Odisha Civil Services Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | May 3rd Week 2023

 

Q1. World Manufacturing Production report is published by

(a) International Monetary Fund

(b) United Nations Industrial Development Organization

(c) World Trade Organization

(d) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development

 

S1.Ans.(b)

Sol.

World manufacturing production report is published by United Nations Industrial Development Organization. The report evaluates production data, collected and published by National Statistical Offices (NSOs) in UNIDO’s member states. This is the first statistical publication by UNIDO to be released on quarterly data.

 

 

Q2. Consider the following statements regarding poverty measurement in India:

1. Poverty line estimation in India has primarily been based on income levels.
2. Identification of the poor in India is done by the respective state governments.
3. Official poverty lines in India vary across the states due to variations of price levels in the states. Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S2.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Poverty line estimation in India has been based on the consumption expenditure and not on the income levels due to difficulties in assessing incomes of self-employed people, daily wage laborers etc, large fluctuations in income due to seasonal factors, additional side incomes as well as data collection difficulties in largely rural and informal economy of India. Since households may be able to access credit markets or household savings and thereby smooth their consumptions to some degree, consumption expenditures may be able to provide a better basis for determining a household’s actual standard of living. Hence, most of the Poverty Estimation Committees proposed that per capita consumption expenditure or household expenses were the right statistical choice for calculating poverty in India. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

In India, identification of poor is done by the State Governments based on information from Below Poverty Line (BPL) censuses of which the latest is the Socio-Economic Caste Census 2011 (SECC 2011). Allocation of expenditures on anti-poverty programs is also done using instruments other than the poverty ratio. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Poverty line should vary over regions mainly because of the variations of the tastes and preferences and the price structures over the regions. Hence, determining components of Poverty Line Basket (PLB) has been one of the key challenge of poverty line estimation in India due to price differentials (of constituents of basket) which vary from state to state and period to period. Hence statement 3 is correct.

 

Q3. Which of the following statements is correct regarding “Loan Loss Provisions”, often heard in news?

1. A refinancing mechanism of government to provide partial risk coverage to banks in case of loan defaults.
2. Funding mechanism established within the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to cushion the loss of revenue of banks in case of loan defaults.
3. A legal provision included in the Banking regulation act to infuse public money into the banks on the verge of collapse.
4. Funds maintained by the banks with themselves to cover their loss in case of default of loans provided by them.

S3.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Recently the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) released a discussion paper on loan loss provision, proposing a framework for adopting an expected loss (EL)-based approach for provisioning by banks in case of loan defaults. An Incurred based approach requires banks to provide for losses that have already occurred. In contrast, under the expected loss approach banks are required to estimate expected credit losses based forward-looking estimations. Thus, the expected loss approach results in excess provisions as compared to the incurred loss approach. Option d is correct: The RBI defines a loan loss provision as an expense that banks set aside for defaulted loans. Banks set aside a portion of the expected loan repayments from all loans in their portfolio to cover the losses (of loan defaults) either completely or partially. In the event of a loss, the bank can use these funds to cover their loss.

Option a,b and c are incorrect: Loan loss provisions are neither funds maintained by the RBI, nor the support provided by the Government for loss incurred by banks. Loan loss provision is maintained by the banks themselves and provisioning of loans is the percentage of bad assets that the bank has to set aside from their own funds.

 

Q4. According to the Landslide Atlas of India, which of the following states experienced the highest number of landslides in the past 25 years?

(a) Uttarakhand

(b) Mizoram

(c) Manipur

(d) Arunachal Pradesh

 

S4.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option b is correct: Nearly half of the country’s landslide-prone area (0.18 sq km) is located in the states of Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Manipur, Tripura and Nagaland.

