Odisha Civil Services Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | May 4th Week 2023

Q1. Consider the following statements :

1. The National Clean Air Programme, administered by the Central Pollution Control Board, is a nationwide program to keep track of ambient air quality.
2. Particulate Matter containing sulphur or nitrogen compounds has a warming effect on the local and global climate.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S1.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Central Pollution Control Board is executing a nationwide programme of ambient air quality monitoring known as the National Air Quality Monitoring Programme (NAMP) but not the National Clean Air Programme. The National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) was launched in 2019, by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change with targets to achieve a 20 to 30 % reduction in PM10 and PM2.5 concentrations by 2024. Under NCAP, 131 cities are being targeted for improving air quality. Of these 131 cities, 123 cities (NACs) are identified under NCAP based on non-conforming to national ambient air quality standards (NAAQS) consecutively for five years. In addition, million plus cities (MPCs) are also covered, those identified by 15th Finance Commission (XV-FC), for receiving performance based grant for air quality improvement. Out of 42 MPCs, 34 cities are common under NCAP. Thus 131 cities (NACs and MPCs) are being monitored under the NCAP for improving air quality. Recently, its target got updated as the Centre aims at a 40% reduction in particulate matter concentration in 131 cities by 2026. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

Particulate matter is a complex pollutant. Depending upon its composition, it may have a cooling or warming effect on the local and global climate. For example, black carbon, one of the constituents of fine PM and a result of incomplete burning of fuels, absorbs solar and infrared radiation in the atmosphere and thus has a warming effect. Other types of PM containing sulphur or nitrogen compounds have the opposite effect. They tend to act as small mirrors, reflecting the sun’s energy and thus leading to cooling. In simple terms, it depends on the colour of the particle. ‘White’ particles tend to reflect sunlight, while ‘black’ and ‘brown’ particles absorb it. Hence, Particulate Matter containing sulphur or nitrogen compounds gives a cooling effect on the local and the global climate rather than a warming effect. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

 

Q2. With reference to Climate Impacts on Agriculture and Food Supply, consider the following

statements :

1. Premature budding in cherries.
2. Reduction in fertility and milk production in animals.
3. Increase in productivity of pastures with a decrease in their quality.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. none

 

 

S2.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Climate change could make it more difficult to grow crops, raise animals, and catch fish in the same ways and same places as we have done in the past. The effects of climate change also need to be considered along with other evolving factors that affect agricultural production, such as changes in farming practices and technology. More extreme temperatures and precipitation can prevent crops from growing. Extreme events, especially floods and droughts, can harm crops and reduce yields. For instance, in 2010 and 2012, high nighttime temperatures affected corn yields across the U.S. Corn Belt, and premature budding due to a warm winter caused $220 million in losses for Michigan cherries in 2012. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Climate change could affect animals both directly and indirectly. For example, Drought may threaten pasture and feed supplies, and heat stress can increase livestock vulnerability to disease, reduce fertility, and reduce milk production. So, Statement 2 is correct. Increases in carbon dioxide (CO2) may increase the productivity of pastures but may also decrease their quality. Increases in atmospheric CO2 can increase the productivity of plants on which livestock feed. However, the quality of some of the forage found in pasturelands decreases with higher CO2. As a result, cattle need to eat more to get the same nutritional benefits. So, Statement 3 is correct.

 

 

Q3. Consider the following statements :

1. “National solar mission” aims the development of large-scale and rooftop solar projects and trading of solar power.
2. Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI) is a company under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy to facilitate the implementation of the National Solar Mission (NSM).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S3.Ans.(b)

Sol.

The objective of the National Solar Mission is to establish India as a global leader in solar energy by creating the policy conditions for its diffusion across the country as quickly as possible. To create an enabling policy framework for the deployment of 20,000 MW of solar power by 2022. The cumulative target has been revised to 1,00,000 MW by 2022. The target will principally comprise of 40 GW Rooftop and 60 GW through Large and Medium Scale Grid Connected Solar Power Projects. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI) is a Central Public Sector Undertaking (CPSU) under the administrative control of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), set up on 20th September 2011 to facilitate the implementation of the National Solar Mission (NSM) and achievement of targets set therein. It is the only CPSU dedicated to the renewable energy sector. So, Statement 2 is correct.

