil fuels. Statement 2 is incorrect. A lot of CO2s are emitted during the construction of buildings

 

Q8.Consider the following statements

1. The Malerkotla was a Muslim-dominated princely state founded by Guru Ram das Ji.
2. The Malerkotla joined the state of Patiala and East Punjab States Union (PEPSU) after Independence

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S8.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Malerkotla was a Muslim ruled and dominated princely state. Founded in 1454 it is known for pluralism and shared religious space, which is evident from the tomb of its founder Haider Sheikh, the Sufi saint.

Historically, Malerkotla owes its foundations in the 15th century to Sufi saint Sheikh Sadrauddin Sadar-i-Jahan, also known as Haider Sheikh. The initial beginnings were humble with the settlement being called ‘Maler’ which was bestowed by the Behlol Lodhi to the Sheikh whose lineage too was Afghan, as was Lodhi’s, and they were said to be distantly related. ‘Kotla’, meaning Fortress, was added later in the 17th century with a collection of villages that formed a jagir which was awarded to Bayzid Khan, a descendant of Haider Sheikh, by Mughal Emperor Shah Jehan. Bayzid Khan supported Aurangzeb against his brother Dara Shikoh and thus gained favor with the emperor and added permanency to the rule of his family. A hereditary succession began thereafter. After the decline of the Mughal empire, Malerkotla’s rulers exercised greater independence, and at the time of the invasion of India by Ahmad Shah Abdali from Afghanistan

 

 

Q9.Consider the following statements

1. Zen Buddhism is a mixture of Indian Mahayana Buddhism and Taoism which began in China,
2. The essence of Zen Buddhism is that all human beings are Buddha and that all they have to do is to discover that truth for themselves.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S9.Ans. (c)

Sol.

Zen Buddhism is a mixture of Indian Mahayana Buddhism and Taoism. It began in China, spread to Korea and Japan, and became very popular in the West from the mid 20th century

‘Zen’ is the way the Chinese word Ch’an is pronounced in Japan. ‘Ch’an’ is the Chinese pronunciation of the Sanskrit word Dhyana, which means (more or less) meditation.

The essence of Zen Buddhism is that all human beings are Buddha and that all they have to do is to discover that truth for themselves.

Zen Buddhism was brought to China by the Indian monk Bodhidharma in the 6th century CE. It was called Ch’an in China.

Zen’s golden age began with the Sixth Patriarch, Hui-Neng (638-713), and ended with the persecution of Buddhism in China in the middle of the 9th century CE. Most of those we think of today as the great Zen masters came from this period. Zen Buddhism survived the persecution though it was never the same again in China.

Zen spread to Korea in the 7th century CE and to Japan in the 12th century CE. It was popularised in the West by the Japanese scholar Daisetz Teitaro Suzuki (1870 – 1966); although it was found in the West before that.

 

Q10.Consider the following statements

1. Kabir believed that the Quran was infallible.
2. Kabir rejected the conception of avatars

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S10.Ans. (d)

Sol.

Kabir seems to be deeply influenced by Upanishadic non-dualism and Islamic monism. He was also guided by the Vaishnava Bhakti tradition which stressed complete surrender towards God.

He did not acknowledge distinctions based on caste

Not just caste, Kabir spoke against idol worship and criticized both Hindus and Muslims for their rites, rituals, and customs which he thought were futile. God can be achieved only through complete devotion, he preached.

 

Q11. Consider the following statements regarding Mahayana Buddhism

1. It Believes in idol-worship
2. It Believes that Nirvana is not a negative cessation of misery but a positive state of bliss.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S11.Ans. (c)

Sol.

Mahayana (i) The followers of Mahayana believed in the heavenliness of Budha and sought the salvation of all through the grace and help of Buddha and Bodhisattvas. (ii) Believes in idol worship. (iii) Believes that Nirvana is not a negative cessation of misery but a positive state of bliss. (iv) Mahanaya had two chief philosophical schools: the Madhyamika and the Yogachara.

 

 

Q12. Consider the following statements regarding Vajrayana Budhism

1. The followers of Vajrayana believed that salvation could be best attained by achieving the magical power
2. It became most  popular in Eastern India

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S12.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Vajrayana (i) The followers of Vajrayana believed that salvation could be best attained by achieving the magical power, which they called Vajra. (ii) The chief divinities of this new sect were the Taras. (iii) It became popular in Eastern India, particularly Bengal and Bihar. It was a form of Buddhism, which appeared in eastern India in the 8th century and was finally established in Tibet in the 11th century, as a result of the mission sent from the great Vajranaya monastery of Vikramshila.

