ଓଡିଶା ସିଭିଲ ସର୍ଭିସ୍ Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | October 3rd Week 2023

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Q1. Hyderabad Charter, sometimes seen in the news recently, is associated with which of the following?

1. To create Quality Improvement Cell in engineering colleges.
2. To create Gender Equity in Physics.
3. To provide training for illiterates to appear in NIOS examination.
4. To improve the quality of graduates coming out of colleges by imparting Industry-grade skill sets.

 

S1.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Hyderabad Charter

• It was drafted by the Gender in Physics Working Group of the Indian Physics Association in 2019.
• Its objective is to create Gender Equity in Physics.
• The gender gap in physics is higher than any other Science fields.

 

Q2. With reference to National Infrastructure Pipeline(NIP), consider the following statements:

1. NIP is an initiative to provide world-class infrastructure across the country and improve the quality of life for all citizens.

2. Under NIP Centre and state will share equal contributions in terms of capital expenditure in infrastructure projects.

3. It aims to achieve the UN’s Sustainable Development Goals related to infrastructure.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S2.Ans.(d)

Sol.

The National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) for FY 2019-25 is a first-of-its-kind, whole-of-government exercise to provide world-class infrastructure to citizens and improve their quality of life. NIP will boost the economy, generate better employment opportunities, and drive the competitiveness of the Indian economy. To draw up the NIP, a High-Level Task Force was constituted under the chairmanship of the Secretary of the Department of Economic Affairs (DEA), Ministry of Finance. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Infrastructure projects under National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) will receive an equal share of contribution in terms of capital expenditure from the Centre and States of 39% each, while the Private Sector share is 22%. •Energy (24%), Roads (19%), Urban (16%), and Railways (13%) account for over 70% of India’s estimated capital spending on infrastructure from 2020 to 2025. It has proposed spending more than 102 lakh crore on infrastructure projects by 2024-25. So, Statement 2 is correct.

National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) focus on developing infrastructure along with achieving SDG goals and improving the living standards will lead to infrastructure investment in required areas such as the redevelopment of slum neighbourhoods, urban roads, water supply coverage and quality, waste-water treatment facilities, urban mobility through public transport, etc. which takes into consideration the UN 2030 Sustainable Development Goals. So, Statement 3 is correct.

 

Q3. Which one of the following statements is not correct with reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission?

(a) It provided for an Indian Union with dominion status

(b) It assured to set up a constituent assembly to frame a new constitution after the end of the war

(c) It gave the provinces the right to detach from the Indian Union.

(d) It provided a plan for immediate transfer of power and real share in defense

 

S3.Ans.(d)

Sol.

In March 1942, The British Cabinet sent a mission headed by Stafford Cripps to India with constitutional proposals to seek Indian support for the war. The main proposals of the mission were,

• An Indian Union with a dominion status would be set up; it would be free to decide its relations with the Commonwealth and free to participate in the United Nations and other international bodies.
• After the end of the war, a constituent assembly would be convened to frame a new constitution. Members of this assembly would be partly elected by the provincial assemblies through proportional representation and partly nominated by the princes.
• The British government would accept the new constitution subject to two conditions: (i) any province not willing to join the Union could have a separate constitution and form a separate Union, and (ii) the new constitution-making body and the British government would negotiate a treaty to effect the transfer of power and to safeguard racial and religious minorities.
• And also, the defence of India would remain in British hands and the governor-general’s powers would remain intact.
• But it did not provide any plan for immediate transfer of power and also there was no real share in defence. So, Option (d) is correct.

 

Q4.Which of the statements given below is not correct?

1. Nitrogen is a macronutrient in plants and part of chlorophyll, amino and nucleic acids.
2. Nitrates can be sourced only from the atmospheric air through the leaves of plants.
3. Nitrates play a role in regulating root system architecture and flowering time.
4. Gene editing can regulate nitrate absorption and production of auxin hormone in plants.

 

S4.Ans.(b)

Sol.

• Nitrogen is one of the most important macronutrients needed for development of a plant. It is a part of chlorophyll, amino acids and nucleic acids, among others. So, statement A is correct.
• Nitrogen is mostly sourced from the soil where it is mainly absorbed in the form of nitrates and ammonium by the roots. Nitrates also play a role in controlling genome- wide gene expression that in turn regulates root system architecture, flowering time, leaf development, etc. The whole process of nitrate absorption takes place in the roots, a well-developed root system is needed for this to take place optimally. So, statement B is not correct and statement C is correct.
• At one level, it is known that the hormone auxin is responsible for well-developed roots across all plants. A number of genes are known to help with auxin production, improved nitrate transport and assimilation in plants.
• There is a new finding with a three-pronged effect, which will provide an alternate means of regulating and optimizing nitrate absorption, by way of Gene editing. Gene editing will lead to better development of the roots by regulating auxin hormone production and transport. So, statement D is correct.