 

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding Electoral bonds

1. Electoral bonds are bought only by individuals from the State Bank of India and donated to a political party.
2. Political party should secure not less than 10% of votes polled in the last general election to the Legislative Assembly of the State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S4.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Electoral bonds

• Electoral bonds are money instruments which can be bought by companies and individuals from the State Bank of India (SBI)
• It is an anonymous donation to a political party.
• The bonds are sold in multiples of Rs 1,000, Rs 10,000, Rs 1 lakh, Rs 10 lakh, and Rs 1 crore.
• It can be bought via cheque or digital mechanism.
• The bonds will likely be bearer bonds and the identity of the donor will not be known to the receiver.
• The party can convert these bonds back into money via their bank accounts.
• The donor can then give this bond to the parties of their choice.
• The political parties can choose to encash such bonds within 15 day s of receiving them and fund their electoral expenses.
• Electoral bonds can be bought only during specific windows of time.
• Political party should have meet two criteria to receive electoral bonds that are

o Political parties should registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 195

o Political party should secured not less than 1% of votes polled in the last general election to the Legislative Assembly of the State

 

 

Q5. Consider the following statements regarding Women Reservation Bill, 2008

1. It seeks to reserve 1/3 of all seats for women in the Lok Sabha and the state legislative assemblies.
2. The bill asks for 33% reservation for backward groups within the 33% quota for women.
3. India has a fewer percentage of women in the lower House than Nepal and Pakistan.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S5.Ans.(d)

Sol.

108th Constitution Amendment Bill, 2008

• It seeks to reserve 1/3rd of all seats for women in the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies
• The allocation of reserved seats shall be determined by such authority as prescribed by Parliament.
• 1/3rd of the total number of seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes shall be reserved for women of those groups in the Lok Sabha and the legislative assemblies.
• Reserved seats may be allotted by rotation to different constituencies in the state or union territory.
• Reservation of seats for women shall cease to exist 15 y ears after the commencement of this Amendment Act.
• The bill asks for 33% reservation for backward groups within the 33% quota for women. Status of Women Reservation in India
• National average – The national average of women in all state assemblies remains around 8%. • Rankings – India ranks 144 out of 193 countries in the representation of women in parliament according to Inter-Parliamentary Union’s report.
• India has a fewer percentage of women in the lower House than low GDP countries like Nepal, Pakistan, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh.

 

Q6. Consider the following statements with respect to Guillotine Motion

1. In legislative process, to “guillotine” means to put together and fast-track the passage of financial business.
2. This usually happens on the last day earmarked for the discussion on the Budget.

Which of the following statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

S6.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Guillotine Motion

• In legislative parlance, to “guillotine” means to put together and fast-track the passage of financial business.
• After the Budget is presented, Parliament goes into recess for about 3 weeks.
• During this time, the House Standing Committees examine Demands for Grant
• After Parliament reassembles, the Business Advisory Committee (BAC) draws up a schedule for discussions on the Demands for Grants.
• Given the limited time, the House cannot take up the expenditure demands of all Ministries.
• The BAC therefore identifies some important Ministries for discussions.
• Once the House is done with these debates, the Speaker applies the “guillotine”.
• This is to put to vote at once, all the other outstanding demands for grants that have not been discussed.
• This usually happens on the last day earmarked for the discussion on the Budget.
• The purpose is to ensure timely passage of the Finance Bill, marking the completion of the legislative exercise with regard to the Budget.

