ଓଡିଶା ସିଭିଲ ସର୍ଭିସ୍ Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | October 1st Week 2023

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Q1.Which of the statements is incorrect with respect to the model code of conduct for elections in India?

1. No party or candidate can use any place of worship for the election campaign.
2. No candidate can appeal to voters in the name of caste or religion.
3. The political party in power can use government vehicles for election campaigns.
4. No candidate shall indulge in any activity which may lead to disharmony between religious or linguistic communities.

S1.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option c is the correct answer

Statement b is correct. According to the Model Code of Conduct, no party or candidate can bribe or threaten voters or appeal to them in the name of caste or religion for securing votes. Statements a and d are correct and c is incorrect. According to the Model Code of Conduct as agreed by all political parties, no party or candidate can:

1) Use religious places such as mosques, gurdwaras or any place of worship for election propaganda. Violating any of these sections can attract imprisonment up to five years along with a monetary fine.

2) Use government vehicles, aircrafts and officials for elections. Government transport including official air-crafts, vehicles, machinery and personnel shall not be used for furtherance of the interest of the party in power.

3) No party or candidate shall indulge in any activity which may aggravate existing differences or create mutual hatred between different religious or linguistic communities.

 

  Q2. Consider the following statements:

1. In proportional representation system all sections of the people get representation in proportion to their number.
2. In India the proportional representation system is adopted for the election of president and vice-president only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S2.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct: Under system of proportional representation, all sections of the people get representation in proportion to their number. Even the smallest section of the population gets its due share of representation in the legislature.

Statement 2 is incorrect: There are two kinds of proportional representation, namely, single transferable vote system and list system. In India, the first kind is adopted for the election of members to the Rajya Sabha and state legislative council and for electing the President and the Vice-President. Constitution has adopted the system of proportional representation in the case of Rajya Sabha, it has not preferred the same system in the case of Lok Sabha. Instead, it has adopted the system of territorial representation for the election of members to the Lok Sabha. Under territorial representation, every member of the legislature represents a geographical area known as a constituency. From each constituency, only one representative is elected. Hence such a constituency is known as single member constituency. In this system, a candidate who secures majority of votes is declared elected. This simple majority system of representation does not represent the whole electorate. In other words, it does not secure due representation to minorities (small groups).

 

Q3. Consider the following statements with respect to Sealed Cover Jurisprudence

1. It is the practice of seeking and accepting information from government agencies in sealed envelopes.
2. It can only be used by judges.
3. There is no specific law that defines the doctrine of sealed cover.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S3.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Sealed Cover Jurisprudence

• It is a practice used by the courts (Supreme Court and lower courts), of asking for or accepting information from government agencies in sealed envelopes that can only be accessed by judges. • This can happen in broadly two kinds of cases:

o (I)When the information is connected to an ongoing investigation,

o (ii)When the information is personal or confidential in nature.

• There is no specific law that defines the doctrine of sealed cover.
• The Supreme Court derives its power to use it from

o Rule 7 of order XIII of the Supreme e Court Rules – No party would be allowed to access the information that the Chief Justice of India (CJI) or court has directed to be kept under sealed cover except if the CJI himself orders to access it.

o Section 123 of the Indian Evidence Act of 1872 – Official unpublished documents relating to state affairs are protected and cannot be compelled to disclose.

o Other instances – When the publication of information affects an ongoing investigation or breaches the privacy of an individual, it may be sought in secrecy or confidence

 

Q4. Which of the following statements regarding Divisions of Northern Plains of India is/are correct?

1. The rivers and streams disappear in the Terai region because of the deposition of pebbles by Mountain Rivers along the foothills of Shivaliks.
2. The larger part of the Khadar is formed of older alluvium and lies above the floodplains of the rivers.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S4.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The rivers and streams disappear in the Bhabar region because of the deposition of pebbles by Mountain Rivers along the foothills of Shivaliks.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The larger part of the Bhangar is formed of older alluvium and lies above the floodplains of the rivers.

 

Q5. In India single system of courts is adopted from which of the following acts?