 

Q5.Which of the following statements regarding ‘Right to Be Forgotten’, is correct

1. It is an intrinsic part of ‘Right to Freedom’ under Article 19 of the Constitution of India.
2. It allows a person to seek deletion of private information from the internet. 3
3. Information Technology Act, 2000 provides for the Right to be Forgotten in India.
4. All are correct

 

S5.Ans.(b)

Sol.

• The Right to be Forgotten falls under the purview of an individual’s Right to Privacy. Right to Privacy was declared a Fundamental Right by the Supreme Court which said that “the right to privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 and as a part of the freedoms guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution”.
• It allows a person to seek deletion of private information from the Internet. The concept has found recognition in some jurisdictions abroad, particularly the European Union.
• While the right is not recognised by law in India, courts in recent months have held it to be an intrinsic part of the right to privacy. At least eight petitions are pending before Delhi High Court seeking removal of private information from the Internet, court records of previous convictions and proceedings, and news reports of past events.
• The Right to be Forgotten falls under the purview of an individual’s right to privacy, which is governed by the Personal Data Protection Bill that is yet to be passed by Parliament. It is a legal principle that is not yet backed by statute in India. (Information Technology Act, 2000 provides for safeguard against breaches for personal information or data from computer systems however does not provide for Right to be Forgotten).

 

Q6. Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Solar Prominence’

1. They are large, loop-like structures on the edge of the solar disk sometimes stand out brightly against the dark background of space.
2. They are much hotter and denser than the surrounding plasma and extend outwards into the Sun’s hot outer atmosphere, called the corona.

Select the correct statement(s)

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S6.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Solar prominences are large, looplike structures on the edge of the solar disk sometimes stand out brightly against the dark background of space. They are much cooler and denser than the surrounding plasma in the Sun’s corona. Prominences are anchored to the Sun’s surface in the photosphere, and extend outwards into the Sun’s hot outer atmosphere, called the corona. A prominence forms over timescales of about a day, and stable prominences may persist in the corona for several months, looping hundreds of thousands of miles into space

 

Q7.Consider the following statements regarding Competition (Amendment) Bill

1. The bill has reduced the time limit for approval of mergers and acquisitions from the existing 210 days to 150 days.
2. Mergers and acquisitions as entities will have to seek its approval in case a deal value is worth more than Rs 2,000 crore if the parties have a substantial business operation in India.
3. It fails to penalise entities found engaging in anti-competitive behaviour based on their global turnover.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1,2 and 3

 

S7.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The lower house of Parliament passed the Competition (Amendment) Bill, 2023 Wednesday, which seeks to amend the Competition Act, 2022. One of the major changes in the amended law is that it affords the Competition Commission of India (CCI) the ability to penalise entities found engaging in anti-competitive behaviour based on their global turnover.

So far, the penalties were decided as a percentage of erring entities’ “relevant” turnover, which typically means their annual domestic turnover.

The changes in the Competition (Amendment) Bill, 2023 afford the CCI a greater say in mergers and acquisitions as entities will have to seek its approval in case a deal value is worth more than Rs 2,000 crore, and both the parties have a substantial business operation in India.

The bill has also reduced the time limit for approval of mergers and acquisitions from the existing 210 days to 150 days.

 

Q8. With reference to the making of the Indian Constitution, which of the following statements is/are not correct?

1. The demand for a Constituent Assembly for India was accepted by the British through the August Offer.
2. The Constituent Assembly had only elected members.
3. Satyendra Prasad Sinha served as the temporary President of the Constituent Assembly.

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S8.Ans.(c)

Sol.

In 1935, the Indian National Congress (INC), for the first time, officially demanded a Constituent Assembly to frame the Constitution of India. The demand was finally accepted in principle by the British Government in what is known as the ‘August Offer’ of 1940. So, Statement 1 is correct.

