ଓଡିଶା ସିଭିଲ ସର୍ଭିସ୍ Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | October 4th Week 2023

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Q1. Consider the following statements with reference to Financial Services Institutions Bureau(FSIB):

1. It is a government body set up under the Department of public enterprises.
2. FSIB was established in place of the Banks Board Bureau.
3. It improves the Governance framework and leadership quality in financial institutions in the public sector.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 only

 

S1.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB) is an autonomous government body set up under the Department of Financial Services.

• The FSIB will recommend persons for appointment as full-time directors and non-executive chairpersons on the Boards of financial services institutions. So, Statement 1 is not correct
• Bank Boards Bureau (BBB) was an self-governing autonomous body of the Central Government which was established in 2016 to overhaul the functioning of the public sector banking system in India.
• Its headquarters was at the Central Office of Reserve Bank of India, Mumbai.
• Following the ruling of the Delhi High Court that BBB was declared an incompetent authority a new autonomous body called the Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB) was established by the central government which replaces the Banks Board Bureau. So, Statement 2 is correct
• The Bureau is focused on improving the Governance framework and leadership quality in financial institutions in the public sector.
• The governance framework emphasizes substance over form to improve long-term value in public sector financial institutions.
• Its mission is to improve and promote excellence in Corporate Governance in Public Sector Financial Institutions. So, Statement 3 is correct

 

Q2. Consider the following statements with reference to the Anusilan Samity

1. It was a secret revolutionary society operating in Bengal.
2. It was founded by Satish Chandra Pramatha Mitra.
3. Aurobindo Ghose, Surendranath Tagore, Jatindranath Banerjee, and Sarala Devi were associated with Anusilan Samity.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S2.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Anusilan Samiti was a prominent secret revolutionary society operating from Bengal in the 20th century with a mission to overthrow colonial rule and give momentum to India’s struggle for freedom. So, Statement 1 is correct.

It was founded by Satish Chandra Pramatha Mitra, Aurobindo Ghose, and Sarala Devi, which was one among the many illustrious institutions from the pious land of Bengal that shaped the nation’s conscience through nationalist writings, publications, and emphasis on Swadeshi, whereby legends like Deshabandhu Chittaranjan Das, Surendranath Tagore, Jatindranath Banerjee, Bagha Jatin were also associated with Anusilan Samity. So, Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

 

Q3. Which of the following effects are likely to be observed on Human body in space?

1. Upward shift in the fluids of body to the head in microgravity
2. Reduced bone density and muscle size
3. Pressure on the eyes and vision problems

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S3.Ans.(d)

Sol.

• Scientists have learned that without Earth’s gravity, human body weight-bearing bones lose density during spaceflight. So, point 2 is correct.
• Moreover, the fluids in the body shift upward to the head in microgravity, which may put pressure on the eyes and cause vision problems. So, points 1 and 3 are correct.
• If preventive or countermeasures are not implemented, crews may experience an increased risk of developing kidney stones due to dehydration and increased excretion of calcium from their bones.
• The cardiovascular system also experiences many changes. Without gravity pulling blood towards our feet, astronauts experience a fluid shift that causes more blood to pool in the upper body. This can affect the cardiovascular system and vision.
• Radiation is also a large health concern for astronauts as the further they travel from Earth the greater exposure to the sun’s radiation and increased cancer risk.
• Spaceflight changes the immune system of the body; alter in immunity may lead to autoimmune issues, in which the immune system mistakenly attacks the healthy cells, organs, and tissues present in the body.

 

Q4. Consider the following statements:

1. An accused is entitled to regular bail before the police station and magistrate court.
2. Anticipatory bail can be granted for a non-bailable offense.
3. Interim bails are granted for a short period till the main bail application is pending before court. Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S4.Ans.(d)

Sol.

