ଓଡିଶା ସିଭିଲ ସର୍ଭିସ୍ Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | October 2nd Week 2023

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Q1. Which of the following come(s) under the exclusive original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court? 1. Writ jurisdiction

2. Dispute between centre and a state
3. Dispute related to election of the President
4. A dispute arising out of any pre- Constitution treaty.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

S1.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option (b) is correct:

As a federal court, the Supreme Court decides the disputes between different units of the Indian Federation. More elaborately, any dispute:

(a) Between the Centre and one or more states; or

(b) Between the Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more other states on the other side; or

(c) Between two or more states. In the above federal disputes, the Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction. The Supreme Court is empowered to issue writs for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of an aggrieved citizen. In this regard, the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in the sense that an aggrieved citizen can directly go to the Supreme Court, not necessarily by way of appeal. However, the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is not exclusive. The high courts are also empowered to issue writs for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights. Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court does not extend to a dispute arising out of any pre-Constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad or other similar instrument. It decides the disputes regarding the election of the president and the vice- president. In this regard, it has the original, exclusive and final authority.

 

Q2. Consider the following statements with reference to Pradhan MantriShram Yogi Maan-Dhan (PM-SYM):

1. It is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme under the Ministry of social justice and empowerment.
2. Any unorganized worker in the age group of 18-40 years can avail of benefit from it.
3. It is implemented through the Life Insurance Corporation of India and CSC eGovernance Services India Limited.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

 

S2.Ans.(b)

Sol.

The Government of India introduced a pension scheme for unorganised workers, Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-Dhan (PM-SYM), to ensure old age protection for Unorganised Workers. It is a voluntary and contributory Pension Scheme for Unorganized Workers by the Ministry of Labour& Employment. The main responsibility of the Ministry is to protect and safeguard the interests of workers in general and those who constitute the poor, deprived and disadvantaged sections of society. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

The unorganised workers mostly engaged as home-based workers, street vendors, mid-day meal workers, head loaders, brick kiln workers, cobblers, rag pickers, domestic workers, washer men, rickshaw pullers, 50 landless labourers, own account workers, agricultural workers, construction workers, beedi workers, handloom workers, leather workers, audio-visual workers and similar other occupations whose monthly income is Rs 15,000/ per month or less and belong to the entry age group of 18-40 years can avail this benefit. And also, they should not be a member of EPFO/ESIC or NPS (Govt. funded).So, Statement 2 is correct.

Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-Dhan (PM-SYM) will be a Central Sector Scheme administered by the Ministry of Labour and Employment and implemented through the Life Insurance Corporation of India and CSC eGovernance Services India Limited (CSC SPV). LIC will be the Pension Fund Manager and responsible for Pension payout. So, Statement 3 is correct.

 

Q3.Consider the following statements regarding Central Vigilance Commission

1. It is an extra constitutional body working under the Ministry of Home affairs
2. The CVC and Vigilance Commissioners shall be appointed on the recommendation of a panel of the PM, Home Minister, and Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha.
3. While Initiating inquiries it follows the Code of Criminal Procedure not the principles of natural justice

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 only
4. 1,2 and 3

 

S3.Ans.(c)

Sol.

About CVC:

It is the apex vigilance institution created via executive resolution (based on the recommendations of the Santhanam committee) in 1964 but was conferred with statutory status in 2003 by Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003.

• It submits its report to the President of India. The Commission was set up on the recommendation of the K.Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption.
• The CVC is not controlled by any Ministry/Department. It is an independent body that is only responsible for the Parliament.
• It consists of a central vigilance commissioner along with 2 vigilance commissioners.
• They are appointed by the President of India on the recommendations of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister, Union Home Minister, and Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha (if there is no LoP then the leader of the single largest Opposition party in the Lok Sabha).
• The CVC conducts its proceedings at its headquarters (New Delhi). It is vested with the power to regulate its own procedure. It has all the powers of a civil court and its proceedings have a judicial character.
• The Commission observes rules of procedure and the principles of natural justice in regard to the transaction of its business.