(a) Indian Councils Act 1861

(b) The Morley Minto Reforms 1909

(c) The Montagu-Chelmsford Act 1919

(d) The Government of Indian Act 1935

 

S5.Ans.(d)

Sol.

• The Constitution of India provides for a single integrated judiciary with the Supreme Court at the apex of judicial system.
• The single system of courts, adopted from the Government of India Act 1935, enforces both central laws as well as state laws.
• The Constitution of India has established an integrated judicial system with the Supreme Court at the top and the high courts below it.
• The Supreme Court of India is the guardian of Indian Constitution. It was inaugurated on January 28, 1950.
• It succeeded the Federal court of India established under the Government of India Act of 1935. Articles 124 to 147 in Part V of the constitution deal with the organization, independence, jurisdiction, powers and procedures so on of the Supreme Court.

 

 Q6. Consider the following statements with reference to the Export Promotion Capital Goods (EPCG)

scheme :

1. It is a zero-duty scheme available to the exporters of electronic products.
2. It does not allow the import of capital goods for pre-production, production and post-production.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S6.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The Export Promotion Capital Goods (EPCG) scheme comes under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, also known as the zero duty EPCG scheme that aims to improve India’s competitiveness in the manufacturing sector. Export Promotion Capital Goods are capital goods used in the production of goods that are exported to other countries. This scheme is available for Zero duty to exporters of electronic products and it also allows an exporter to import capital for pre-production, production, and post-production goods at zero customs duty rates, subject to an export obligation equivalent to 6 times of duty saved on capital goods imported under EPCG scheme, to be fulfilled in 6 years reckoned from Authorization issue-date. So, Option (a) is correct.

 

 

Q7. People used to call her ‘Joan of Arc’ because of her courageous and determined personality. She was prominently associated with institutions, including Andhra Mahila Sabha, Vishwa Vidyalaya Mahila Sangh, Nari Raksha Samiti, and Nari Niketan.

The above statements are about

(a) Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay

(b) Malati Devi Choudhury

(c) Ponaka Kanakamma

(d) Durgabai Deshmukh

 

 S7.Ans.(d)

Sol.

• Durgabai Deshmukh became famous among the people as “Joan of arc” due to her wonderful oratory, courageous instincts, and determined personality and inspired crores of people with her immortal contribution.
• Durgabai Deshmukh, also known as the ‘Iron lady,’ was a great freedom fighter, a dedicated social worker, and an adept lawyer.
• She was deeply influenced by Mahatma Gandhi and immersed herself completely in the freedom struggle. As a steering committee member, she actively participated in the assembly debates.
• She was prominently associated with institutions, including Andhra Mahila Sabha, Vishwa Vidyalaya Mahila Sangh, Nari Raksha Samiti, and Nari Niketan.
• She was also the first to emphasize the need to set up separate Family Courts after studying the same during her visit to China in 1953. Durgabai was awarded a Padma Vibhushan. So, Option (d) is correct.

 

Q8.  Which of the statements given above is not correct?

1. Infrared imaging can identify temperature differences in space objects.
2. The infrared wavelengths have shorter wavelengths than visible light.
3. Infrared lights can pass through dust layers and clouds of new-born stars.
4. The James Webb Space Telescope through infrared waves can observe the first stars and galaxies formed after the Big Bang.

 

S8.Ans.(b)

Sol.

• NASA has revealed the first set of images from the James Webb Space Telescope. The images showed the birthplaces of stars, galaxies with supermassive black holes within them to the last gasps of a dying star. This has highlighted the importance of infrared imaging in space technologies.
• Many cosmic objects – including stars and planets, as well as the gas and dust from where they form – emit infrared light, sometimes called heat radiation. So, infrared imaging by a telescope can identify the temperature differences of an observed body.
• Infrared waves have longer wavelengthsthan visible light and can pass through dense regions of gas and dust in space with less scattering and absorption. Thus, infrared energy can also reveal objects in the universe that cannot be seen in visible light using optical telescopes.
• By viewing the Universe at infrared wavelengths, James Webb Space Telescope can see the first stars and galaxies forming after the Big Bang. Its infrared vision also allows Webb to study stars and planetary systems forming inside thick clouds of gas and dust that are opaque to visible light.