• Mizoram, recorded the highest number of landslide events (12,385) in the past 25 years, of which 8,926 were recorded in 2017 alone.
• Uttarakhand has experienced the second highest number (11,219) of landslides since 1998, all events since occurring post 2000

 

 

Q5. Consider the following statements with reference to lightning:

1. It is a massive discharge of electricity generated in giant moisture-bearing clouds.
2. The temperature towards the top of these clouds ranges from 35-45 degrees.
3. There is a greater probability of lightning striking tall objects.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3.

 

 

S5.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct: Lightning is a very rapid — and massive — discharge of electricity in the atmosphere, some of which is directed towards the Earth’s surface. These discharges are generated in giant moisturebearing clouds that are 10-12 km tall.

Statement 2 is not correct: Temperatures towards the top of these clouds are in the range of minus 35 to minus 45 degrees Celsius. Statement 3 is correct: There is a greater probability of lightning striking tall objects such as trees, towers or buildings

 

 

Q6. “This lake is situated at the Kenya- Tanzania boundary and is rapidly dying. It has lost about 50% of its water mass within the last 10 years. Massive siltation and various environmental factors are major challenges leading to the risk of extinction of this water body.” Which of the following lakes has been referred to in the above paragraph?

1. Lake Tanganyika
2. Lake Kivu
3. Lake Chapala
4. Lake Jipe

S6.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option d is the correct answer. Lake Jipe is the transboundary lake between Kenya and Tanzania, covering an area of approximately 30 square kilometers. This lake is called a dying lake because of extinction threats due to massive siltation and other environmental challenges like recurring droughts, nearby deforestation, overgrazing and invasive water weeds. Several infrastructure projects at the lake are making it lose its ecological status. It has lost around 50% of its water mass within the last 10 years. Hippos and crocodiles have migrated upstream due to salinity. The lake is of global importance and the only place in the world where the fish Oreochromis Jipe is found, and which is on the verge of extinction.

 

Q7. Consider the following statements about Scramjet engine technology?

1. It is an air breathing propulsion technology.
2. Scramjet engine utilizes stored liquid oxygen and hydrogen as fuel.
3. It cannot perform efficiently at hypersonic speed.
4. Scramjet-powered vehicles require an assisted take-off.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1 and 4 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

 

 

 

S7.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Statements 1 and 4 are correct. Scramjet, an improved version of ramjet, is a form of air-breathing jet engine that uses the vehicle’s forward motion to compress incoming air for combustion without a rotating compressor. Fuel is injected in the combustion chamber where it mixes with the hot compressed air and ignites. A scramjet- powered vehicle requires an assisted take-off like a rocket assist to accelerate it to a speed where it begins to produce thrust. Statement 2 is incorrect. Launch vehicles based on scramjet technology can utilise the atmospheric oxygen during their flight through the atmosphere which will considerably reduce the total propellant required to place a satellite in orbit. The Scramjet engine designed by ISRO uses Hydrogen as fuel and the Oxygen from the atmospheric air as the oxidiser.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Ramjets work most efficiently at supersonic speeds around Mach 3 and can operate up to speeds of Mach 6. However, the ramjet efficiency starts to drop when the vehicle reaches hypersonic speeds. A scramjet engine is an improvement over the ramjet engine as it efficiently operates at hypersonic speeds and allows supersonic combustion. Thus it is known as Supersonic Combustion Ramjet, or Scramjet.

 

 

Q8. Which of the following statements about the Brahmos missile is/ are correct?

1. It is a supersonic ballistic missile jointly developed by India and Russia.
2. The second stage of the missile is based on ramjet propulsion technology.
3. It is the fastest missile in the world in its class.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

 

S8.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Statement 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct: Brahmos is a supersonic cruise missile, named after 2 rivers Brahmaputra and Moskva and is jointly developed by India and Russia. It is a two-stage missile with a solid propellant booster engine as its first stage which brings it to supersonic speed and then gets separated. The liquid ramjet or the second stage then takes the missile closer to 3 Mach speed in cruise phase. Stealth technology and guidance system with advanced embedded software provides the missile with special features.