 

 

Q13.   Which of the statements given below regarding the Charter Act 1773  is correct?

1. Charter Act 1773 was the first attempt to regulate affairs of East India company by which Warren Hastings was made Governor-general of Bombay Calcutta and madras
2. The Act of 1773 recognized for the first time the political functions of the company because the Company asserted for the first time the right of the parliament to dictate the form of government.
3. The law mentioned everything regarding the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
4. The law provided a clear demarcation line between the powers of the Governor and the Supreme Court.

 

S13.Ans.(c)

Sol.

After the famine of 1770 which affected agriculturists affected the revenues of east India company severely which brought the company to the brink of bankruptcy. It approached the British govt which in return appointed a committee to inquire into affairs of the company For the first  and henceforth  to  regulate affairs of East India company British Parliament brought the regulating act 1773

But it made Warren hastings the first  Governor-general of Bombay ONLY, NOT of Calcutta and madras. The governors of Bombay and Madras were subordinate to them now which were earlier independent of each other.

The Major Disadvantage of regulating act 1773 was that the provisions regarding the Supreme Court at Fort Williams Calcutta were vague and defective.  The law did not mention anything regarding the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. It also did not demarcate the lines between the powers of the Governor and the Supreme Court.

 

Q14. Evolutionarily Distinct and Globally Endangered (EDGE) species are animal species which have a high ‘EDGE score’, a metric combining endangered conservation status with the genetic distinctiveness of the particular taxon. In this context, which of the following species has the highest score of any EDGE species?

(a) Largetooth Sawfish

(b) Chinese Pangolin

(c) Asiatic Cheetah

(d) Sumataran Rhino

 

 

S14.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Evolutionarily Distinct and Globally Endangered (EDGE) species are animal species which have a high ‘EDGE score’, a metric combining endangered conservation status with the genetic distinctiveness of the particular taxon. Distinctive species have few closely related species, and EDGE species are often the only surviving member of their genus or even higher taxonomic rank. The extinction of such species would therefore represent a disproportionate loss of unique evolutionary history and biodiversity. The Zoological Society of London launched the EDGE of Existence Programme in 2007 to raise awareness and funds for the conservation of these species. As of 2019, the programme has awarded 97 fellows funds to help conserve 87 different species in over 40 countries. The largetooth sawfish has the highest ranking score of any EDGE Species. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

 

Q15. Which of the following statements best describes ‘Mycoremediation’?

(a) It is a technique in which fungi is used to decontaminate the polluted area.

(b) It involves the use of bacteria to detoxify radioactive nuclear waste.

(c) It is a technique that involves the uptake of contaminants by plant roots.

(d) It refers to destruction of hazardous waste via thermal oxidation through incinerator.

 

S15.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The general term “bioremediation” indicates the use of living organisms (i.e. bacteria, fungi, algae and plants) in the detoxification of polluted soils and wastewaters. In a bioremediation process, organic and inorganic hazardous substances may degrade, accumulate or immobilize, resulting in a significant reduction of the contamination level.

Mycoremediation is the bioremediation technique which employs fungi in the removal of toxic compounds; it could be carried out in the presence of both filamentous fungi (moulds) and macrofungi (mushrooms). Both classes possess enzymes for the degradation of a large variety of pollutants. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

 

 

Q16. Mass extinction refers to a substantial increase in the degree of extinction or when the Earth loses more than three-quarters of its species in a geologically short period of time. Consider the following statements:

1. Dinosaurs died during the fifth mass extinction.
2. During the ongoing sixth mass extinction molluscs have a higher rate of extinction than birds and mammals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

S16.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The five mass extinctions that took place in the last 450 million years have led to the destruction of 70- 95 per cent of the species of plants, animals and microorganisms that existed earlier.

The sixth, which is ongoing, is referred to as the Anthropocene extinction. Researchers have described it as the “most serious environmental problem” since the loss of species will be permanent.

Molluscs (land snails and slugs) are the second-largest phylum in numbers of known species. According to the IUCN Red List data, molluscs have suffered a higher rate of extinction than birds and mammals. Invertebrates constitute about 95 percent of known animal species. However, among the 1.5 million described species of invertebrates, only less than 2 percent have been fully evaluated and many remain in the ‘Data Deficient category. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The most famous of all the mass extinction events is the Cretaceous-Paleogene extinction — better known as the day the dinosaurs died. Crash-landing into what is today Yucatán, Mexico, an asteroid over 8 miles wide plunged into Earth at around 45,000 mph. This punched a hole, called the Chicxulub crater. What followed the impact were months of blackened skies caused by debris and dust being hurled into the atmosphere. It also caused global temperatures to plummet, plunging the world into an extended cold winter. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

 

Q17. In which of the following matters the powers and status of the Rajya Sabha are unequal to that of the Lok Sabha?