 

Q9. With reference to Enforcement Directorate (ED), consider the following statements:

1. It is set-up under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002.
2. An investigating officer forwards the details of crime to the ED if generated proceeds of crime are above ₹1 crore.
3. It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Finance, Government of India. Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

 

S9.Ans.(b)

Sol.

• The Directorate of Enforcement or the ED is a multi-disciplinary organization mandated with investigation of economic crimes and violations of foreign exchange laws. The origin of this Directorate goes back to 1st May, 1956, when an ‘Enforcement Unit’ was formed in the Department of Economic Affairs for handling Exchange Control Laws violations under Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1947 (FERA ’47). In the year 1957, this Unit was renamed as ‘Enforcement Directorate’. Thus, ED was not set-up under the PMLA. So, statement 1 is not correct.
• Whenever any offence is registered by a local police station, which has generated proceeds of crime over and above ₹1 crore, the investigating police officer forwards the details to the ED. Alternately, if the offence comes under the knowledge of the Central agency, they can then call for the First Information Report (FIR) or the chargesheet if it has been filed directly by police officials. This will be done to find out if any laundering has taken place. So, statement 2 is correct.
• In 1960, the administrative control of the Directorate was transferred from the Department of Economic Affairs to the Department of Revenue. For a short period of 04 years (1973 – 1977), the Directorate remained under the administrative jurisdiction of the Department of Personnel & Administrative Reforms. Presently, the Directorate is under the administrative control of Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, Government of India. So, statement 3 is correct.

 

Q10. With reference to the Mysore Kingdom, consider the following statements:

1. The Mysore Kingdom emerged out of the Vijayanagar empire under the leadership of Hyder Ali. 2. Battle of Pollilur painting represents the victory of the Mysore kingdom over the British.
2. After the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War, the British took direct control over the Mysore kingdom. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S10.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The Mysore Kingdom was established by the Wodeyars family and not by Hyder Ali. So, Statement 1 could be eliminated. The important state to make its appearance in the eighteenth century was Mysore, which emerged out of the Vijayanagar Empire. This territory is located at the junction of the Eastern and Western Ghats. It was founded and ruled for the most part by the Hindu Wodeyar family (not by Hyder Ali) and it initially served as a vassal state of the Vijayanagar Empire. Chikka Krishnaraja Wodeyar II ruled from 1734 to 1766. But later, during the second half of the 18th century, Mysore emerged as a formidable power under the leadership of Haidar Ali and Tipu Sultan. So, Statement 1 is not correct. Pollilur painting is a vividly illustrated painting depicting a historic victory of Mysore ruler Haider Ali and his son Tipu Sultan over the East India Company. The Battle of Pollilur which took place on September 10, 1780, as part of the Second Anglo-Mysore War, was commissioned by Tipu Sultan as part of a large mural for the newly-built Daria Daulat Bagh in Seringapatam in 1784. So, Statement 2 is correct.

After the end of the4th Anglo-Mysore War (1799), the British captured the capital of Mysore. The ruler Tipu Sultan was killed in the battle and Tipu Sultan’s young heir, Fateh Ali, was sent into exile. Britain took indirect control of Mysore, by restoring the Woodayar dynasty under a minor ruler Krishnaraja III, who accepted the subsidiary alliance. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

 

Q11. Arrange the following gas fields of the world from east to west.

1. Zapolyarnoye
2. Hugoton
3. Groningen

Select the correct answer using the code given

below.

(a) 1-3-2

(b) 2-1-3

(c) 3-2-1

(d) 1-2-3

 

S11.Ans.(a)

Sol.