 

Q4.Consider the following statements

1. Lithium-ion batteries (LIB) and lead-acid batteries (LAB) can be used for energy storage in electronics and off-grid power supply.
2. Unlike lithium-ion batteries, sodium-ion batteries are non-rechargeable.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S4.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Two dominant commercial options of energy storage in electronics and off-grid power supply in India are lithium-ion batteries (LIB) and lead-acid batteries (LAB). Sodium- ion batteries (SIBs) used in Electric Vehicles are limited at present but demand is high due to its foreseeable future. So, statement 1 is correct.

• LABs and LIBs are hugely popular owing to their affordability, material accessibility and recycling rates. SIBs have higher operational safety than LIBs and LAB, making their temperature endurance higher than other battery chemistries.
• One salient safety advantage of Sodium Ion Batteries over typical Li-ion batteries is that they can be stored or transported at an empty energy state (0 V). On the contrary, it is necessary to transport the Li-ion batteries at a defined charge state (30%) to prevent the dissolution of the copper current collector. This transportation condition presents a safety risk. LABs are explosive in nature as well.
• SIBs are rechargeable like LIBs and require sodium ion movement between electrodes during the charging and discharging of the battery. So, statement 2 is not correct.

 

Q5. With reference to National Monuments Authority (NMA) in India, consider the following statements:

1. It is a statutory body established under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains (Amendment and Validation) Act, 2010.
2. It makes recommendations to the Central Government for grading protected monuments and protected areas declared as of national importance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S5.Ans.(c)

Sol.

• National Monuments Authority (NMA) under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India has been setup as per provisions of The Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains (AMASR) (Amendment and Validation) Act, 2010 which was enacted in March, 2010. So, statement 1 is correct.
• Several functions have been assigned to the NMA for the protection and preservation of monuments and sites through management of the prohibited and regulated area around the centrally protected monuments.
• Functions and powers of NMA:- .
• Make recommendations to the Central Government for grading and classifying protected monuments and protected areas declared as of ‘national importance’. So, statement 2 is correct.
• To recommend actions to the competent authority for grant of permission.
• One amongst these responsibilities of NMA is also to consider grant of permissions to applicants for construction related activity in the prohibited and regulated area.

 

Q6.Which one of the following statements regarding the evolution of courts in India is not correct?

(a) Warren Hastings established Diwani Adalat for civil matters and Faujdari Adalat for criminal matters.

(b) Warren Hastings appointed collectors to deal with revenue and civil matters.

(c) Lord Cornwallis abolished Fauzdari courts and established circuit courts.

(d) Under the Regulating Act of 1773, Supreme Court at Calcutta was established, which later became the Supreme Court of India.

 

S6.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Under the Regulating Act of 1773, a Supreme Court was established at Calcutta which was competent to try all British subjects within Calcutta and the subordinate factories, including Indians and Europeans. In 1774, the Supreme Court was established by a Royal Charter. The Government of India Act of 1935 provided for the esatblishment of a Federal Court at Delhi. Then, after India attained independence in 1947, the Constitution of India came into being on 26 January 1950 according to which the Supreme court of Calcutta was converted into the High Court of Calcutta and the Federal Court at Delhi was converted in to the Supreme court of India. Hence, the present Supreme Court of India was not the Supreme Court that was established at Calcutta under the Regulating Act of 1773. So, Statement 4 is not correct.