Statement 3 is correct. The BrahMos missile is the fastest cruise missile in the world with a top speed of Mach 2.8 (nearly three times the speed of sound).

 

 

Q9. Consider the following statements about the Aditya mission of ISRO.

1. It is a mission to study the Sun’s corona.
2. The Aditya satellite will be located in the low earth orbit (LEO).
3. The onboard magnetometer payload will work best outside the influence of earths’ magnetic field.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2, and 3

(d) 1 and 3 only

 

S9.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect. Aditya-L1 is India’s first dedicated scientific mission to study the Sun. Earlier, this mission was conceived as Aditya-1 with a 400 kg class satellite carrying one payload only, the Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC) and was planned to be launched in a 800 km low earth orbit. But now with additional payloads the satellite will be placed in the halo orbit around the first Lagrangian point (L1) of the Sun-Earth system which is 1.5 million km from the Earth towards the Sun.

Statement 3 is correct. Aditya-L1 with additional payloads will provide observations of the Sun’s Corona, Chromosphere and photosphere. In addition, particle payloads will study the particle flux emanating from the Sun and reaching the L1 orbit, and the magnetometer payload will measure the variation in magnetic field strength at the halo orbit around L1. These payloads have to be placed outside the interference from the Earth’s magnetic field and could not have been useful in low earth orbit.

 

 

Q10. With reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission, consider the following statements:

1. The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as well as the Princely States.
2. Any Province, which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S10.Ans.(b)

Sol.

• In March 1942, a mission headed by Stafford Cripps was sent to India with constitutional proposals to seek Indian support for the war.
• It proposed that the Constituent Assembly was to be composed of elected (and not nominated) members from provinces. Only the section representing the Princely states was to be nominated. So, statement 1 is not correct.
• It also stated that if any Province which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status. This became the primary reason for the failure of the Cripps mission as this provision allowed for balkanization of India. So, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

 

Q11. With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:

1. The Dutch established their factories/warehouses on the east coast on lands granted to them by Gajapati rulers.
2. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate.
3. The English East India Company established a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagara empire.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S11.Ans.(b)

Sol.

• Gajapati rulers in Odisha lasted from 1434 to 1541. Dutch factories established on the eastern coast are: Masulipattanam (1605), Pulicat (1610), Bimilipatam/Bhimunipatnam (1641), Chinsura (1653). So, statement 1 is not correct.
• Afonso de Albuquerque captured Goa for Portuguese in 1510 from Adil Shahi rulers of Bijapur. So, statement 2 is correct.
• In 1639, the English East India Company (EIC) received permission from local Raja Darmala Venkatadri Nayaka to establish a factory at Madras. Fort Saint George built in 1640. Madras was the first piece of land leased by the EIC, and significantly without any war but through friendship and negotiation. Raja Darmala Venkatadri was a representative of the Vijayanagara Empire. So, statement 3 is correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

 

Q12. Consider the following pairs:

Sl. No. King Dynasty

1. Nannuka : Chandela
2. Jayashakti : Paramara
3. Nagabhata II : Gurajara-Pratihara
4. Bhoja : Rashtrakuta

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. Only one pair
2. Only two pairs
3. Only three pairs
4. All four pairs

 

S12.Ans.(b)

Sol.

• Nannuka (831-845 CE) was the founder of Chandela dynasty, who ruled in the Jejakabhukti region (Present day Madhya Pradesh). So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Jayashakti was a 9th century ruler from the Chandela dynasty of Central India. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Nagabhata (795-833 CE) was an Emperor from Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty, after ascending throne of his father Vatsraja. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
• Bhoja (1010-1055 CE) popularly known as Raja Bhoj Parmar was a king from the Paramara dynasty. So, pair 4 is not correctly matched. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

 

Q13. With reference to street-lighting, how do sodium lamps differ from LED lamps?