1. Introduction and passage of Constitutional amendment bills.
2. Approval of ordinances issued by the President.
3. Approval of proclamation of all three types of emergencies by the President.
4. Introducing financial bill, not containing solely the matters of Article 110.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

 

S17.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option (c) is correct: In the following matters, the powers and status of the Rajya Sabha are equal to that of the Lok Sabha:

• Introduction and passage of Constitutional amendment bills.
• Approval of ordinances issued by the President.
• Approval of proclamation of all three types of emergencies by the President.
• Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the Union Public Service Commission. In the following matters, the powers and status of the Rajya Sabha are unequal to that of the Lok Sabha:
• A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha.
• Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject a Money Bill. It should return the bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days, either with recommendations or without recommendations.
• A financial bill, not containing solely the matters of Article 110, also can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha. But, with regard to its passage, both the Houses have equal powers.

 

 

Q18. Which of the following come(s) under the exclusive original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

1. Writ jurisdiction
2. Dispute between centre and a state
3. Dispute related to election of the President
4. A dispute arising out of any pre- Constitution treaty.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

S18.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option (b) is correct: As a federal court, the Supreme Court decides the disputes between different units of the Indian Federation. More elaborately, any dispute: (a) Between the Centre and one or more states; or (b) Between the Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more other states on the other side; or (c) Between two or more states. In the above federal disputes, the Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction. The Supreme Court is empowered to issue writs for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of an aggrieved citizen. In this regard, the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in the sense that an aggrieved citizen can directly go to the Supreme Court, not necessarily by way of appeal. However, the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is not exclusive. The high courts are also empowered to issue writs for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights. Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court does not extend to a dispute arising out of any pre-Constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad or other similar instrument. It decides the disputes regarding the election of the president and the vice- president. In this regard, it has the original, exclusive and final authority.

 

 

Q19. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the President of India?

1. Article 123 empowers the president to promulgate ordinances.
2. He can promulgate the ordinance when either of the Houses are not in session.
3. Ordinances have the same force and effect as an act of Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

S19.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option (d) is correct: Article 123 of the Constitution empowers the President to promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament. These ordinances have the same force and effect as an act of Parliament, but are in the nature of temporary laws. The ordinance-making power is the most important legislative power of the President. It has been vested in him to deal with unforeseen or urgent matters. But, the exercises of this power is subject to the following four limitations: He can promulgate an ordinance only when both the Houses of Parliament are not in session or when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session. An ordinance can also be issued when only one House is in session because a law can be passed by both the Houses and not by one House alone. An ordinance made when both the Houses are in session is void. Thus, the power of the President to legislate by ordinance is not a parallel power of legislation.

 

 Q20. Which one of the following statements most appropriately describes the term ‘Shadow Entrepreneurs’?

1. They are optimistic individuals with the ability to pick out financial opportunities and exiting when a business hits its peak.
2. They are rare individuals that come up with a great idea or product that no one has thought of before.
3. They are individuals who manage a business that sells legitimate goods and services but they do not register their businesses.
4. They are individuals with a strong skillset in a specific area obtained through education or apprenticeship.

 

S20.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option c is the correct answer. Shadow entrepreneurs are individuals who manage a business that sells legitimate goods and services but they do not register their businesses. This means that they do not pay tax, operating in a shadow economy where business activities are performed outside the reach of government authorities. Types of businesses include unlicensed taxicab services, roadside food stalls and small landscaping operations. Researcher at Imperial College Business School found that, India has second highest number of shadow entrepreneurs in the world after Indonesia.

 

Q21. Consider the following statements:

1. Demutualisation is a process through which the debt of a company is transformed into equity shares.
2. Corporatization is transferring control of a government-owned entity to a private entity.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

 

S21.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Demutualization is a process by which a private, member-owned company, such as a co-operative, or a mutual life insurance company, legally changes its structure, in order to become a public-traded company owned by shareholders. Demutualisation allows such associations to conduct commercial business to make a profit just like a normal corporate entity. Demutualisation would also allow the exchange to put in place a board of directors, to look after day-to-day operations. Statement 2 is incorrect: Corporatization occurs when the government reorganizes the structure of a government-owned entity into one that resembles a private entity (not transferring control to private entity). Corporatized companies tend to have a board of directors, management, and shareholders. But the government is the only shareholder, and the shares in the company are not publicly traded. The goal of the government is to retain ownership while allowing the entity to operate efficiently and competitively. Disinvestment is the action of an organization or government selling or liquidating an asset or subsidiary.