• Depending upon the stage of the criminal matter, there are commonly three types of bail provision available in India under Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC):
• Regular bail- It is generally granted to a person who has been arrested or is in police custody. A bail application can be filed for the regular bail under section 437 and 439 of Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC). The Accused is entitled for Bail as a matter of right, may be before Police station itself, or if forwarded to Magistrates Court, before Magistrates court. So, statement 1 is correct.
• Anticipatory bail- It is granted under section 438 of CrPC either by session court or High Court. An application for the grant of anticipatory bail can be filed by the person who discerns that he may be arrested by the police for a non-bailable offense. So, statement 2 is correct.
• Interim bail- It is granted for a short period of time and it is granted before the hearing for the grant of regular bail or anticipatory bail. So, statement 3 is correct.
• Though there isn’t any separate law in the Indian legal system that defines bail, the related provisions are mentioned in the CrPC and punishments under the IPC including categorisation of offenses as bailable and non-bailable.

 

Q5. Which of the following does not come under the purview of RTI act

1. CBI
2. Armed Forces
3. Political parties to disclose their financial information

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• 1 and 2
• 2 and 3
• 1 and 3
• 1,2 and 3

 

S5.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005

• Right to Information Act 2005 mandates timely response to citizen requests for government information. It is an initiative taken by Department of Personnel and Training, Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
• It aims to provide a RTI Portal Gateway to the citizens for quick search of information. Features It shall apply to Public Authorities.
• All citizens shall have the right to information, subject to provisions of the Act. Constitutional authorities except intelligence and security organizations comes under purview of this act.
• CBI, NIA and National Intelligence Grid are included in the Second Schedule to RTI Act, and therefore, CBI is not liable to furnish any information under RTI.
• Constitutional authorities such as the Union and state executives, Union and state Council of Ministers, the President and Governors, Parliament and state legislatures, Election Commission, etc A person’s details of Roll number, Father’s name and marks scored in a university can’t be disclosed to a third party through RTI Act.
• The political parties are autonomous bodies and do not come within the ambit of RTI.
• Presently, all the four branches of armed force (Army, Navy, Airforce & Coast Guard) are under complete purview of RTI like any other civil government agency. Political parties cannot disclose their internal functioning and financial information under the Right to Information Act. This is because the RTI may hamper their smooth functioning and become a weak spot for rivals with malicious intentions to take advantage of.

 

Q6. Consider the following statements: Assertion

(A): The right to marry the person of one’s choice is an example of Classical Liberalism.

Reason (R): Classical Liberalism always privileges the rights of the individuals over community values.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are individually true, and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of ‘A.’

(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are individually true, but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of ‘A.’

(c) ‘A’ is true, but ‘R’ is false

(d) ‘A’ is false, but ‘R’ is true

 

S6.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Classical liberalism, which developed in the 19th century, is a political and economic ideology that advocates the protection of civil liberties and laissez-faire(allow to do) economic freedom by limiting the power of the government. It always privileges the rights of the individuals over demands of social justice and community values. Whereas the Right to marry the person of one’s choice is an individual right. Without concern about community values, marrying the person of one’s choice is the perfect example of classical liberalism. Thus, Assertion and Reason are individually true and the reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. So, Option (a) is correct.

 

Q7. Consider the following statements in context of the recently adopted Sustainable Public Procurement policy:

1. It was launched by the Government e-Marketplace (GeM) in association with United Nations Framework

Convention on Climate change (UNFCCC).

2. The Policy allows the option of reverse auction, where seller can quote a future buyback price of the product.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S7.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option b is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Sustainable Public procurement policy was launched not in association with UNFCCC but with United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). GeM in association with UNEP launched an initiative of sustainable public procurement policy to promote environment-friendly policy.

Statement 2 is correct: The new feature called reverse auction (buyback option) was introduced in this initiative. It permits sellers to quote the price of new products along with the price of buyback for the same product. For instance, if the government buys Air conditioner from a seller, then the seller needs to quote the buyback price of AC after it becomes obsolete. This way disposal of electronic waste can be made safe.