The Constituent Assembly was to be a partly elected and partly nominated body. Moreover, the members were to be indirectly elected by the members of the provincial assemblies, who themselves were elected on a limited franchise. The members of the Constituent assembly were indirectly elected by the members of the provincial assemblies by the method of a single transferable vote system of proportional representations. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

The Constituent Assembly held its first meeting on December 9, 1946. Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha, the oldest member, was elected as the temporary President of the Assembly. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

 

Q9. Recently proposed by the European Union, the ‘Digital Markets Act’ is related to:

1. promotion of Digital currency
2. curbing market dominance of Big-tech giants
3. regulation of e-commerce business
4. developing Artificial Intelligence based market products

 

S9.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option b is the correct answer. Recently, Negotiators from the European Parliament and EU member states have agreed on a landmark law Digital Markets Act (DMA) to curb the market dominance of Big tech giants. The DMA’s focus is on companies termed as ‘gatekeepers’, which include Apple, Facebook, Google, etc. These companies will have to comply with the new rules. Significance of the law: 1) The law makes the digital sector fairer and more competitive in the EU market. 2) It helps prevent abusive business practices of large platforms and is compared to historic antitrust reforms to the banking, energy and telecom sectors. 3) It widens consumer choices. 4) It gives rivals a better chance to survive against the world’s powerful tech companies 5) Once implemented it sets a new precedent for tech regulation worldwide. 6) It averts years of procedures and court battles needed by EU to punish Big Tech’s monopolistic behaviour where cases can end with huge fines, but little change on how these giants do business. 7) The law will give Brussels unprecedented authority to keep an eye on decisions by the giants

 

Q10.Consider the following statements regarding imperative planning.

1. This planning process is followed by socialist economies.
2. Economic planning decisions are made through a central planning authority instead of a market system.
3. This process assumes that state and non-state actors have equitable control over economic resources.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3
4. 1, 2 and 3

S10.Ans.(a)

Sol.

In this system, allocation of resources, the mix of output and the distribution of output among the people (i.e., ‘What, How and For Whom’ problems) are determined centrally in accordance with the predetermined plans and targets. Administrative control and regulation from the central planning authority flow in all directions. Because of control over the available resources of the country by the state, resources are allocated in such a way that production becomes maximum, people get goods and services in fixed quantities at fixed prices, and the welfare of the nation gets maximized. Thus, communist China was the purest example of such planning.

 

Q11.Consider the following statements

1. He built Lal Kot fort and Anangtal Baoli.
2. He was succeeded by his grandson Prithviraj Chauhan, who was defeated by the Ghurid forces in the Battle of Tarain (present-day Haryana)
3. He was instrumental in populating Indraprastha and giving it its present name, Delhi Identify the above:

1. King Jaipal
2. Anangpal I
3. Anangpal II
4. Someshvara

 

S11.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The government has recently formed a committee to popularise the legacy of 11th-century Tomar king, Anangpal II.

Anangpal II, popularly known as Anangpal Tomar, belonged to the Tomar dynasty that ruled parts of present-day Delhi and Haryana between the 8th and 12th centuries. The capital of Tomars changed many times from being initially at Anangpur (near Faridabad) during the reign of Anangpal I (who founded the Tomar dynasty in the 8th century) to Dhillikapuri (Delhi) during the reign of Anangpal II.

excavations between 1992 and 1995 at Lal Kot and Anang Tal (in south Delhi), supposed to be built by Anangpal II. Anangpal Tomar II was succeeded by his grandson Prithviraj Chauhan, who was defeated by the Ghurid forces in the Battle of Tarain (present-day Haryana) after which the Delhi Sultanate was established in 1192.

 

Q12.Consider the following statements regarding the Brihadisvara temple

4. It is a UNESCO World Heritage site
5. It was designed during the reign of Pallavas is designed by the famous architect Sama Varma
6. It is built from blocks of granite in the Dravidian style.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1,2
2. 2,3
3. 1,3
4. 1,2,3

 

S12.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The Brihadisvara temples are situated at Thanjavur, the ancient capital of the Chola kings. King Rajaraja Chola constructed the Brihadisvara Temple in the 10^th century A.D., designed by the famous architect Sama Varma. The Cholas were great patrons of art, during their reign, as a result, the most magnificent temples and exquisite bronze icons were created in South India.

Surrounded by two rectangular enclosures, the Brihadisvara Temple (built from blocks of granite and, in part, from bricks) is crowned with a pyramidal 13-storey tower, the vimana, standing 61 m high and topped with a bulb-shaped monolith. It has been accorded with UNESCO world heritage site status

 

Q13. In case any dispute, generally, a party produces his own evidence tested by cross examination by the other side and the judge sits like an umpire and decides the case only on the basis of such material as may be produced before him by both parties. But this procedure underwent a change with the advent of-

(a) Tribunalisation of justice

(b) Public interest litigation

(c) Adversarial legal systems

(d) Inquisitorial legal systems

 

S13.Ans.(b)

Sol.