 

 

Q7. With reference to Gupta administration, consider the following statements:

1. The political authority was highly concentrated in the hands of the king.
2. The district administration was under the charge of ‘Rajukas’,
3. Traders have to pay a commercial tax called ‘Sulka’ to trade in the Gupta Kingdom.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1 and 3 only

 

S7.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option c is the correct answer. The administrative system during the Gupta dynasty was found more or less similar to that of the Mauryan Empire. The dynasty gave more importance to administrative decentralization and helped the rulers to systematically control their territories. Statement 1 is incorrect. The Gupta administration was decentralized in nature and contained many feudatories like local kings and smaller chiefs, who ruled over large parts of their empire. These lesser rulers adorned their names with titles like raja and maharaja.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Mauryan district administration was in the charge of ‘Rajukas’, whose position and functions are similar to today’s district collectors. He was assisted by ‘Yuktas’ or subordinate officials. Whereas the Gupta Empire was divided into divisions called ‘Bhukti’ and each Bhukti was placed under the administrative charge of an ‘Uparika.’ The Bhuktis were divided into districts or Vishayas and each Vishaya was under a Vishayapati. Statement 3 is correct. The Gupta kings levied a certain commercial tax called Sulka. The organization of traders had to pay this tax, the non-payment of which resulted in cancellation of the right to trade and a fine amounting to eight times of the original Sulka.

 

Q8. With reference to social structure during the rule of Satavahana Dynasty, consider the following

statements:

1. Satavahana rulers were the supporters of four-fold varna division of society.
2. Only the kings, and not the Queens were allowed to perform the Vedic sacrifices.
3. Satavahana rulers gave tax free land grants only to brahmanas, and not to Buddhist monks.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

 

S8.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option b is the correct answer. Early Satavahanas were identified with Andhras, they were probably a local Deccan tribe who were gradually Brahamnised.

Statement 1 is correct: The Satavahana kings (such as Gautamiputra Satkarni) claimed to be Brahmans. They considered it their primary duty to uphold the varna system, that is, the four-fold division of social structure determined by varnas.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Kings and queens both performed the Vedic sacrifices. Nanaghat inscription of Queen Nayanika, the widowed queen of Satakarni, mentions that queen performed Vedic sacrifices. They worshipped Vaishnava gods such as Krishna and Vasudeva. Statement 3 is incorrect: They made liberal sacrificial fees to the Brahmanas, they also promoted Buddhism by granting land to Buddhist monks, especially to Mahayana Buddhists.

 

 

Q9. With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?

1. It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.
2. It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.
3. The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.
4. The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.

 

S9.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option a is the correct answer. In the Gupta period Vishti or forced labour became a source of state income and was looked upon as a sort of taxation paid by the people. So, it finds frequent mention along with other taxes in the Gupta inscriptions. The donees were not only provided with land and villages along with right to various taxes, they were also given the right to forced labour. This shows that forced labour was probably more common than in the earlier period. Most of the inscriptions referring to Vishti come from Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions may suggest this practice was more prevalent in these areas.

 

 

Q10. Forest Cover’ as per Forest Survey of India includes:

all tree patches that have canopy density of more than 10% and area of one hectare

areas predominantly under agricultural

Areas under urban land use in forests.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 only
4. 1,2 and 3

 

S10.Ans.(c)

Sol.

As per, as per Forest Survey of India The ‘Forest Cover’ refers to all tree patches that have canopy density of more than 10% and area of one hectare or more in size, irrespective of land use, legal status and ownership. It may include orchards, bamboo, and palms etc. and is assessed through remote sensing. This disregards the United Nation’s benchmark that does not include areas predominantly under agricultural and urban land use in forests. The ‘Recorded Forest Area’ or ‘Forest Area’ refers to all the geographical areas recorded as ‘Forests’ in government records irrespective of the actual trees growing on such lands. RFA mainly comprises of Reserved Forests (RF) and Protected Forests (PF) and Unclassed Forests notified under Indian Forest Act, 1927 or respective State Forest Acts.

 

 

Q11.   Consider the following statements regarding Green Steel

It is steel which is manufactured without the use of fossil fuels.

Direct electrification through electrolysis of iron ore can produce green steel.

Currently India is a net exporter of green steel, producing upto 500 MTs of green steel annually.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1,2 and 3

S11.Ans.(a)

Sol.