• The Zapolyarnoye oil, gas, and condensate field is located in the Yamal-Nenets Autonomous Area. It is one of the largest fields in Russia, with an initial reserve of 3.5 trillion m3 of gas, 60 million tonnes of gas condensate, and 20 million tonnes of oil, Zapolyarnoye ranks as the world’s sixth-largest oil and gas field.
• The Hugoton field is the largest natural gas field in North America and the second-largest in the world. Hugoton natural gas fields in 2007 produced 358 billion cubic feet of gas, making it the 5th largest U.S. source of natural gas at the time.
• The Groningen field in the northern Netherlands is the largest gas field in Europe and the tenth- largest in the world. The gas quality of the Groningen gas field differs from most other fields in the world. The Groningen gas contains a relatively high part of Nitrogen (14%) and a lower amount of energy per m3 than most other gas. This is why it’s called low-calorific gas.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

 

Q12. Consider the following statements with respect to ‘National Commission for Women’

1. It was a initially a statutory body which later got Constitutional status by the 102nd Amendment Act
2. The Commission has all the powers of a civil court in respect of summoning and enforcing the attendance of any person from any part of India
3. The chairperson of the Commission is appointed by the President of India

Choose the correct answer using the code given below

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 3 only

 

S12.Ans.(b)

Sol.

The National Commission for Women was set up as statutory body in January 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990 ( Act No. 20 of 1990 of Govt.of India ) to : review the Constitutional and Legal safeguards for women ; recommend remedial legislative measures ; facilitate redressal of grievances and advise the Government on all policy matters affecting women. It is still a statutory body .

The Commission shall, while investigating any matter referred to in clause (a) or sub-clause (i) of clause (f) of sub-section (1), have all the powers of a civil court trying a suit and, in particular in respect of the following matters, namely :- summoning and enforcing the attendance of any person from any part of India and examining him on oath, requiring the discovery and production of any document, receiving evidence on affidavits, requisitioning any public record or copy thereof from any court or office, issuing commissions for the examination of witnesses and documents, and any other matter which may be prescribed.

The Commission shall consist of :-

A Chairperson, committed to the cause of women, to be nominated by the Central Government. five Members to be nominated by the Central Government from amongst persons of ability, integrity and standing who have had experience in law or legislation, trade unionism, management of an industry potential of women, women’s voluntary organisations ( including women activist ), administration, economic development, health, education or social welfare; Provided that at least one Member each shall be from amongst persons belonging to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes respectively;

 

Q13. Consider the following statements regarding tropical cyclones:

1. A tropical cyclone is a rapid storm that originates only in warm ocean waters and has low pressure in the centre.
2. ‘Eye’ is the central part of the tropical cyclone where violent storms and thunderstorm clouds are present.
3. Strong vertical shear increases the intensity of the tropical cyclone.
4. El Nino events inhibit tropical cyclones in the Atlantic Ocean.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 1 and 4

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S13.Ans.(c)

Sol.

A tropical cyclone is a rapidly rotating storm originating over tropical oceans from where it draws the energy to develop. It has a low-pressure center which is created through the warm ocean water and clouds spiraling toward the eyewall. So, Statement 1 is correct.

The main parts of a tropical cyclone are the rainbands, the eye, and the eyewall. In the very center of the storm, air sinks, forming an “eye” that is mostly cloud-free. The tropical cyclone’s center is a relatively calm, generally clear area of sinking air and light winds that usually do not exceed 15 mph (24 km/h) and is typically 20-40 miles (32-64 km) across. An eye will usually develop when the maximum sustained wind speeds go above 74 mph (119 km/h) and is the calmest part of the storm. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Over the Atlantic basin, it is associated with stronger upper-level westerly winds and stronger lower-level easterly trade winds, both of which increase the vertical wind shear and suppress hurricane or tropical cyclone activity. In addition to enhanced vertical wind shear, El Niño suppresses Atlantic hurricane or tropical cyclone activity by increasing the amount of sinking motion and increasing atmospheric stability. Thus, Strong vertical wind shear can rip a developing hurricane or tropical cyclone apart, or even prevent it from forming. So, Statement 3 is not correct and statement 4 is correct.

 

Q14. Mandamus can be issued under which of the following circumstances?

1. To indirectly restrain an authority from exercising statutory functions.
2. Against CJI acting in his/her judicial capacity.
3. To enforce contractual obligations against a Private body performing public duty.