Sodium Lamps produce light in 360 degrees but it is not so in the case of LED lamps.

As street-lights, sodium lamps have longer life span than LED lamps.

The spectrum of visible light from sodium lamps is almost monochromatic while LED lamps offer significant colour advantages in street-lighting.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

 

S13.Ans.(c)

Sol.

LED Chips are mounted on a circuit board, so depending on the configuration, usually 180 degrees. This is typically an advantage because light is usually desired over a target area (rather than all 360 degrees around the bulb). So, statement 1 is correct.

Sodium lamps lifespan is around 14,000 hours. LEDs last longer than any light source commercially available on the market. LEDs are typically 40,000 – 60,000 Hours. So, statement 2 is not correct.

High-pressure sodium lamps (HPS) emit a broader spectrum of light than the low-pressure lamps, but they still have poorer color rendering than other types of lamps. Low-pressure sodium (LPS) lamps only give monochromatic yellow light and so inhibit color vision at night. LPS lamps in particular are monochromatic which means that the objects illuminated by them appear shadowy black rather than the color you would see during daylight. HPS lamps are better but are still surpassed by virtually every other light on the market. LEDs can be designed to generate the entire spectrum of visible light colors without having to use the traditional color filters required by traditional lighting solutions. So, statement 3 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

 

Q14. With reference to Visible Light Communication (VLC) technology, which of the following statements are correct?

VLC uses electromagnetic spectrum wavelengths 375 to 780 nm.

VLC is known as long-range optical wireless communication. (3) VLC can transmit large amounts of data faster than Bluetooth, (4) VLC has no electromagnetic interference.

Select the correct using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

 

S14.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Visible Light Communication (VLC) systems employ visible light for communication that occupy the spectrum from 380 nm to 750 nm. The technology uses fluorescent lamps (ordinary lamps, not special communications devices) to transmit signals at 10 kbit/s, or LEDs for up to 500 Mbit/s over short distances. The Visible Light Communication (VLC) is an emerging technology, which provides distinct facilities such as fast data communication, secure data communication, high data rate wireless communication, .Instead of radio frequency, VLC uses light, to transfer data. The visible light spectrum is unlicensed and 10,000 times larger than the range of radio frequencies. It can be used as an alternate to the existing radio based wireless communication technologies or in hybrid. Moreover, Integrated VLC resolves issue of load balancing in existing wireless networks. Light Fidelity is a recent technology under VLC, which can be used for wireless communication as it has many advantages such as no electromagnetic interference, low cost and high data rate, much higher than traditional bluetooth. Therefore, the correct answer is (c)

 

Q15. With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant Vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements:

Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines

Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S15.Ans.(c)

Sol.

They are genetically modified and involve use of genetic engineering to mimic the actual virus for which the vaccine is being produced. So, statement 1 is correct.

Both viruses and bacteria are used as vectors to produce the vaccine. Live recombinant vaccines are made of a live viral or bacterial vector that are engineered to express a variety of exogenous antigens. So, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

Q16. India is regarded as a country with a “Demographic Dividend’’. This is due to

(a) Its high population in the age group below 15 years.

(b) Its high population in the age group of 15–64 years.

(c) Its high population in the age group above 65 years.

(d) Its high total population.

 

S16.Ans.(b)

Sol.

The demographic dividend is a rise in the rate of economic growth due to a rising share of working-age people in a population. This usually occurs late in the demographic transition when the fertility rate falls and the youth dependency rate declines

 

 

Q17. Which of the following are the components of the Human Development Index?

1. Life Expectancy Index
2. Education Index
3. Gross national income per capita

Select the correct code from below:

1. 2 and 3 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S17.Ans. (d)

Sol.

The Human Development Index (HDI) is measured by the UNDP.

It has 3 parameters –

• The Life Expectancy Index: Measured by the life expectancy at birth.
• The Education Index: Measured by the expected years of schooling and the mean years of schooling.
• The Standard of Living: Measured by the Gross national income per capita income.