 

 

Q22. Which of the following institutions publishes The Global Competitiveness Report?

1. International Monetary Fund
2. United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
3. World Economic Forum
4. World Bank

S22.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the World Economic Forum (WEF). The Global Competitiveness Rankings have been paused in the wake of the COVID-19 pandemic and challenges brought by it to the countries. The most recent global competitiveness ranking was released in 2019 in which India was ranked 58th.

 

 

Q23. Consider the following statements

1. A nanoparticle is a small particle that ranges between 1 to 1000 nanometres in size.
2. Fullerenes and carbon nanotubes  are an example of  natural nanoparticle

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

S23.Ans.(b)

Sol.

A nanoparticle is a small particle that ranges between 1 to 100 nanometres in size.

These particles may be spherical, tubular, or irregularly shaped. Nanoparticles are classified into two groups of natural and synthetic nanoparticles, and these two groups are divided further into organic and inorganic (mineral) subgroups based on the chemical compositions of the nanoparticles.

Although fullerenes and carbon nanotubes are considered to be engineered nanoparticles, natural fullerenes and carbon nanotubes also exist in the environment. Some of these fullerenes have an interstellar origin and were brought to the Earth by comets and meteoritesFullerenes and carbon nanotubes (CNTs) with geogenic or pyrogenic origin are among the natural nanoparticles.

Although fullerenes and carbon nanotubes are considered to be engineered nanoparticles, natural fullerenes and carbon nanotubes also exist in the environment. Some of these fullerenes have an interstellar origin and were brought to the Earth by comets and meteorites

Synthetic nanoparticles may be produced either inadvertently (due to combustion or as a by-product) or deliberately. Nanoparticles that are produced deliberately using specific processes are called engineered or manufactured nanoparticles, e.g., fullerenes and CNTs

 

Q24 . Consider the following statements with reference to ‘Quantum key distribution’:

1. It is a communication mechanism, utilizing a cryptographic protocol which involves principles of quantum mechanics.
2. It provides unconditional data communication security. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

 

S24.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option c is the correct answer. Quantum key distribution (QKD) is a technology that relies on quantum physics to secure the distribution of symmetric encryption keys.

Statement 1 is correct: QKD is primarily a mechanism to undertake secure communication, which utilises a cryptographic protocol involving various components and principle of quantum mechanics.

Statement 2 is correct: The Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) technology underpins Quantum Communication technology that ensures unconditional data security by virtue of the principles of quantum mechanics, which is not possible with the conventional encryption systems. The conventional cryptosystems used for data-encryption rely on the complexity of mathematical algorithms, whereas the security offered by quantum communication is based on the laws of Physics. Therefore, quantum cryptography is considered as ‘future-proof’, since no future advancements in computational power can break quantumcryptosystem

All are a mission to mars

 

Q25. Which of the following are advantages of Flex Fuel Vehicles (FFVs)?

1. They are capable of running on 100% ethanol.
2. They can be powered using electrical energy.
3. FFVs running on ethanol blended petrol are free of any carbon monoxide emissions.
4. Performance of FFVs using ethanol blended petrol is greater than that of conventional vehicles. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

 

S25.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option a is the correct answer. A flexible-fuel vehicle (FFV) or dual-fuel vehicle is an alternative fuel vehicle with an internal combustion engine designed to run on more than one fuel, usually gasoline (petrol) blended with either ethanol or methanol fuel. Option 1 is correct: It is true that Flex fuel vehicles are capable of running on both 100% ethanol or 100% gasoline. FFVs also work on the combination of both i.e., ethanol blended petrol. Option 2 is correct: It is true that Flex Fuel Vehicles (FFVs) are capable of running using electrical energy i.e., energy produced from batteries will be used to run the vehicles. For this reason, FFVs are considered to give a new impetus to hybrid vehicle (vehicle alternatively runs on using fossil fuel and electric energy) usage. Option 3 is incorrect: Flex Fuel Vehicles (FFVs) running using ethanol blended petrol is not free of Carbon Monoxide emissions. For instance, the report states that 20% ethanol blended with petrol results in 50% lower Carbon Monoxide emissions in two-wheelers and 30% lower emissions in fourwheelers compared to petrol. Option 4 is correct: It is true that the performance of FFVs powered using ethanol blend will be greater than the conventional vehicles powered using petrol. Ethanol has a higher-octane number than petrol, which provides increased power and performance for FFVs running using ethanol blended petrol