 

Q7. Consider the following statements

1. Bar Council Act of India defines two classes of advocates namely senior advocates and other advocates
2. Senior judges are assigned by the Full Court on the basis of simple majority held by secret ballot
3. The Chief Justice of India or any other judge could recommend the name of an advocate for designation to the committee

Choose the correct answer using the code given below

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1 only

 

S7.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Under Section 16 of the Advocates Act 1961 two classes of advocates are classified; Senior Advocate and Junior or those who are not designated as seniors. A senior advocate is not permitted to appear without an Advocate-on-record or any junior. The proposal for designation is published on the official website of the concerned court, inviting suggestions and views. After that, the permanent secretariat forwards these proposals to the permanent committee for scrutiny. The committee then interviews the candidate and makes an overall evaluation based on years of practice, pro-bono work undertaken, judgments, publications, and a personality test. Once a candidate’s name is approved, it will be forwarded to the Full Court to decide on the basis of the majority. If the candidate gets the apt votes, then he is allowed to be designated as a senior advocate but if rejected then the applicant can send the application again only after the lapse of two years. The Full Court can also recall the designation of a senior advocate. The CJI or any other judge could recommend the name of an advocate for designation. Alternatively, advocates could submit their applications, to be evaluated on criteria like 10-20 years of legal practice as an advocate, district judge, or judicial member of an Indian tribunal

 

Q8. Which one of the following statements is not correct with reference to the Black Soils in India?

(a) The colouration of the Black soil is due to the presence of Silica and Aluminium compounds

(b) The parent material of the soils are Deccan lavas, genisses and granites

(c) In the upland regions, the soil may be less fertile compared to the soils found in the valleys and lowlands

(d) Cereals, oilseed vegetables and citrus fruits are grown over the soils.

 

S8.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Black soils, also known as Regur (cotton-soil) This variety fall in the category of tropical chernozems.

• The parent material of the soils is Deccan lavas, genesis and granites that are found in Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan and make up over 5.15 square kilometres of the land area of our country.
• In the upland regions, the soil may be less fertile compared to the soils found in the valleys and lowlands. The soils are sticky when wet and crack up when dry and this process helps in the absorption of nitrogen from the atmosphere.
• Cotton, cereals, oilseed vegetables and citrus fruits are grown over the soils.
• The presence of ‘titaniferous magnetite’ compounds of iron and magnesium gives the soil its dark black colour and not due to the presence of compounds such as Silica and Aluminium.

 

Q9. Consider the following statements regarding the Fundamental Rights in India:

1. The Right to vote is a fundamental right available to citizens only.
2. Right to Know about the candidates contesting the election is a fundamental right of the voters. 3. Non-Resident Indians (NRI) are provided with Electoral Photo Identity Card(EPIC) to vote in the elections in India.

Which of the above statements is /are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

 

S9.Ans.(b)

Sol.

According to Article 325 of the Indian Constitution, “No person to be ineligible for inclusion in, or to claim to be included in a special, electoral roll-on grounds of religion, race, caste or sex”. The right to vote is enshrined in the constitution but not under part III of the constitution. Hence it is a constitutional right and not a fundamental right. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

A meaningful democracy can be developed only when qualitative representatives are elected by the people. Supreme court of India in the Resurgence India Vs Election Commission of India (2013) Case Judgement held that a voter has the elementary right to know full particulars of the candidate who is to represent him in the Parliament and such right to get information is a universally recognised natural Right flowing from the concept of the Democracy and it is an integral part of the Fundamental Right under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India. So, Statement 2 is correct.

NRI can vote in the elections of India if they have their names enrolled in the electoral roll. But the only way they can vote is by physical presence in their constituencies. An overseas (NRI) elector is not issued an EPIC as he is allowed to cast his vote in an election in the constituency, in person at the polling station on production of his original passport. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

 

Q10. Consider the following pairs :

Convention/ Treaty Purpose

1. Madrid convention – International Trademark System
2. Cartagena Protocol – Disaster Risk Reduction
3. Sendai Framework – Biological diversity

Which of the above pairs is/are matched correctly ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S10.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The Madrid System for the International Registration of Marks is governed by the Madrid Agreement, concluded in 1891, and the Protocol relating to that Agreement concluded in 1989. So, Pair 1 is correct.