 

Q18. Which among the following factors can influence the growth of the Indian population?

1. Total Fertility Rate
2. Migration
3. Literacy rate

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S18.Ans. (d)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct. India’s total fertility rate – a measure of the number of children born to a woman during her lifetime – was down from 5.9 in 1951 to 2.3 in 2011. It was 3.2 at the time when National Population Policy, 2000 was adopted. India is expected to reach a replacement level fertility of 2.1 by 2020. So, India is close to stabilizing its population.

Statement 2 is correct. In countries like India, immigration plays a very small role in population change. Although people from neighbouring countries like Bangladesh, Pakistan, and Nepal migrate to India; at the same time Indians migrate to other countries like the US, Australia, and the UK. During the 1971 war between India and Pakistan over Bangladesh, the immigration rate increased tremendously.

Statement 3 is correct. The literacy rate in India is defined as the total percentage of the population in the age group of seven years or above who can read and write with understanding. Compared to barely 18 per cent of India’s population recorded as literate in the first Census after Independence, according to the 2011 Census, that proportion has gone up to 74 per cent. Compared with illiterate young women, educated ones desire smaller families and generally manage to achieve that goal. Better access to family planning and contraception must go hand-in-hand with improved education.

 

Q19. Consider the following pairs with reference to the traditional water harvesting system in India: System Region

1. Paar system Western Rajasthan
2. Bandhis Bundelkhand region
3. Pat system Madhya Pradesh
4. Johad Andhra Pradesh

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d) All the four pairs

 

S19.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option (c) is correct: Rainwater harvesting is a simple strategy by which rainfall is gathered and stored for future usage. The process involves collection and storage of rainwater with help of artificially designed systems, that runs off natural or man-made catchment areas e.g. rooftop, compounds, rocky surface, hill slopes or artificially repaired impervious/semi-pervious land surface. The collected rainwater from surfaces on which rain falls may be filtered, stored and utilized in different ways or directly used for recharge purposes.

Paar system: Paar is a common water harvesting practice in the western Rajasthan region. It is a common place where the rainwater flows from the agar (catchment) and in the process percolates into the sandy soil. The structure was constructed through traditional masonary technology. Rainwater harvested through PAAR technique is known as Patali paani.

Bandhis: Bandhis/ Talabs are reservoirs. They may be natural, such as the ponds (pokhariyan) at Tikamgarh in the Bundelkhand region. They can be human-made, such the lakes in Udaipur. A reservoir area of less than five bighas is called a talai ; a medium sized lake is called a bandhi or talab; bigger lakes are called sagar or samand. The pokhariyan serve irrigation and drinking purposes. When the water in these reserviors dries up just a few days after the monsoon, the pond beds are cultivated with rice.

Pat system: Bhitada village, Jhabua district of Madhya pradesh developed the unique pat system. This system was devised according to the peculiarities of the terrain to divert water from swift- flowing hill streams into irrigation channels called pats.

Johad: Johads are small earthen check dams that capture and conserve rainwater, improving percolation and groundwater recharge. Starting 1984, the last sixteen years have seen the revival of some 3000 johads spread across more than 650 villages in Alwar district, Rajasthan. This has resulted in a general rise of the groundwater level by almost 6 metres and a 33 percent increase in the forest cover in the area. Five rivers that used to go dry immediately following the monsoon have now become perennial, such as the River Arvari, has come alive.

 

Q20. Which of the following statements is correct regarding tsunamis?

(a) A tsunami is a long tidal wave caused by earthquakes or volcanic eruptions under the ocean.

(b) Earthquakes of less than 5 magnitude are very unlikely to trigger a tsunami.

(c) When a tsunami wave enters shallow water its wavelength and height increases.

(d) Tsunami causes devastation near the coast of the sea as the speed of the sonic waves generated at the epicentre is directly proportional to the distance between the coast and epicentre.