It is steel which is manufactured without the use of fossil fuels. This can be done by using low-carbon energy sources such as hydrogen, coal gasification, or electricity. In order to decarbonise the iron and steel sector, the primary emphasis through technological interventions would be on substituting the primary production processes with cleaner alternatives. Such as, 1) Carbon capture, utilisation and storage (CCUS), 2) Replacing conventional sources of energy with low-carbon hydrogen, and 3) Direct electrification through electrolysis of iron ore

The steel industry is the largest industrial sector in terms of intensive energy and resource use. It is one of the biggest emitters of carbon dioxide (CO2). In view of commitments made at the Conference of the Parties (UNFCCC COP26) climate change conference, the Indian steel industry needs to reduce its emissions substantially by 2030 and hit net-zero carbon emissions by 2070.

 

 

Q12. Methane Global Tracker report is published by which organisation-

1. International Energy Agency
2. United Nations Environment Programme
3. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
4. Coalition for Clean Air

 

S12.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Methane Global Tracker report is published by International Energy Agency annually. According to recently published, report, fossil fuel companies emitted 120 million metric tonnes of methane into the atmosphere in 2022, only slightly below the record highs seen in 2019. The report said 75 per cent of methane emissions from the energy sector can be reduced with the help of cheap and readily available technology. It further mentioned that 80 per cent of the available options to curb the release of methane could be implemented by the fossil fuel industry at net zero cost

Q13. With reference to the Next-Gen Launch

Vehicle (NGLV), consider the following

statements:

1. It is a three-stage, reusable heavy-lift vehicle with a payload capability of ten tonnes to Geostationary Transfer Orbit.
2. It uses liquid hydrogen as a fuel for semi- cryogenic propulsion.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

S13.Ans.(a)

Sol.

• The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is developing a Next-Gen Launch Vehicle (NGLV), which will one day replace operational systems like the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV).
• NGLV is a three-stage, reusable heavy-lift vehicle with a payload capability of ten tonnes to Geostationary Transfer Orbit (GTO), nearly five times the payload capacity of the PSLV. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• NGLV will feature semi-cryogenic propulsion. The semi-cryogenic stage envisioned for the NGLV consists of refined kerosene as fuel with liquid oxygen (LOX) as an oxidiser. ISRO’s Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) already uses a cryogenic engine and can propel a payload of up to four tonnes. For heavier loads, for which the NGLV is proposed, semi-cryogenic engines will be vital. o In cryogenic engines, the fuel used is liquid hydrogen, which poses difficulties in storage as the temperature for liquid hydrogen for use in a cryogenic engine is -253 degrees Celsius. In a semi- cryogenic engine, civil aviation fuel like refined kerosene replaces liquid hydrogen. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• NGLV will feature a simple, robust design which allows bulk manufacturing, modularity in systems, sub- systems and stages and minimal turnaround time. Potential uses will be in the areas of launching communication satellites, deep space missions, future human spaceflight and cargo missions.

 

Q14. Having two eyes, instead of only one, accords human beings which of the following vision-related advantages?

Depth of field can be perceived more correctly with two eyes.

The width of the fields increases with two eyes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. None

 

 

S14.Ans.(c)

Sol.

There are several advantages of our having two eyes Instead of one.

• It gives a wider field of view. A human being has a horizontal field of view of about 150 degrees with one eye and of about 180 degrees with two eyes. The ability to detect faint objects is thus enhanced with two detectors instead of one.
• Some animals, usually prey animals, have their two eyes positioned on opposite sides of their heads to give the widest possible field of view.
• Shut one eye and the world looks flat two-dimensional. Keep both eyes open and the world takes on the third dimension of depth. Because our eyes are separated by a few centimeters each eye sees a slightly different image.
• Our brain combines the two images into one, using the extra information to tell us how close or far away things are.

 

 

Q15. Consider the following pairs

Tiangong-2 : World’s Fastest Supercomputer

Cassini–Huygens : NASA’s Spacecraft to study Saturn

NASA’s New Horizons : Interplanetary space probe

NASA’s Odyssey : Exploration of Jupiter

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2, 3, and 4 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1 and 4 only

 

S15.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Statement 1:

China has successfully launched the Tiangong- 2 space lab to develop expertise for a future space station and conduct science experiments.