The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety to the Convention on Biological Diversity is an international agreement that aims to ensure the safe handling; transport and use of living-modified organisms (LMOs) are resulting from modern biotechnology that may have adverse effects on biological diversity, also taking into account risks to human health. It was adopted on 29 January 2000 and entered into force on 11 September 2003. Currently, there are 173 countries are parties to this convention. So, Pair 2 is not correct.

The Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction 2015-2030 (Sendai Framework) was the first major agreement of the post-2015 development agenda and provides Member States with concrete actions to protect development gains from the risk of disaster. So, Pair 3 is not correct.

 

Q11. With reference to the SMILE scheme, consider the following statements:

1. It is a Central Sector Scheme.
2. It aims to promote the rehabilitation of persons engaged in begging.
3. It provides scholarships for transgender students.
4. It will be implemented by the government with the help of Voluntary Organizations.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

S11.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option d is the correct answer.

SMILE stands for Support for Marginalised Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise. It aims to provide welfare and rehabilitation to the Transgender community and the people engaged in the act of begging.

Statement 1 is correct: SMILE scheme is a Central Sector Scheme. So, it is 100% funded by the Central government. The two sub-schemes of SMILE are:

1) Central Sector Scheme for Comprehensive Rehabilitation for Welfare of Transgender Persons

2) Comprehensive Rehabilitation of persons engaged in the act of Begging.

Statement 2 is correct: The sub-scheme Comprehensive Rehabilitation of persons engaged in the act of Begging provides for welfare and rehabilitation to the people engaged in the act of begging. Statement 3 is correct: The sub-scheme Central Sector Scheme for Comprehensive Rehabilitation for Welfare of Transgender Persons provides for: 1) Scholarships for Transgender Students studying in IX and till post-graduation to enable them to complete their education. 2) Skill Development and Livelihood under the PM-DAKSH scheme.

3) Composite Medical Health and Housing facility in the form of ‘Garima Greh’

4) Provision of Transgender Protection Cell in each state will monitor cases of offences and ensure timely registration, investigation and prosecution of offences.

5) Creating a National Portal & Helpline.

Statement 4 is correct: This umbrella scheme would cover several comprehensive measures including welfare measures for both transgender persons and persons who are engaged in the act of begging with focus extensively on rehabilitation, provision of medical facilities, counseling, education, skill development, economic linkages etc with the support of State Governments/UTs/Local Urban Bodies, Voluntary Organizations, Community Based Organizations (CBOs) and institutions and others.

 

Q12. Consider the following statements regarding Magellan spacecraft

1. The Magellan spacecraft aims to map the surface of Venus
2. It was launched by NASA and JAXA as joint mission
3. Maat Mons is the planet’s highest volcano

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1,2 and 3

 

S12.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The Magellan spacecraft was a 1,035-kilogram robotic space probe launched by NASA of the United States, on May 4, 1989, to map the surface of Venus by using synthetic-aperture radar and to measure the planetary gravitational field.

Recently Researchers have said radar images taken by NASA’s Magellan spacecraft showed that a volcanic vent about 1.6 km wide on the Venusian surface expanded and changed shape over an eight-month span in 1991. The vent is situated on Maat Mons, which at about 9 km tall is the planet’s highest volcano and second-highest mountain

 

Q13.Consider the following statements regarding Starberry-Sense

1. It is a low-cost star sensor help small CubeSat class satellite missions find their orientation in space.
2. It is launched by ISRO

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S13.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Researchers at the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) have developed a low-cost star sensor for astronomy and small CubeSat class satellite missions. The star sensor named Starberry-Sense can help small CubeSat class satellite missions find their orientation in space. Any satellite needs to know where it is pointed in space, and the instrument used for this purpose is called a star sensor. The position of stars in the sky is fixed relative to each other and can be used as a stable reference frame to calculate the orientation of a satellite in orbit. This is done by correctly identifying the stars in the sky towards which the star sensor is pointed. The star sensor is essentially a celestial compass.