 

S20.Ans.(a)

Sol.

What is the difference between a tsunami and a tidal wave?

o Although both are sea waves, a tsunami and a tidal wave are two different and unrelated phenomena. A tidal wave is a shallow water wave caused by the gravitational interactions between the Sun, Moon, and Earth. A tsunami is an ocean wave triggered by large earthquakes that occur near or under the ocean, volcanic eruptions,

Earthquakes of magnitudes below 6.5 are very unlikely to trigger a tsunami. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

o Earthquakes of magnitudes between 6.5 and 7.5 do not usually produce destructive tsunamis.

o Magnitudes between 7.6 and 7.8: Earthquakes of this size might produce destructive tsunamis, especially near the epicenter.

• Once a tsunami forms, its speed depends on the depth of the ocean. In the deep ocean, a tsunami can move as fast as a jet plane, over 500 mph, and its wavelength, the distance from crest to crest, maybe hundreds of miles. A tsunami only becomes hazardous when it approaches land. As a tsunami enters shallow water near coastal shorelines, it slows to 20 to 30 mph. The wavelength decreases, the height increases, and the currents intensify.
• Tsunami causes devastation near the coast of the sea as the speed of the sonic waves generated at the epicentre is directly proportional to the depth of the sea.

 

Q21. With reference to the landforms, the rock pedestals, zeugen, yardangs, and deflation hollows are associated with:

(a) arid or desert landforms

(b) glacial landforms

(c) coastal landforms

(d) groundwater landforms

 

S21.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Landforms of Wind Erosion in Deserts: In the combined processes of abrasion, deflation and attrition, a wealth of characteristic desert landforms emerge.

o Rock pedestals or mushroom rocks: ✓ The sand- blasting effect of winds against any projecting rock masses wears back the softer layers so that an irregular edge is formed on the alternate bands of hard and soft rocks. Grooves and hollows are cut in the rock surfaces, carving them into fantastic and grotesque looking pillars called rock pedestals Such rock pillars will be further eroded near their bases where the friction is greatest. This process of under-cutting produces rocks of mushroom shape called mushroom rocks or gour in the Sahara.

Zeugen:

✓ These are tabular masses which have a layer of soft rocks lying beneath a surface layer of more resistant rocks. Mechanical weathering initiates their formation by opening up joints of the surface rocks. Wind abrasion further eats’ into the under- lying softer layer so that deep furrows are developed.

Yardangs:

✓ Quite similar to the ridge and furrow’ landscape of zeugen are the steep-sided yardangs. Wind abrasion excavates the bands of softer rocks into long, narrow corridors, separating the steep-sided over-hanging ridges of hard rocks, called yardangs. They are commonly found in the Atacama Desert, Chile, but the more spectacular ones with yardangs rising to 25-50 feet are best developed in the interior deserts of Central Asia where the name originated.

Ventifacts or dreikanter:

✓ These are pebbles faceted by sand-blasting. They are shaped and thoroughly polished by wind abrasion to shapes resembling Brazil nuts. Rock fragments, mechanically weathered from mountains and upstanding rocks, are moved by wind and smoothed on the windward side.

Deflation hollows:

✓ Winds lower the ground by blowing away the unconsolidated materials, and small depressions may form. Similarly, minor faulting can also initiate depressions and the eddying action of on-coming winds will wear off the weaker rocks until the water table is reached. Water then seeps out forming oases or swamps, in the deflation hollows or depressions.

 

 

Q22. Consider the following statements regarding weathering and mass movement:

1. Weathering is a pre-requisite for a mass movement.
2. Running water, glaciers, wind, waves and currents are the primary cause of mass movements.
3. The chemical decomposition of rocks is not considered weathering.