 

Q8. Consider the following comparison between the Central Sector Scheme and Centrally Sponsored

Scheme:

1. Central Sector Schemes are implemented by the Central government while the Centrally Sponsored Schemes are implemented by the State governments.
2. Central Sector Scheme is formulated on subjects mentioned in Union list only while the Centrally Sponsored Scheme is formulated on subjects mentioned in State list only.
3. Central Sector Scheme is fully funded by the Central government while the Centrally Sponsored Scheme is divided between the Centre and States.
4. MGNREGA is a Central Sector Scheme while Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1, 2 and 3 only
4. 3 and 4 only

 

S8.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option a is the correct answer. Central welfare schemes, implemented by the government to provide financial and other aids to individuals who cannot support themselves, can be categorized into two sections — centrally sponsored schemes and central sector schemes. Statement 1 is correct: Central Sector Schemes are the government schemes which are designed, planned and implemented by the Central government. Whereas the implementation of Centrally Sponsored Schemes is made under the union territory or state government. Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS) are implemented by state governments of India but are largely funded by the Central Government with a defined State Government share.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Central Sector Scheme is formulated mainly on subjects in Union List while the Centrally Sponsored Scheme focuses on subjects in State List. Centrally Sponsored Scheme may also be formed for Concurrent List.

Statement 3 is correct: Central Sector Schemes are the schemes that are entirely and directly funded by the Central government. Whereas Centrally Sponsored Scheme is divided into three parts (a) core of the core (b) core and (c) optional. These are divided on the basis of the financial involvement of the states. Statement 4 is incorrect: Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana is a Central Sector Scheme while the MGNREGA is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. The MGNREGA scheme which comes under the core of the core group will see the state pooling in 25% of funds whereas the rest is taken care of by the Centre.

 

Q9. With reference to Mica, consider the following statements:

1. Its composed of a series of plates that can be easily separated into thin sheets.
2. It has a low power loss factor and can sustain high voltages.
3. Andhra Pradesh is India’s largest mica producer.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

 

S9.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option (d) is correct: Mica is a mineral made up of a series of plates or leaves. It splits easily into thin sheets. These sheets can be so thin that a thousand can be layered into a mica sheet of a few Centimetres high. Mica can be clear, black, green, red yellow or brown. Due to its excellent Di-electric strength, low power loss factor, insulating properties and resistance to high Voltage, mica is one of the most indispensable minerals used in electric and electronic Industries. Andhra Pradesh is India’s largest mica producer. Mica deposits are found in the northern edge of the Chota Nagpur plateau. Koderma Gaya – Hazaribagh belt of Jharkhand is the leading producer.

 

Q10.The Battle of Issus was fought between-

1. Alexander and Emperor Cyrus
2. Alexander and Porus
3. Alexander and Persian king Xerxes
4. Alexander and the Persian king Darius

 

S10.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Alexander(III) the Great was the son of Phillip, the ruler of Macedon. He succeeded his father to the throne of Macedon in 336 B.C. The Greeks and the Persians had fought for supremacy since the 5th century B.C. The Persians invaded Greece. This rivalry continued till Alexander’s time. Alexander defeated the Persian king Darius in 334 B.C. at the Battle of Issus. Then he conquered Syria easily and occupied the Gaza strip, Egypt, Babylon, Susa and Persepolis from the Persians one after another. In 327 B.C. Alexander set out from Bactria to conquer India.

 

Q11. Consider the following statements with reference to the Tidal Vegetation in India

1. It is found in abundance in the lower Ganga delta of West Bengal
2. They are practically evergreen with thin leaves
3. Palm, keora, and agar are some important species of tidal forest

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S11.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Tidal vegetation grows mainly in the deltaic regions of the Ganga, Mahanadi, Godavari, and Krishna which are flooded by tides and high sea waves. Mangrove is the representative of this type of vegetation. Sundari is the typical tree of tidal forests and is found in abundance in the lower Ganga delta of West Bengal. This is the reason why it is popularly known as Sunderban. It is known for its hard and durable timber. So, Statement 1 is correct.

These tidal areas are characterized by mud, silt, and water accumulated on the surface. Roots and branches of the trees are submerged under water for a specific period. They are also called mangrove forests and are evergreen with thick leathery leaves. So, Statement 2 is not correct. The deltas of the Ganga, the Mahanadi, the Krishna, the Godavari, and the Kaveri are covered by such vegetation. In the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta, Sundari trees are found, which provide durable hard timber. Palm, coconut, keora, agar, etc., also grow in some parts of the delta. So, Statement 3 is correct.

 

Q12. Who/Which can authorise the use official language of the state, in the proceedings in the high

court of the state ?