 

Q14. Consider the following statements regarding National Human Rights Commission:

1. It can, suo motu, inquire into violation of human rights.
2. It has the power to issue writs for violators of human rights.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S14.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct: NHRC can inquire about any violation of human rights either suo motu or on a petition presented to it.

Statement 2 is not correct: It has no power to issue writs for the punishment of violators of human rights. The NHRC can approach the Supreme Court or the High Court concerned for the necessary directions, orders, or writs. The functions of the commission are mainly recommendatory in nature. It also does not have the power to award any relief including monetary relief to the victim. NHRC is a statutory body established in 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Act. It is a multi-member body consisting of a chairman and four members.

 

Q15. Often public goods cannot be provided through the market mechanisms. This is because

1. It is difficult to separate individual users of the service.
2. The good does not decrease in value even after being consumed by additional users.
3. Both a and b
4. Neither a nor b

 

S15.Ans.(c)

Sol.

A good can be priced only when you know who is using and how much is being used, for e.g. a soap is used by one person and it is quite easy to make them pay for it. But, there are some goods where doing this is not possible. For e.g., if providing clean air is a public good, then it is not possible to separate users who consume a fixed quantity of clean air, and it is also not possible to exclude someone from using them. In such a case, a central authority or body must provide the good at either a constant price to all or make it free of cost for users. However, it should be noted that, in either of these cases, the body cannot use the market principles of pricing.

 

Q16.Consider the following statements

1. Angiosperms are non-flowering plants with perennial and naked seeds.
2. Seeds in gymnosperms develop inside an ovary which is modified to become a fruit.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S16.Ans.(d)

Sol.

• Angiosperms are also called flowering plants. The seeds develop inside an ovary which is modified to become a fruit. So, statement 2 is not correct.
• Gymnosperms bear naked seeds and are usually perennial, evergreen and woody. For example – Sequoia, Pines, and Deodar. So, statement 1 is not correct.
• The leaves in gymnosperms are well-adapted to withstand extremes of temperature, humidity and wind. In conifers, the needle-like leaves reduce the surface area. Their thick cuticle and sunken stomata also help to reduce water loss.

 

Q17. Consider the following statements :

1. In India, Northeast Trade winds are essentially sea-bearing winds.
2. In India, Southwest Trade winds are essentially land-bearing winds.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S17.Ans.(a)

Sol.

• The cold weather season in India begins in mid-November in northern India and stays till February.

During this season, the northeast trade winds prevail over the country. They blow from land to sea as land-bearing winds and hence, for most of the country, it is a dry season.

• Some amount of rainfall occurs on the Tamil Nadu coast from these winds, but from here they blow from sea to land by acting as sea bearings winds. Thus, Northeast Trade winds act both as sea bearing and land bearing winds. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
• The Monsoon season in India will advance by early June, as the low-pressure condition over the northern plains intensifies. It attracts the trade winds of the southern hemisphere. These southeast trade winds originate over the warm subtropical areas of the southern oceans. They cross the equator and blow in a south-westerly direction entering the Indian peninsula as the southwest monsoon.
• As these winds blow over warm oceans, they bring abundant moisture to the subcontinent by acting as sea-bearing winds (sea to land). These winds are strong and blow at an average velocity of 30 km per hour. Except for the extreme northwest, the monsoon winds cover the country for about a month. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

 

Q18. Consider the following statements with reference to Synthetic detergents :

1. It is a non-soap cleanser that decreases the surface tension of the water.
2. Synthetic detergent molecules consist of a hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail.
3. They cannot be used in both soft and hard water, like soap.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

 

S18.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Synthetic detergent is a synthetic substance, other than soap, that is an effective cleanser. Synthetic detergent exerts its effect by lowering the surface tension of an aqueous cleansing mixture(water). So, Statement 1 is correct.