Statement 2:

NASA’s Cassini spacecraft after studying Saturn, its rings and moons for more than 12 years, has entered the final year of its epic voyage. It will make the closest-ever observations of the planet. It is the first to enter successfully in its orbit.

Statement 3:

New Horizons is an interplanetary space probe that was launched as a part of NASA’s New Frontiers program. It was launched on January 19, 2006. The primary mission is to perform a flyby study of the Pluto system. The secondary mission to fly by and study one or more other Kuiper belt objects (KBOs).

Statement 4:

It is a Mars exploration spacecraft

Q16. Consider the following statements with respect to the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC) :

1. It is the second largest inter-governmental organization in the world.
2. It is headquartered in Saudi Arabia.
3. India participates as an observer state in OICs meetings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 2 only

 

S16.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The Organization of Islamic Cooperation (OIC) is the second largest Organization after the United Nations, with a membership of 57 states spread over four continents. The Organization is the collective voice of the Muslim world. So, Statement 1 is correct. The General Secretariat of OIC was established by the First Islamic Conference of Foreign Ministers, in Jeddah, Saudi Arabia, the Headquarters of OIC. So, Statement 2 is correct. India is neither a member nor of observer status in OIC. Though India is a potential candidate for membership as India hosts the world’s third-largest Muslim population, Indian membership in OIC is opposed by Pakistan. India was called a guest country in 2019 by The UAE, at that time, chair of OIC. The then-Indian foreign minister, Mrs Sushma Swaraj, visited the UAE and shared remarks on behalf of India. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

 

Q17. Consider the following statements with reference to World Coal Association(WCA) :

1. The WCA is an international non-profit, non-governmental association based in London, United Kingdom.
2. It helps to achieve worldwide economic and environmental aspirations for clean coal usage, technology and innovation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

 

S17.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The World Coal Association is a global industry association formed of major international coal producers and stakeholders. It is a non-profit and non-governmental association based in London, United Kingdom. So, Statement 1 is correct. ¾ The World Coal Association supports a transition towards clean Coal, ¾ WCA helps to build a sustainable future for global Coal and plays an active role in achieving our worldwide economic and environmental aspirations by calling for a greater collaboration between industry, government and investors to advance global economic and climate aspirations. So, Statement 2 is correct.

 

Q18. Consider the following statements with reference to the Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC):

1. It is a regional economic forum established in 1989 to leverage the growing interdependence of the Asia-Pacific.
2. India is a founding member of APEC.
3. In APEC, all members have equal voting and decision-making is reached by consensus.
4. APEC commitments are undertaken on a mandatory basis, and decisions are binding on member countries.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 3 and 4

 

S18.Ans.(c)

Sol.

APEC is an intergovernmental forum that promotes free trade and investment, economic growth and development, and cooperation in the Asia-Pacific region. APEC aims to create greater prosperity for the region’s people by promoting balanced, inclusive, sustainable, innovative and secure growth and accelerating regional economic integration. The Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) is a regional economic forum established in 1989 in Australia to leverage the growing interdependence of the Asia-Pacific. So, Statement 1 is correct. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) operates as a cooperative, multilateral economic and trade forum. The founding members of APEC were Australia, Brunei Darussalam, Canada, Indonesia, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Malaysia, New Zealand, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand and The United States. India is not a founding member of APEC. So, Statement 2 is not correct. In APEC, all members have an equal say (joint decision-making), and the decisions made within APEC are reached by consensus(In Consensus decision making no formal vote is taken). APEC member countries undertake decisions based on non-binding decisions, and the commitments are undertaken on a voluntary basis, not on a mandatory basis. So, Statement 3 is correct, and Statement 4 is not correct

 

Q19. Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Muons’

1. Muons are subatomic particles raining from space that can either have a positive or a negative charge
2. Muons are very light that they can travel through hundreds of metres of rock or other matter before getting absorbed or decayed
3. Muon tomography is conceptually similar to X-ray but capable of scanning much larger and wider structures in three dimensions