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) None of the above

 

S14.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Mandamus is a Latin word that means “we order “or “Command”. Mandamus is issued by the court against any inferior court, public official, public body, corporation, tribunal, or the government and it directs the persons or body who are bound to do a public duty or if he has a legal right to perform and the performance which they are refusing to perform. Mandamus directs an authority to exercise its statutory functions and it cannot be issued to directly or indirectly restrain an authority from performing or exercising its statutory functions. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

Mandamus cannot be issued against the president or governor of the state, against the Chief Justice of India, or the Chief Justice of a high court acting in a judicial capacity. It cannot be issued against a private individual or body. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

The Supreme court held that mandamus can be issued to enforce contractual obligations only when the contractual relationship is related to public duty. If the contractual relationship does not have any public duty element, then a mandamus cannot be issued. So, Statement 3 is correct.

 

Q15. With reference to ‘Indian Purple Frog’, consider the following statements:

1. The distribution of the frog is limited to the North Eastern states of Assam and Meghalaya.
2. It has one of the oldest lineages among all living frogs on Earth.
3. It is a species that mostly lives underground.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1 and 3 only

 

S15.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option c is the correct answer. New research has been conducted by a biologist on Purple Frog. The purple frog (Nasikabatrachus sahyadrensis), Indian purple frog or pignose frog is a frog species of the genus Nasikabatrachus.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Indian Purple Frog was first discovered in 2003 in the Idukki district of Kerala by S.D. Biju from the Tropical Botanic Garden and Research Institute, India and Franky Bossuyt from Brussels. The frog is endemic to the Western Ghats. Its distribution limited mainly to Kerala and some parts of Tamil Nadu.

Statement 2 is correct: The purple frog is a unique animal. This frog has an evolutionary history that goes back 120 million years. This is one of the oldest lineages among all living frogs on Earth. Species with such old lineages are termed a ‘living fossil’.

Statement 3 is correct: The Indian Purple Frog is a fossorial species-that lives underground emerging just once a year. It has physical adaptations that help it survive in such extreme conditions. Its breeding activity coincides with pre-monsoon showers. The male frogs take their cue from these and emerge from their burrows to call potential partners — these calls can be heard up to 100 meters away. These animals are very sensitive to disturbances. Any interference with their calling behaviour withdraws them into their burrows.

 

Q16. Which of the following will most likely result in an addition to non-tax revenue receipts of the Government of India?

1. Receiving external grants
2. Taking loans from the market
3. Payment of interest by state government on loans received from Union Government
4. Fees and fines received by the Union government
5. Buying assets in the foreign territory by the Government of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 3 and 4 only
2. 2, 3 and 5 only
3. 1, 2 and 3 only
4. 3, 4 and 5 only

 

S16.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option a is the correct answer.

Non-Tax Revenue is the income earned by the government from sources other than taxes. It consists mainly of interest receipts on loans to States and Union Territories, dividends and profits from Public Sector Enterprises including surplus of Reserve Bank of India transferred to Government of India, and external grants and receipts for services provided by the Central Government. These services include fiscal services like currency, coinage and mint, general services such as Public Service Commission and police, social services like education and health, and economic services like irrigation, transportation and communication

Option 1 is correct: As receiving grants is considered as revenue of the government because the government is under no obligation to repay it. Also, it is non tax revenue because it is coming from the source other than the tax.

Option 2 is incorrect: Revenue receipts are essentially a one-way transaction I.e. need not be paid back by the receiver. Hence loans are not classified even as revenue receipts therefore it is not a non-tax revenue. Loans are classified as debt capital receipts.

Option 3 is correct: The State government paying interest rate on the loan it got from the union government or repaying the principal amount is a non-tax revenue for the Union Government. Option 4 is correct: Fees, Penalties and fines received by the Union government are part of non-tax revenue.

Option 5 is incorrect: Buying assets in foreign government means an outflow of revenue so it cannot be considered as revenue. It is considered as capital expenditure.