In the Adversarial legal system, the judge sits like an umpire, and the two adept advocates go toe to toe by persuading the court through compelling arguments. The judge decides the case only based on both parties’ material before him. Judicial activism is a philosophy of judicial decision-making whereby judges allow their personal views about public policy, among other factors, to guide their decisions.

The concept of judicial activism is closely related to the concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL). The judicial activism of the Supreme Court is the major factor in the rise of PIL.

Under the PIL, any public-spirited citizen or a social organisation can move the court for the enforcement of the rights of any person or group of persons who, because of their poverty or ignorance or socially or economically disadvantaged position, are themselves unable to approach the court for the remedies. So, option (b) is correct.

 

Q14. Consider the following statements with reference to the State Election Commissioner:

1. S/he is consulted by state Government during the formation of Election Tribunal.
2. The conditions of service and tenure of his office are determined by the State Legislature.
3. S/he cannot be removed from the office except in the manner prescribed for the removal of a judge of the High Court. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

 

S14.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option d is the correct answer. The Constitution of India vests in the State Election Commission, consisting of a State Election Commissioner, the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of all elections to the Panchayats and the Municipalities under the Articles 243K, and 243ZA.

Statement 1 is correct: Some of the states have provided for a provision to setup an Election Tribunal at the State level to take up election related disputes. In this regard, for example in Punjab, an Election Tribunal is constituted by the State Government in consultation with the State Election Commissioner for each district or part thereof, at the District or Sub-Divisional Headquarters.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The conditions of SEC’s service and tenure of office are determined by the governor. His conditions of service cannot be varied to his disadvantage after his/her appointment.

Statement 3 is correct: The State Election Commissioner has the status, salary and allowance of a Judge of a High Court and cannot be removed from office except in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of a High Court. The provisions of Article 243K of the Constitution, which provides for setting up of SECs, are almost identical to those of Article 324 related to the Election Commission.

 

Q15. A country-specific net zero decarbonisation will be achieved faster, and renewable-based

understanding will be enhanced by means of the alliance for industry decarbonisation. It is an initiative of

(a) United Nations Development Programme

(b) United Nations Environment Programme

(c) International Renewable Energy Agency

(d) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization

 

S15.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), co-founding partner Siemens Energy and 13 companies across all industry sectors have launched the Global Alliance for Industry Decarbonization. The new Alliance aims to accelerate net-zero ambitions and decarbonize industrial value chains to pursue the Paris Agreement climate goals. The Alliance for Industry Decarbonization was created to achieve country-specific net zero goals faster, encourage action for decarbonizing industrial value chains, and enhance understanding of renewables- based solutions and their adoption by industry. The Alliance will also strengthen dialogue and coordinate action by industrial stakeholders across the public and private sectors. Membership of the Alliance for Industry Decarbonization is open to public and private firms and stakeholders operating in energy-intensive sectors that have the ambition to decarbonize their activities along their value chains and companies with knowledge and expertise in the deployment of energy transition technologies. So, Option (c) is correct.

 

Q16. Which one of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India?

(a) An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment.

(b) A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment.

(c) An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India.

(d) A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India.

 

S16.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option d is the correct answer. Indirect transfers refer to situations where when foreign entities own shares or assets in India, the shares of such foreign entities are transferred instead of a direct transfer of the underlying assets in India. The amendments made in the Income Tax Act in 2012 clarified that if a company is registered or incorporated outside India, its shares will be deemed to be or have always been situated in India if they derive their value substantially from the assets located in India. As a result, the persons who sold such shares of foreign companies before the enactment of the Act (i.e., May 28, 2012) also became liable to pay tax on the income earned from such sale.

 

Q17. With reference to the modern history of India, which of the following statements is correct regarding the Orientalist-Anglicist Controversy?

1. It was related to abolishment of judicial disqualification based on racial distinctions.
2. It was related to the transfer of power from the British East India Company to the British Crown.
3. It was a disagreement between British and Indians over the economic drain of wealth from India.
4. It was the disagreements within the British East India Company about the nature of education that should be provided to Indians.