Choose the correct answer using the code given below

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. All the above

 

S19.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Muons are subatomic particles raining from space. They are created when the particles in Earth’s atmosphere collide with cosmic rays — clusters of highenergy particles that move through space at just below the speed of light. It has two forms, the negatively charged muon and its positively charged antiparticle

Muons are so heavy, they can travel through hundreds of metres of rock or other matter before getting absorbed or decaying into electrons and neutrinos They are highly unstable and exist for just 2.2 microseconds. These particles resemble electrons but are 207 times as massive. Therefore, they are sometimes called “fat electrons”.

Muon tomography is conceptually similar to X-ray but capable of scanning much larger and wider structures, owing to the penetration power of muons. All that is required is to place a muon detector underneath, within, or near the object of interest. The detector then tracks the number of muons going through the object from different directions, to form a three-dimensional image

 

Q20. Consider the following statements about ‘Bio-Fertilizers’

1. Bio-fertilizers are live microbial products which does not contain any nutrients
2. Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative(IFFCO) has developed improved and efficient strains of biofertilizers specific to different crops under All India Network Project (AINP)
3. The quality standards and names of the bio-fertilizers have been specified under The Fertiliser(Control) Order, 1985

Choose the correct answer using the code given below

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 3 only

 

 

S20.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Bio-fertilizers are live microbial products which does not contain any nutrients. The microorganisms present in the bio-fertilizer ensure availability of nutrients from non-available form present within soil and air to available form which plants can uptake. Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has developed improved and efficient strains of bio-fertilizers specific to different crops and soil types under All India Network Project (AINP) on Soil Biodiversity-Bio-fertilizers and informed that Bio-fertilizers can improve crop yields by 10-25% and supplement costly chemical fertilizers (N, P) by nearly 20-25% in most of the cases when used along with chemical fertilizers without any reduction in production. 11 bio-fertilizers namely; Rhizobium, Azotobactor, Azospirillum, Phosphate Solubilising Bacteria, Mycorrhizal Bio-fertilisers, Potassium Mobilizing Bio-fertilizers (KMB) Zinc Solubilizing Biofertilizers (ZSB) Acetobactor, Carrier Based Consortia, Liquid Consortia , and Phosphate Solubilising Fungus have been notified and included into the Fertilizer (Control) Order, 1985. The quality standards of these biofertilizers have been specified under the FCO, 1985.

 

Q21. With reference to ‘Quasicrystals’, consider the following statements

1. The atoms in quasicrystals are arranged in a pattern that repeats itself at irregular yet predictable intervals
2. Quasicrystals are manufactured artificially in laboratory settings and is not found in nature
3. They are good insulators and are used in surgical instruments, LED lights and nonstick frying pans

Choose the correct answer using the code given below

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. All the above

S21.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Quasicrystal, also called quasiperiodic crystal, matter formed atomically in a manner somewhere between the amorphous solids of glasses and the precise pattern of crystals. In quasicrystals, the atoms are arranged in a pattern that repeats itself at irregular, yet predictable, intervals. The American-Israeli scientist Dan Shechtman discovered quasicrystals in the lab in 1982. The first natural quasicrystal found was as microscopic grains in a fragment of the Khatyrka meteorite lying in the Koryak mountains of Russia. The second time scientists found natural quasicrystals in the remains of the Trinity test of the Manhattan Project. Recently in the Sand Hills dunes in northern Nebraska, where scientists found silicate glass which is a dodecagonal quasicrystal, rare even for quasicrystals. Quasicrystals are used in surgical instruments, LED lights and nonstick frying pans. They have poor heat conductivity, which makes them good insulators

 

Q22. Which of the following are bilateral India-Australia signed agreements relationship

1. Comprehensive Strategic Partnership (CSP).
2. Mechanism for Mutual Recognition of Educational Qualifications framework
3. Mutual Logistics Support Agreement (MLSA)

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S22.Ans.(d)

Sol.