(a) The Governor of the State

(b) The Chief Justice of concerned High Court

(c) The State legislature

(d) The Parliament

 

S12.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The Governor of a state, with the previous consent of the President can authorize the use of Hindi or any other official language of the state in the proceedings in the high court of the state, but not with respect to the judgements, decrees and orders passed by it. In other words, the high court’s judgements, decrees and orders must continue to be in English only (until Parliament otherwise provides). Similarly, a state legislature can prescribe the use of any language (other than English) with respect to bills, acts, ordinances, orders, rules, regulations or bye-laws. Still, a translation of the same in the English language is to be published. So, Option (a) is correct.

 

Q13. The term “Smart pills” seen in the media is related to which one of the following ?

(a) It is a medication equipped with edible electronic sensors that treat cancer cells at targeted places.

(b) It is a non-invasive male sterilization method using digital pills.

(c) It is a nano-level electronic device that diagnoses intestinal tract disorders.

(d) None of the above

 

S13.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The term “smart pills” (also known as a capsule endoscopy) refers to nano-level miniature electronic devices that are shaped and designed in the mold of pharmaceutical capsules but perform highly advanced functions such as sensing, imaging and drug delivery. Smart pills may include biosensors and chemical sensors. Once they are swallowed, they travel along the gastrointestinal tract to capture information that is otherwise difficult to obtain and then are easily eliminated from the system. Their classification as ingestible sensors makes them distinct from implantable or wearable sensors.

 

Q14. Arrange the following states in a chronological order according to the year of formation as a state?

1. Nagaland
2. Tripura
3. Himachal Pradesh
4. Mizoram

Which of the following option given below is correct?

(a) 1-2-3-4

(b) 1-3-2-4

(c) 3-1-2-4

(d) 3-2-1-4

 

S14.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option b is the correct answer. The political map of India underwent continuous changes after the large-scale reorganization of the states in 1956 due to the pressure of popular agitations and political conditions. The demand for the creation some more states on the basis of language or cultural homogeneity resulted in the bifurcation of existing states.

Option 1: The State of Nagaland was formed by taking the Naga Hills and Tuensang area out of the state of Assam in 1963. This was done to satisfy the movement of the hostile Nagas. However, before giving Nagaland the status of the 16th state of the Indian Union, it was placed under the control of governor of Assam in 1961.

Option 3: On the recommendation of the Shah Commission (1966), the Punjabi-speaking areas were constituted into the unilingual state of Punjab and the Hindi-speaking areas were constituted into the State of Haryana and the hill areas were merged with the adjoining union territory of Himachal Pradesh. In 1971, the union territory of Himachal Pradesh was elevated to the status of a state (18th state of the Indian Union).

Option 2: In 1972, in Northeast India the two union territories of Manipur and Tripura and the sub-state of Meghalaya got statehood and the two union territories of Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh (originally known as North-East Frontier Agency–NEFA) came into being. With this, the number of states of the Indian Union increased to 21 (Manipur 19th, Tripura 20th and Meghalaya 21st).

Option 4: In 1987, three new States of Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa came into being as the 23rd, 24th and 25th states of the Indian Union respectively. The union territory of Mizoram was conferred the status of a full state as a sequel to the signing of a memorandum of settlement (Mizoram Peace Accord) in 1986 between the Central government and the Mizo National Front, ending the two-decade-old insurgency

 

Q15. With reference to Asia Energy Transition Initiative, consider the following statements :

1. It is a brainchild policy of the European Union and the US to support sustainable economic growth and carbon neutrality in Asia.
2. It initially targeted supporting countries in the Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN) pushing towards net-zero carbon emissions.
3. Now, this initiative has been extended beyond ASEAN to include India also.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S15.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Japan announced the “Asia Energy Transition Initiative (AETI),” which includes support for realizing pragmatic energy transitions in Asia. It aims for technology development and deployment, utilizing the achievement of a 2 trillion-yen fund for offshore wind power generation, fuel ammonia, hydrogen, etc. To achieve both sustainable growth and carbon neutrality in Asia, where energy demand will continue to grow, various and pragmatic energy transitions that reflect each country’s different circumstances, and utilize all energy sources and all technologies, are essential. Thus, it is not a brainchild policy of the European Union and the US. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