Which of the statements given above is/ are not correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S22.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Mass movements transfer the mass of rock debris down the slopes under the direct influence of gravity. That means air, water or these movements transfer the mass of rock debris down the slopes under the direct influence of gravity. That means air, water, or gravity exerts its force on all matter, both bedrock and the products of weathering. So, weathering is not a pre-requisite for mass movement though it aids mass movements. Mass movements are very active over weathered slopes rather than over unweathered materials. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

Mass movements are aided by gravity and no geomorphic agent like running water, glaciers, wind, waves and currents participate in the process of mass movements. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Weathering is defined as the mechanical disintegration and chemical decomposition of rocks through the actions of various elements of weather and climate. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

 

 

Q23. Consider the following statements:

1. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha lapses on the dissolution of Lok Sabha.
2. A bill passed by both Houses but returned by the president for reconsideration of Houses lapses on the dissolution of Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S23.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option (d) is correct: The position with respect to lapsing of bills on the dissolution of Lok Sabha is as follows:

1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses (whether originating in the Lok Sabha or transmitted to it by the Rajya Sabha).
2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses.
3. A bill not passed by the two Houses due to disagreement and if the president has notified the holding of a joint sitting before the dissolution of Lok Sabha, does not lapse.
4. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse.
5. A bill passed by both Houses but pending assent of the president does not lapse.
6. A bill passed by both Houses but returned by the president for reconsideration of Houses does not lapse.

 

 

Q24. Who among the following participate in the election of the President?

1. Elected members of the assemblies of the state.
2. Elected members of the both houses of the Parliament.
3. Nominated members of Parliament

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

 

S24.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option (b) is correct:

The President is elected by an Electoral College consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament i.e. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha and of the State Legislative Assemblies (Vidhan Sabhas). Nominated members of Parliament and members of State Legislative Councils are not members of the Electoral College. The election is held by means of single transferable vote system of proportional representation. The voting is done by secret ballot.

 

 

Q25. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the President of India?

1. Article 123 empowers the president to promulgate ordinances.
2. He can promulgate the ordinance when either of the Houses are not in session.
3. Ordinances have the same force and effect as an act of Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

 

S25.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Article 123 of the Constitution empowers the President to promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament. These ordinances have the same force and effect as an act of Parliament, but are in the nature of temporary laws. The ordinance-making power is the most important legislative power of the President. It has been vested in him to deal with unforeseen or urgent matters. But, the exercises of this power is subject to the following four limitations: He can promulgate an ordinance only when both the Houses of Parliament are not in session or when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session.

An ordinance can also be issued when only one House is in session because a law can be passed by both the Houses and not by one House alone. An ordinance made when both the Houses are in session is void. Thus, the power of the President to legislate by ordinance is not a parallel power of legislation. He can make an ordinance only when he is satisfied that the circumstances exist that render it necessary for him to take immediate action.

The decision of the President to issue an ordinance can be questioned in a court on the ground that the President has prorogued one House or both Houses of Parliament deliberately with a view to promulgate an ordinance on a controversial subject, so as to bypass the parliamentary decision and thereby circumventing the authority of the Parliament. His ordinance-making power is coextensive as regards all matters except duration, with the law-making powers of the Parliament.

This has two implications:

• An ordinance can be issued only on those subjects on which the Parliament can make laws.
• An ordinance is subject to the same constitutional limitation as an act of Parliament. Hence, an ordinance cannot abridge or take away any of the fundamental rights. Every ordinance issued by the President during the recess of parliament must be laid before both the Houses of Parliament when it reassembles. If the ordinance is approved by both the Houses, it becomes an act. If Parliament takes no action at all, the ordinance ceases to operate on the expiry of six weeks from the reassembly of Parliament. The ordinance may also cease to operate even earlier than the prescribed six weeks, if both the Houses of Parliament pass resolutions disapproving it. The President can also withdraw an ordinance at any time. However, his power of ordinance-making is not a discretionary power, and he can promulgate or withdraw an ordinance only on the advice of the council of ministers headed by the prime minister.