 

S17.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option d is the correct answer. The Orientalist-Anglicist controversy was the disagreements within the British East India Company about the nature of education that should be provided to local Indians. The Anglicists, headed by Lord Macaulay, wanted English as the medium of instruction while the Orientalists, headed by H.H. Wilson and H.T. Prinsep, supported the Indian languages. The Anglicists were of the opinion that the government spending on education should be made exclusively for modern studies while the Orientalists argued that Western sciences and literature should be taught to prepare students to take up jobs and emphasis should be placed on expansion of traditional Indian learning. The Anglicists were divided over the question of medium of instruction—one faction was for English language as the medium, while the other faction was for Indian languages (vernaculars) for the purpose.

 

Q18. Consider the following statements regarding natural farming:

1. It is a diversified farming system that integrates crops, trees, and livestock with functional biodiversity.
2. Natural farming is promoted as Bharatiya Prakritik Krishi Paddhati Programme (BPKP) under the Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY).
3. Madhya Pradesh has the largest area under natural farming in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S18.Ans.(a)

Sol.

• Union Agriculture Minister chaired the first steering committee meeting of the National Natural Farming Mission
• Natural Farming is a chemical-free alias traditional farming method. It is considered as agroecology-based diversified farming system which integrates crops, trees and livestock with functional biodiversity. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• In India, Natural farming is promoted as Bharatiya Prakritik Krishi Paddhati Programme (BPKP) under a centrally sponsored scheme- Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY). Hence statement 2 is correct.
• There are several states practicing Natural Farming. Prominent among them are Andhra Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Gujarat, Kerala, Jharkhand, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
• Gujarat has the largest area under Natural Farming (31.1%), followed by Andhra Pradesh (28.8%) and Madhya Pradesh (11%). Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• National Mission on Natural Farming aims at creating institutional capacities for documentation and dissemination of best practices and make practicing farmers as partners in promotion strategy.

 

Q19. Consider the following statements with respect to Prepaid Payment Instruments (PPI)

1. It facilitates the purchase of goods and services against the value stored on such instruments.
2. Cash can be withdrawn using open PPIs only.
3. Since closed PPIs do not permit cash withdrawal, it does not require RBI’s approval.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S19.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Prepaid Payment Instruments (PPI) on UPI

• PPIs facilitate purchase of goods and services against the value stored on such instruments.
• Value stored on them is paid by the holder using a medium (cash, debit card, credit card, etc.,)
• These are generally issued in the form of smart cards, mobile wallets, paper vouchers, internet accounts/wallets.
• Merchant Discount Rate (MDR) is a similar fee charged on merchants but for payments made by users via credit cards.
• NPCI made this proposal with suggestions from Committee on Payments and Market Infrastructures and the World Bank.
• These pay ment instruments are licensed and regulated by the Reserve Bank of India.
• RBI is the core regulator of payment systems in India.

 

Q20. Consider the following statements regarding Asset Reconstruction Company

4. The legal basis of forming an ARC in India is laid under The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016
5. ARCs are under the administrative control of RBI, are regulated by it, and are subject to its audit and inspection
6. an ARC should have a minimum net owned fund of Rs 100 cr as per the statute.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1,2
2. 2,3
3. 1,3
4. 1,2,3

 

S20.Ans.(b)

Sol.

An asset reconstruction company is a special type of financial institution that buys the debtors of the bank at a mutually agreed value and attempts to recover the debts or associated securities by itself. The asset reconstruction companies or ARCs are registered under the RBI and regulated under the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Securities Interest Act, 2002 (SARFAESI Act, 2002). The ARCs take over a portion of the debts of the bank that qualify to be recognized as Non-Performing Assets.

The business of asset reconstruction or securitization may be commenced only after obtaining a registration certificate under Section 3 of the SARFAESI Act, 2002. The main requirement in this regard is that the ‘net owned funds’ as prescribed in the RBI Act should be Rs. 100 crore or more.

 

Q21. With regards to the “misls” among the Sikhs, which of the following statements is correct?

1. Misls were groups of armed officers formed by Maharaja Ranjit Singh.
2. Misls were democratic in nature and based on the principle of equality.
3. Misls were formed to protect Punjab from the invasions of Nadir Shah.
4. None of the statements (a), (b) or (c) is correct.