Japan’s ‘Asia Energy Transition Initiative’ initially targeted supporting countries in the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) pushing towards net-zero carbon emissions, including $10 billion in finance for renewable energy, energy efficiency, and liquefied natural gas (LNG) projects. Japan will support projects and activities designated in each country’s roadmaps toward carbon neutrality and present the new concept of the “Asian version of Transition Finance.” This initiative includes specific support for ASEAN countries in the Asian roadmap toward carbon neutrality, which recently expanded to include India. So, Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

 

Q16. ‘E-transmission Moratorium’ sometimes seen in the news recently, is related to the affairs of:

(a) World Economic Forum

(b) International Monetary Fund

(c) World Trade Organization

(d) International Telecommunication Union

 

S16.Ans.(a)

Sol.

• Recently, India strongly opposed the continuation of a Moratorium (temporary stopping of activity, especially by official agreement) on customs duties on Electronic transmission (E-transmission) as the Ministerial meeting at the World Trade Organisation (WTO) meeting in Geneva as it adversely impacts developing countries.
• Members of WTO had agreed not to impose customs duties on electronic transmissions since 1998, and the moratorium has been periodically extended at successive ministerial conferences (MC), high member body.
• India is witnessing an exponential rise in imports of electronic transmissions, mainly of items like movies, music, video games and printed matter, some of which could fall within the scope of the moratorium.
• India and South Africa, on several occasions, have asked the organization to revisit the issue and highlighted the adverse impact of the moratorium on developing countries. All the issues on the e- commerce moratorium need to be revisited with the utmost urgency and in its entirety.
• Hence, the E-transmission moratorium is related to the affairs of the World Trade Organisation. So, Option (c) is correct.

 

Q17. With reference to the Rules of Origin, consider the following statements :

1. It will determine the national source of a product.
2. General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade- GATT has rules to find the origin of goods in international trade and commerce.

3. It is used for government procurement, trade statistics and anti-dumping safeguard measures.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

 

S17.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Rules of origin are the criteria needed to determine the national source of a product. It is a fact that duties and restrictions, in several cases, depend upon the source of imports. There is wide variation in the practice of governments about the rules of origin. In a globalizing world, it has become even more important that a degree of harmonization is achieved in these practices of Members in implementing such a requirement. So, Statement 1 is correct.

BOTANICAL SURVEY OF INDIA (BSI) 

It was established in the year 1890 with the objectives of exploring the plant resources of the country and identifying plant species. Objectives In 1954, the Government reorganized the BSI with the objectives of

• undertaking intensive floristic surveys and collecting accurate and detailed information on the occurrence, distribution, ecology, and economic utility of plants in the country
• collecting, identifying, and distributing materials that may be of use to educational and research institutions;
• acting as the custodian of authentic collections in well-planned herbaria and documenting plant resources in the form of local, district, state, and national flora Ministry Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. . 37 The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) is a treaty minimizing barriers to international trade by eliminating or reducing quotas, tariffs, and subsidies. It was intended to boost economic recovery after World War II. But GATT has no specific rules governing the determination of the country of origin of goods in international commerce. Each contracting party was free to determine its own origin rules and could even maintain different rules of origin, which depend on the purpose of the particular regulation. So, Statement 2 is not correct. The rules of Origin can be used for various purposes, such as,
• It is used to implement measures and instruments of commercial policy, such as anti-dumping duties and safeguard measures
• It is used to determine whether imported products shall receive most-favored-nation (MFN) treatment or preferential treatment
• It is for purpose trade statistics
• It is for the application of labeling and marking requirements •It is for government procurement. So, Statement 3 is correct.

 

Q18. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to Saint Kabir and Guru Nanak?

1. While Guru Nanak was opposed to idol worship, Kabir supported it.
2. Both Kabir and Guru Nanak preached in Hindi language.
3. While Kabir preached non-violence, Guru Nanak preached a militant form of struggle against social oppression.
4. The teachings of both of them are mentioned in holy book of Sikhs, the ‘Guru Granth Sahib’.

 

S18.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option d is the correct answer.