At the India-Australia Leaders’ Virtual Summit in June 2020, Modi and Prime Minister Scott Morrison elevated the bilateral relationship from the Strategic Partnership concluded in 2009 to a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership (CSP).  Mutual Logistics Support Agreement (MLSA) was also signed between India-Australia.

Both the nation strengthens its relation in Education sector Education: Recently, The Mechanism for Mutual Recognition of Educational Qualifications (MREQ) was signed on March 2 this year. This will facilitate mobility of students between India and Australia. Deakin University and University of Wollongong are planning to open campuses in India. More than 1 lakh Indian students are pursuing higher education degrees in Australian universities, making Indian students the second largest cohort of foreign students in Australia

 

Q23. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the IBSA Forum?

1. It was established by the Fortaleza Declaration of 2014.
2. It is a trilateral dialogue forum of India, Brazil, and South Africa.
3. It does not have a headquarter or a permanent executive secretariat.
4. Its fund is managed by the United Nations Office for South-South Cooperation

 

S23.Ans.(a)

Sol.

India, Brazil, and South Africa Forum (IBSA) is an international tripartite grouping for promoting the international cooperation of India, Brazil, and South Africa. It was formally established by the Brasilia Declaration of 6 June 2003 by external affairs ministers of India, Brazil, and South Africa. It represents three important poles for galvanizing South-South cooperation and greater understanding between three important continents of the developing

world.

 

Q24. Consider the following statements regarding the Battle of Wandiwash:

1. It was a decisive battle in southern India between the French, under the Comte de Lally, and the British, under Sir Edward Wheeler.
2. The French were defeated by the British at Wandiwash in January 1760. 3. Post the Battle of Wandiwash, the French possessions in India were restored by the treaty of Paris (1763).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3

 

 

S24.Ans.(d)

Sol.

1761 – Hyder Ali overthrewed Nanjaraj (Mysore King) and established his authority over the Kingdom. 1610 – The capital moved from Mysore to Srirangapatnam 1578 – Raja Wodeyar ascended the throne, after the fall of vijaanagara kingdom in 1565. Till 1565 – a small feudatory kingdom under the Vijayanagar Empire

• 1767-69
• Nizam of Hyderabad, Marathas and English VS Haider Ali (Won).
• War ended with Treaty of Madras. 1st Anglo Mysore War
• 1780-84
• 1782 – Haider died.
• War ended with Treaty of Manglore. 2nd Anglo Mysore War
• 1790
• The Nizam of Hyderabad, the Maratha and English (Won) VS Tipu.
• War ended with Treaty of Srirangapatnam. 3rd Anglo Mysore War
• 1799
• The English (Won) Vs Tipu
• The Nizam of Hyderabad, the Maratha – remained neutral
• Tipu was killed.
• The kingdom was restored to the old Wodeyar dynasty. 4th Anglo Mysore War . 8

 

Q25. Consider the following statements regarding the Regulating Act of 1773:

1. It laid the foundations of decentralization in Indian administration.
2. It provided for the Board of Control for the Company to report on its revenue, civil and military affairs in India.
3. It was followed by the Act of Settlement of 1781 to correct its defects.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

 

S25.Ans.(d)

Sol.

The Regulating Act created a unified administration for India, uniting the three presidencies (Bengal, Bombay and Madras) under the authority of the Bengal’s governor, who was elevated to the new position of “Governor-General of Bengal. The Governors of Bombay and Madras presidencies were made subordinate to the Governor General of Bengal. Thus, this act laid the foundation of centralised administration in India. So, Statement 1 is not correct. Regulating act of 1773 only extended the tenure of the Court of Directors from one year to four years. Their actions are supervised by the British government. The Court of Directors must report to the British parliament on the matters of Revenue, Civil and Military affairs. Whereas the Board of control was established through Pitt’s India act of 1784. So, Statement 2 is not correct. The Act of Settlement was an Amending Act of 1781, which was passed by British Parliament on 5th July 1781 to remove the defects of the Regulating Act 1773. It is also known as Declaratory Act, 1781. So, Statement 3 is Correct.