Synthetic detergent molecules consist of a hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail. The hydrophobic, long hydrocarbon chain tail of the detergent molecule is attracted to particles of oil or grease by dispersion forces. The hydrophilic, charged or polar head of the detergent molecule is attracted to water molecules. So, Statement 2 is correct. Because of the presence of calcium and Magnesium salts in Hard water, Soaps cannot be used in Hard water. In contrast, Synthetic Detergents functions equally well as surface-active agent in hard or soft water. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Q19. Which of the following rivers have their origin in Kanchenjunga ?

1. Kosi
2. Gandak
3. Tista
4. Dhubri
5. Rapti

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a) 3, 4 and 5 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

 

S19.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Kanchenjunga, is the world’s third highest mountain, with an elevation of 28,169 feet (8,586 metres). It is situated in the eastern Himalayas on the border between Sikkim state (North-eastern India) and Eastern Nepal. The major rivers that originate from Kanchenjunga are River Teesta and River kosi (tamur kosi).

• Teesta River originates from the Zemu glacier, which is at the east side of Kanchenjunga.
• Kosi River originate in the Kanchenjunga.
• Gandak River is the north bank tributary of the Ganga in India. It rises at 7620 m in Tibet near the Nepal border.
• Rapti rises in Nepal at an elevation of about 3048 m in the Dregaunra range and it is a left bank tributary of the ghaghra.

 

Q20. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Southwest Monsoon Season in India ?

(a) There may be dry spells in between rainy periods.

(b) These winds generally strike the Indian coast in the first week of June.

(c) It gives rainfall to all parts of India except the Coastal regions of Tamil Nadu and Andhra

Pradesh.

(d) The Quantity of rainfall decreases as the monsoonal winds move towards the west over the

northern plains.

 

S20.Ans.(c)

Sol.

• Strong winds and wet spells remain for a few days during monsoon, followed by weak winds. This causes dry spells to occur between two wet spells.
• Dry spells are associated with days when winds blow parallel to the west coast.
• Dry spells occur over Western Rajasthan due to thermal conditions in the lower atmosphere, such as temperature inversion. So, Option (a) is correct.
• The arrival of the monsoon over Kolkata is 7 June and the Arabian Sea branch of the monsoon normally strikes Mumbai on 10 June.
• Both the branches of the monsoon currently merge in the Gangetic Plain and gradually extend over Bihar, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Jammu and Kashmir, and finally to Rajasthan, so that by the first week of July, i.e., within a mean interval of 29 days since the onset in Kerala.
• The south-west Monsoon is established all over India, excluding the Thar Desert. In the Thar

Desert, the monsoon reaches by the middle of July. So, Option (b) is correct.

 

Q21. Consider the following statements with respect to Bed aquiline

1. It is a drug in tablet form used to treat drug resistant tuberculosis (TB).
2. TB is an infection of the bacterium My cobacterium tuberculosis in the lungs, but often in other organs as well.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S21.Ans.(c)

Sol.

• Bedaquiline is a drug in tablet form used to treat drug-resistant tuberculosis (TB).
• Tuberculosis (TB) is an infection of the bacterium My cobacterium tuberculosis in the lungs, but often in other organs as well.
• It can be treated by strictly adhering to the doses and frequencies of drugs prescribed by a physician.
• Deviations from this schedule can lead the bacteria to become drug-resistant.
• There are two drug resistant TBs 1. Multi-drug-resistant (MDR) TB 2. Extensively-drug-resistant (XDR) TB.
• Drug-resistant TB is harder to treat.
• One important option for those diagnosed with pulmonary MDR TB is bedaquiline.

 

Q22. This type of soil erosion is common on steep slopes with large flow of water. It can lead to the formation of ravines. Contour farming can be a method to prevent this kind of erosion. The above description aptly suits which of the following types of soil erosions?