Saint Kabir Das (1440-1518) was a very renowned saint, poet and social reformer of India who lived during the 15th century. Guru Nanak (1469-1539) was the founder and first Guru of Sikhism, was born in the year 1469, in the village of Talwandi which is located in the Punjab. Option a is incorrect: Both Kabir and Guru Nanak were against the practise of idol worship. Guru Nanak held that instead of putting our faith in the almighty who is omnipresent we are putting our faith in some statue. Kabir worshipped the Nirguna (without form) God whom he calls by several names such as Rama, Allah, Hari, Sain, Sahib, etc.

Option b is incorrect: The Bhakti movement promoted the growth of vernacular language and literature in different parts of the country. Kabir, Nanak and Chaitanya preached in their respective vernacular tongues – Kabir in Hindi, Nanak in Gurmukhi and Chaitanya in Bengali. So subsequent Bhakti literatures were compiled in these languages and many Muslim writers also translated Sanskrit works into regional languages.

Option c is incorrect: Both Kabir and Guru Nanak subscribed to the idea of nonviolence. However, Sikhism under its sixth Guru Hargobind began its transformation from a peaceful community to warrior community.

Option d is correct: The Guru Granth Sahib incorporates the teachings of both Kabir and Guru Nanak. It incorporates the writings of many Bhakti poets and Sufi saints such as Ramananda, Namadeva, Kabir and Sheikh Farid. While Adi Granth is the teachings of Guru Nanak.

 

Q19. Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘Ecological Fiscal Transfers’?

(a) It is a methodology to estimate the economic value of ecosystem products or services that contribute to the production of commercially marketed goods.

(b) It is a method to estimate cost of pollution based on what people are ready to spend to prevent the damage of the environment.

(c) It is the compensation provided to local governments for biodiversity loss due to implementation of the Union government’s projects.

(d) It is an instrument of revenue sharing scheme or intergovernmental transfers based on ecological indicators.

 

S19.Ans.(d)

Sol.

• Ecological Fiscal Transfers (EFT) transfer public revenue between governments within a country based on ecological indicators. It is a type of conditional environmental payments which involves payments from higher levels of a country’s government (e.g. national) to lower levels (e.g. state or local).
• EFTs distribute a share of intergovernmental fiscal transfers and revenue sharing schemes according to ecological indicators such as protected areas or watershed management areas etc. These conservation areas thus become a source of income for the receiving governments.Today, EFT are often seen as an instrument that incentivizes decentralized conservation efforts.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
• States are motivated to protect & restore forests as an investment in future revenue from EFTs.
• India’s 14th Finance commision announced ecological fiscal transfers in February, 2015.

 

Q20. Consider the following statements regarding Communal award

1. Opposed to separate electorates, Congress Clearly rejected the Communal award
2. Gandhi demanded that the depressed classes be elected through joint and if possible a wider electorate through universal franchise
3. The Poona Pact was accepted by the government as an amendment to the Communal Award.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1,2 and 3

 

S20.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Congress Stand Though opposed to separate electorates, Congress was not in favor of changing the Communal Award without the consent of the minorities. Thus, while strongly disagreeing with the Communal Award, Congress decided neither to accept it nor to reject it.

Gandhi demanded that the depressed classes be elected through joint and if possible a wider electorate through the universal franchise, while expressing no objection to the demand for a larger number of reserved seats.

Poona Pact Signed by B.R. Ambedkar on behalf of the depressed classes on September 24, 1932, the Poona Pact abandoned the idea of separate electorates for the depressed classes. But the seats reserved for the depressed classes were increased from 71 to 147 in provincial legislatures and to 18 percent of the total in the Central Legislature. The Poona Pact was accepted by the government as an amendment to the Communal Award

 

Q21. Consider the following statements :

1. BPaL is an oral regimen for treating extensively drug-resistant tuberculosis.
2. TB is a potentially serious infectious parasitic disease.
3. TB Alliance is a not-for-profit organization dedicated to the discovery, development and delivery

of affordable tuberculosis drugs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

 

S21.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Bedaquiline, pretomanid and linezolid (BPaL) is a new all-oral, 6-month regimen comprised of bedaquiline, the new drug pretomanid and linezolid, endorsed by the World Health Organization (WHO) for use under operational research conditions in patients with extensively drug-resistant tuberculosis. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Tuberculosis (TB) is a potentially serious disease caused by a bacterium called Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The bacteria usually attack the lungs, but TB bacteria can attack any part of the body, such as the kidney, spine, and brain. The germs spread from person to person through the air. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

TB Alliance is a not-for-profit product development partnership (PDP) uniquely positioned to leverage a global network of public and private partners to advance TB drug development most efficiently. PDPs build partnerships between the public, private, academic, and philanthropic sectors to drive the development of new products for diseases of poverty. So, Statement 3 is correct.