 

Q17.Consider the following statements

1. Fluorescence Microscope examines an object by how it absorbs, reflects or scatters visible light.
2. Optical Microscope examines an object by studying how it re-emits light that it has absorbed.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. both 1 and 2
4. neither 1 nor 2

 

S17.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Fluorescence microscopy A Fluorescence microscope views an object by studying how it reemits light that it has absorbed. A fluorescence microscope uses a much higher intensity light source which excites a fluorescent species in a sample of interest. This fluorescent species in turn emits a lower energy light of a longer wavelength that produces the magnified image instead of the original light source. It is also used to visually enhance 3-D features at small scales. Optical Microscope – views an object by how it absorbs, reflects or scatters visible light. Applications Imaging structural components of small specimens, such as cells. Conducting viability studies on cell populations. Imaging the genetic material within a cell (DNA and RNA) Viewing specific cells within a larger population with techniques such as FISH.

Q18. Which of the following is not the major economic challenges for a State Economy?

1. Deciding what goods to produce
2. Allocating supply chain networks to the private sector
3. Ensuring a balance between supply and demand of goods
4. To ascertain the level of investment required for an optimal productive capacity in the economy

 

S18.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Every economy meets with certain challenges. One, to ascertain the availability of the goods and services required by the population and second, the presence of the supply network. Every economy has to, at first, guarantee the required level of goods and services out of its production process. For this, a proper level of production capacity should be built which requires a particular level of capital formation or investment. From where the investible funds will be managed is altogether a separate question. Whether the investment will come from the government, the domestic private sector or the foreigners? Once these details are cleared and selected as per the socio-economic condition of the economy, a proper distribution network for goods and services produced is assured. Statement 3: But, in a State Economy the private sector does not play any role and is nationalized by the government.

 

Q19.Consider the following statements regarding Bhimbetka paintings

1. These paintings have the use of red colour obtained from haematite or Geru in the Indian context.
2. It is believed that the colours have remained intact because of the chemical reaction of the oxide present on the surface of the rocks
3. The green came from a green variety of a stone called chalcedony.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1,2
2. 2,3
3. 1,3
4. 1,2,3

 

S19.Ans.(d)

Sol.

The artists of Bhimbetka used many colours, including various shades of white, yellow, orange, red ochre, purple, brown, green and black. But white and red were their favourite colours. The paints were made by grinding various rocks and minerals. They got red from haematite (known as geru in India). The green came from a green variety of a stone called chalcedony. White might have been. made out of limestone. The rock of mineral was first ground into a powder. This may then have been mixed with water and also with some thick or sticky substance such as animal fat or gum or resin from trees. Brushes were made of plant fibre. What is amazing is that these colours have survived thousands of years of adverse weather conditions. It is believed that the colours have remained intact because of the chemical reaction of the oxide present on the surface of the rocks.

 

Q20. Which of the statement given below is correct regarding National Parks?

1. Madhya Pradesh has the largest number of National Parks among all states.
2. All states in India have at least one National Park.
3. Area wise, Sunderban National Park is the largest National Park in India.
4. All are correct

 

S20.Ans.(a)

Sol.

• According to the National Wildlife Database, May 2022, there are 106 existing National Parks in India covering an area of 44,372.42 km2 , which is 1.35% of the geographical area of the country.
• Madhya Pradesh has 11 National Parks, highest among all states and UTs in India. These include Bandhavgarh, Dinosaur Fossils, Fossil, Pench, Kanha, Kuno, Madhav, Panna, Sanjay, Satpura and Van Vihar. So, statement A is correct.
• Punjab does not have any National Park. So, statement B is not correct.
• Area wise, Hemis National park is the biggest national park in India with an area of 3350 square km. Sunderban National park has an area of 1330.1 square km. So, statement C is not correct.

 

Q21. Consider the following statements with reference to the ‘blue bugging’ :

1. It is a form of hacking that lets attackers access a device through its undiscoverable Bluetooth connection

2. A hacker can listen to the calls, read and send messages and steal and modify contacts

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S21.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Bluebugging is a hacking technique that allows individuals to access a device with a discoverable Bluetooth connection but not with an undiscoverable one. Most devices make Bluetooth discoverable by default, leaving your devices susceptible to unsolicited connections, which makes the device vulnerable to hack. When the device is in discoverable mode, then the hacker tries to connect with the device via Bluetooth. Once a connection is established, hackers can read and send messages, access the victim’s phonebook, and initiate or eavesdrop on phone calls. It started as a threat to laptops with Bluetooth capability. Later, hackers used the technique to target mobile phones and other devices. So, Statement 1 is not correct, and Statement 2 is correct.