 

S21.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option b is the correct answer. Misl refers to major Sikh confederacies that sought to expand Sikh rule across the Panjab in the eighteenth century, leading to significant weakening of the Mughal rule across the region. Statement a is incorrect. These are not formed by Maharaja Ranjit Singh. These are powerful confederacies of Sikhs which were organized in 12 misls and operated in different parts of the province. Statement b is correct. These misls are democratic in nature and are based on principles of equality, with all members having an equal voice in deciding the affairs of misls. Statement c is incorrect. These were formed with the withdrawal of Abdali from the Punjab. And by that time Nadir Shah already invaded. These were formed to fill the political vacuum created by the withdrawal of Ahmad Shah Abdali.

 

Q22. The term ‘Trametes maxima IIPLC-32’ sometimes seen in the news recently, is :

(a) A microbe that has been dormant at the bottom of the sea since the age of the dinosaurs

(b) A giant white bacterium on rotting leaves in saline waters of a red mangrove swamp

(c) A white-rot fungus which has the potential to cause microbial degradation of pyrene

(d) A newly discovered monogenetic parasite which completes its life cycle in a single host

 

S22.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The white-rot fungus Trametesmaxima IIPLC-32 was discovered by researchers at the CSIR-Indian Institute of Petroleum (CSIR-IIP), Dehradun, to be capable of eliminating Pyrene and other poisonous, resistant, and cancer-causing Polycyclic Aromatic Hydrocarbons (PAHs) from the environment.

• Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs)-chemical compounds containing only carbon and hydrogen—composed in multiple aromatic rings. They occur naturally in crude oil, coal and gasoline.
• The researchers used a serotome analysis and a Gas chromatographic-mass spectrometer. •Gas chromatographic-mass spectrometric determines the pyrene degradation pathway, and understanding the pyrene degradation mechanism was made possible by identifying prominent metabolites and serotome analysis. •Pyrene is a highly toxic, recalcitrant, and carcinogenic Polycyclic aromatic Hydrocarbons (PAH) in the environment. Pyrene, possessing four fused benzene rings, is a parent class of Polycyclic Aromatic Hydrocarbons (PAHs). So, option (c) is correct.

 

Q23. In the context of recent Volcanic eruptions, Consider the following pairs: Volcano Location

1. Kavachi volcano : Solomon Islands
2. Kerinci Volcano : Indonesia
3. Maunt Loa : Philippines

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S23.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Kavachi is one of the most active submarine volcanoes in the southwest Pacific Ocean, located south of Vangunu Island in the Solomon Islands. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.

Mount Kerinci is an active stratovolcano and the highest mountain in Sumatra, Indonesia. Kerinci is more active than most Indonesian volcanoes, with nearly annual phreatic eruptions. Recently it erupted in October 2022. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.

Mauna Loa is one of five volcanoes that form the Island of Hawaii in the U.S. state of Hawaii in the Pacific Ocean. Mauna Loa is the world’s largest active volcano and it erupted after 38 years in November 2022. It is the quintessential shield volcano in its shape— signified by broad, rounded slopes and makes up roughly 51% of Hawaii Island. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.

 

Q24. With reference to Filariasis disease, consider the following statements:

1. It is commonly known as Cellulitis.
2. It is one of the diseases occurring in tropical areas.
3. It is caused by infection with parasites classified as nematodes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S24.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Filariasis is commonly known as elephantiasis. Statement 2 and 3 are correct. It is one of the diseases occurring in tropical areas. It is caused by infection with parasites classified as nematodes

 

Q25. Consider the following statements regarding landslides:

1. Slump is the rapid rolling or sliding of earth debris without backward rotation of mass.
2. Debris slide is the slipping of one or several units of rock debris with a backward rotation.
3. Rock slide is the sliding of individual rock masses down bedding, joint or fault surfaces.
4. Creep is the process of slow downslope movement of material under gravity.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 3 and 4 only

 

S25.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Landslides are relatively rapid and perceptible movements. The materials involved are relatively dry. The size and shape of the detached mass depends on the nature of discontinuities in the rock, the degree of weathering and the steepness of the slope. Depending upon the type of movement of materials several types are identified in this category.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Slump is slipping of one or several units of rock debris with a backward rotation with respect to the slope over which the movement takes place.

Statement 2 is incorrect and statement 3 is correct: Rapid rolling or sliding of earth debris without backward rotation of mass is known as debris slide. Debris fall is nearly a free fall of earth debris from a vertical or overhanging face. Sliding of individual rock masses down bedding, joint or fault surfaces is rockslide. Over steep slopes, rock sliding is very fast and destructive. Slides occur as planar failures along discontinuities like bedding planes that dip steeply.

Statement 4 is correct: Creep is the slow downslope movement of material under gravity. It generally occurs over large areas.

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