 

Q22. Consider the following statements with respect to La Nina

1. La Nina refers to a cooler than average sea surface temperatures in the equatorial Pacific region.
2. In the Indian context, La Nina is associated with good rainfall during the monsoon season.

Which of the followings statement(s) is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S22.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The National Centres for Environmental Prediction (NCEP) of the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), US, has declared that the prolonged La Nina event has finally ended.

• La Nina – La Nina or “Little girl” is the opposite of El Nino.
• La Nina sees cooler than average sea surface temperatures in the equatorial Pacific region.
• Trade winds are stronger than usual, pushing warmer water towards Asia.
• The La Nina weather pattern is one of the three phases of the El Nino Southern Oscillation (ENSO).
• T riple Dip La Nina – It is a weather phenomenon that La Nina has formed for the third consecutive y ears in the Pacific. Effects ofLa Niña Phenom enon
• Weather – Pacific cold waters close to the Americas push jet streams (narrow bands of strong winds in the upper atmosphere) northwards.
• La Nina leads to drier conditions in Southern U.S.
• La Nina has been associated with heavy floods in Australia.
• In the Indian context, La Nina is associated with good rainfall during the monsoon season.
• Ocean water – On the American west coast, upwelling increases, bringing nutrient-rich water to the surface.

 

Q23. With reference to ‘Global Biofuels Alliance’ consider the following statements:

1. The alliance will be established by US, Australia and South Africa.
2. The aim of the alliance is to facilitate cooperation and intensify the use of sustainable biofuels.
3. The alliance will work in collaboration with and complement the relevant existing regional and international agencies as well as initiatives in the bioenergy.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S23.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The alliance will be established by India, Brazil and US. Statement 2 and 3 are correct. The aim of the alliance is to facilitate cooperation and intensify the use of sustainable biofuels. The alliance will work in collaboration with and complement the relevant existing regional and international agencies as well as initiatives in the bioenergy

 

Q24. It is common to find meandering courses over floodplains and delta plains of rivers because of: 1. Gentle gradient of river valley

2. Active valley deepening action of river
3. Rejuvenation of river Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S24.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Incised or Entrenched Meanders In streams that flow rapidly over steep gradients, normally erosion is concentrated on the bottom of the stream channel. Also, in the case of steep gradient streams, lateral erosion on the sides of the valleys is not much when compared to the streams flowing on low and gentle slopes.

Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect: Because of active lateral erosion, streams flowing over gentle slopes, develop sinuous or meandering courses. It is common to find meandering courses over floodplains and delta plains where stream gradients are very gentle. Statement 3 is incorrect: Incised meander associated with Rejuvenation: But very deep and wide meanders can also be found cut in hard rocks. Such meanders are called incised or entrenched meanders. Meander loops develop over original gentle surfaces in the initial stages of development of streams and the same loops get entrenched into the rocks normally due to erosion or slow, continued uplift of the land over which they start. They widen and deepen over time and can be found as deep gorges and canyons in hard rock areas. They give an indication on the status of original land surfaces over which streams have developed.

 

Q25. The Arab travelers such as Sulaiman and Al Masudi, who visited India in the ninth and tenth centuries A.D., wrote about the power and prestige of the _________ rulers and the vastness of their empire.

1. Pallava
2. Chera
3. Cholas
4. Pratihars

 

S25.Ans. (d)

Sol.

The Gurjara-Pratiharas were the early Rajputs who started their rule from Gujarat and southwestern Rajasthan. Later they ruled from Kannauj. Nagabhata I was the first great ruler of the dynasty.

The Pratiharas ruled over north India for more than three hundred years. The Arab travelers such as Sulaiman and Al Masudi, who visited India in the ninth and tenth centuries A.D., wrote about the power and prestige of the Pratihar rulers and the vastness of their empire

 

 

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