(a) Bank erosion

(b) Gully erosion

(c) Sheet erosion

(d) Tunnel erosion

 

S22.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Gully erosion occurs when water is channelled across unprotected land and washes away the soil along the drainage lines. Gully erosion is common on steep slopes. Gullies deepen with rainfall, cut the agricultural lands into small fragments, and make them unfit for cultivation. A region with a large number of deep gullies or ravines is called a badland topography. Under natural conditions, runoff is moderated by vegetation, which generally holds the soil together, protecting it from excessive runoff and direct rainfall. Contour cultivation which makes it possible to slow down runoff and spread the water over a wide area can be an effective method to prevent this type of erosion. Thus, option b is correct.

 

Q23. Consider the following statements with reference to the special provisions regarding Manipur:

1. The President can create a committee of the Manipur Legislative Assembly consisting of the members elected from the Hill Areas of the Manipur.
2. It is the responsibility of Governor to submit an annual report regarding the administration of the hill areas of Manipur to the President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S23.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option c is the correct answer. Articles 371 to 371-J in Part XXI of the constitution contain special provisions for twelve states viz., Maharashtra, Gujarat, Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Goa and Karnataka. Statement 1 is correct: Article 371-C makes the special provisions for Manipur to meet the aspirations of the people of backward regions of the states. Under article 371-C the President is authorized to provide for the creation of a committee of the Manipur Legislative Assembly consisting of the members elected from the Hill Areas of the state. The President can direct that the Governor shall have special responsibility to secure the proper functioning of that committee. Statement 2 is correct: Under article 371-C the Governor has responsibility to submit an annual report to the President regarding the administration of the Hill Areas of Manipur. The Central Government can give directions to the State Government as to the administration of the Hill Areas.

 

Q24. Consider the following statements with reference to the District Planning Committee (DPC) in India:

1. It consolidate the plans prepared by both panchayats and municipalities in the district.
2. The provisions of the composition of such committees are made by the respective State legislature.
3. 50 per cent of the members of DPC are nominated by the Governor of the respective state. Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only c

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

 

S24.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option a is the correct answer. The formation of District Planning Committees (DPCs) is mandated by the Article 243ZD of the 74th Amendment of the Constitution. District Planning Committees serve as a link between Panchayats and Urban Local Bodies.

Statement 1 is correct: District Planning Committees (DPCs) consolidate the plans prepared by panchayats and municipalities in the district, and to prepare a draft development plan for the district as a whole. Every District Planning Committee in preparing the draft development plan, deals with matters of common interest between the Panchayats and the Municipalities including spatial planning, sharing of water and other physical and natural resources, the integrated development of infrastructure and environmental conservation. It also discusses the extent and type of available resources whether financial or otherwise.

Statement 2 is correct: It is the State legislature that may make provisions with respect to the composition of district planning committees. Furthermore, state legislature can also make provisions with respect to the manner of election of members of such committees, the functions of such committees in relation to district planning and the manner of the election of the chairpersons of such committees.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The four-fifths of the members of a district planning committee are elected by the elected members of the District Panchayat and municipalities in the district from amongst themselves. (Through this we can say that, the governor does not nominate 50% of the members to DPC). The representation of these members in the committee is in proportion to the ratio between the rural and urban populations in the district

 

Q25. Consider the following statements with reference to the ‘Living Lands Charter’ sometimes seen in the news recently :

1. It is a non-binding charter of the Commonwealth of Nations.
2. It aims to support the countries to effectively deliver their commitments under the three Rio conventions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S25.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Commonwealth leaders have officially adopted the Living Lands Charter, which commits all 56 member countries to safeguard global land resources while taking coordinated action on climate change, biodiversity loss and sustainable land management. Living Lands Charter is a non-binding agreement that mandates member countries to safeguard global land resources and arrest land degradation while acting against climate change and biodiversity loss and towards sustainable management. So, Statement 1 is correct.

The charter aim is to support member countries to deliver their commitments under the three Rio conventions effectively, which are UN Convention on Biological Diversity, UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) and UN Framework Convention on Climate Change. So, Statement 2 is correct.

 

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