 

Q22. Had there been no Himalayas in the Indian subcontinent,

1. There will be no splitting of the westerly jet streams
2. More region of northern India would have been a desert
3. The cold Siberian air masses will enter into India
4. There will be no interception in the summer monsoon coming from the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea

How many of the above statements are correct based on the given scenario ?

(a) Only one statement

(b) Only two statements

(c) Only three statements

(d) All four statements

 

S22.Ans.(d)

Sol.

The mighty Himalayas are the most pronounced and dominating physiographic feature of the

subcontinent of India. It has often been said that the Himalayas are the body and soul of India. The importance of the Himalayas for its Climatic Influence on India,

• The impact of the Himalayas on the climate, especially on the distribution of precipitation and temperature, is quite significant.
• The altitude of the Himalayas, their sprawl and their extension intercept the summer monsoon coming from the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea.
• They also prevent the cold Siberian air masses from entering India.
• Had there been no Himalayas, More region of northern India would have been a desert.
• According to the latest meteorological studies, the Himalayas are responsible for the splitting of the westerly jet streams into two branches, and these, in turn, play an important role in the arrival, success and failure of the monsoons in India.

So, Option (d) is correct.

 

Q23. Who/Which among the following can declare an area to be a ‘Scheduled Area’ under Article

244(1) of the Constitution ?

(a) Parliament by a constitutional amendment act

(b) State legislature by enacting a law

(c) President by an order

(d) Governor by a notification

 

S23.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The Fifth Schedule under Article 244(1) of the Constitution defines “Scheduled Areas” as such areas as the President may by order declare to be Scheduled Areas after consultation with the Governor of that State. The specification of “Scheduled Areas” to a State is by a notified order of the President after consultation with the State Government concerned. The same applies in the case of any alteration, increase, decrease, incorporation of new areas, or rescinding any Orders relating to “Scheduled Areas.” Criteria for declaring any area as a “Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule are:

• The preponderance of the tribal population,
• Compactness and reasonable size of the area,
• A viable administrative entity such as a district, block or taluk.
• Economic backwardness of the area as compared to the neighbouring areas. So, Option (c) is correct.

 

Q24. Consider the following statements with respect to Upward Lightning

1. It is a phenomenon where lightning streaks develop from tall objects that travel upward toward electrified storm.
2. It occurs due to the difference in electrical charge between the top and bottom of a cloud.
3. Storm electrification and the resulting presence of a cloud charge region are enabling factors for this event to happen.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S24.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Upward lightning

• Upward lightning is a phenomenon where lightning streaks develop from tall objects that travel upward toward electrified storm clouds (opposite to normal Lightening)
• Upward lightning occurs when there is a tall object, such as a building or a lightning rod, on the ground and there is an electrically charged storm cloud overhead. Lightning
• It is a very rapid and m assive discharge of electricity in the atmosphere.
• It is the process of occurrence of a natural ‘electrical discharge of very short duration and high voltage between a cloud and the ground or within a cloud’, accompanied by a bright flash and sound, and sometimes thunderstorms.
• It is a result of the difference in electrical charge between the top and bottom of a cloud.

 

Q25. The PESA Act, 1996 extends the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution relating to the Panchayats to which of the following groups of states?

(a) Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, and Gujarat

(b) Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Mizoram and Nagaland

(c) Himachal Pradesh, Kerala, Meghalaya and Assam

(d) Tamil Nādu, Rajasthan, Bihar and Nagaland

 

S25.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option a is the correct answer. The provisions of Part IX of the constitution relating to the Panchayats were not applicable to the Fifth Schedule areas. However, the Parliament is allowed to extend these provisions to such areas, subject to such exceptions and modifications as it may specify. Under this provision, the Parliament has enacted the “Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act”, 1996, popularly known as the PESA Act or the Extension Act. At present, ten states have Fifth Schedule Areas. These are: Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha and Rajasthan. All the ten states have enacted requisite compliance legislations by amending the respective Panchayati Raj Acts.