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Q1. Weathering, consider the following statements:
- Enhanced Rock Weathering increase ocean acidification.
- Tropical climate and perennial crops favour higher weathering rates.
Which of the above given statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
S1.Ans.(b)
Sol.
Enhanced Rock Weathering is a proposed Carbon Dioxide Removal technology involving the application of crushed silicate rocks, such as basalt, to agricultural soils with potential co-benefits for crops and soils, and mitigation of ocean acidification.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Natural rock weathering absorbs around 0.3% of global fossil fuel emissions, enhanced weathering can provide a boost to remove even more CO2 from our atmosphere. As enhanced weathering makes water more alkaline, it can help counteract ocean acidification. And adding minerals to soils can boost nutrient levels, improving crop yields and helping restore degraded agricultural soils
Statement 2 is correct: Indonesia ranks second in fossil fuel emissions per unit of energy behind India, ranks low in human health impacts, because its tropical climate and perennial crops favour higher weathering rates, meaning that less grinding is required to achieve an equivalent amount of Carbon dioxide removal.
Q2. Which of the following policy exclusively regulates management and handling of the Solar Waste generated in India?
(a) The Photovoltaic Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2022
(b) The E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2016
(c) Hazardous and Other Waste Management Rules, 2016
(d) None of the above
S2.Ans.(d)
Sol.
While India ramps up its solar power installation, it does not yet have a firm policy on managing waste that results from used solar panels or from the manufacturing process. The International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA) last December 2021 estimated that the global photovoltaic waste will touch 78 million tonnes by 2050, with India expected to be one of the top five photovoltaic-waste creators. India currently considers solar waste a part of electronic waste and does not account for it separately. While India ramps up its solar power installation, it does not yet have a firm policy on managing waste that results from used solar panels or from the manufacturing process.
Q3. Which of the following is not a reason for the ineffective performance of Panchayati Raj Institutions in India?
(a) Few taxation powers have been devolved by the states to the Panchayati Raj Institutes
(b) State legislatures tend to keep powers and functions with themselves.
(c) Creation of Special Purpose Vehicles with overlapping jurisdictions.
(d) From the 10th Finance Commission (FC), the FC stopped advising the Central government on devolving funds to local governments.
S3.Ans.(d)
Sol.
Option d is the correct answer.
Option a is correct: In general, few taxation powers have been devolved by the states to the Panchayati Raj Institutes (PRIs). It has been noted in various reports like those of the CAG, the Economic Survey 2017-18, etc., that the few taxation powers that PRIs have, they are often unwilling to use them to demand appropriate taxes from the constituents. This is because the PRI leaders don’t want to disturb their harmonious relations with the people in their community.
Option b is correct: What functions are to be devolved actually to a PRI has been left by the Constitution to the discretion of the state legislatures. The subjects that may be transferred are mentioned in the 12th Schedule of the Constitution, but there is no compulsion on the state legislature, by the Constitution, to actually devolve powers related to these functions in the compulsory State Municipal Acts. So, most state legislatures tend to keep powers and functions with themselves and not give them away to PRIs. So, most PRIs don’t have the decision-making ability regarding important local issues like health, sanitation, roads, etc. thus rendering them ineffective, as they have to wait for finances and permissions from state legislatures which not only is time consuming, but also not centered on the needs of the local people.
Option c is correct: Parallel Bodies, such as Special Purpose Vehicles (SPV), etc. are often created with overlapping jurisdiction/ function/ power with PRIs to get a work done quickly. But their presence cramps the ability of the PRI to work and demoralizes them, while often leading to unwanted outcomes like corruption, partisan politics, elite capture, etc. Option d is incorrect: The Constitution makes provisions for both Centre (Article 280) and the states (Article 243I) to give grants and funds to PRIs. Following the seventy-third and seventy-fourth amendments to the Constitution, Finance Commissions were charged with the additional responsibility of recommending measures to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of local bodies. This has resulted in further expansion in the scope of Finance Commission grants. The Tenth Commission was the first Commission to have recommended grants for rural and urban local bodies. The 15th Finance Commission advised the Central government to devolve a record Rs 4.36,361 crore to local governments.
Q4. With reference to the Act of Good Government of India, Consider the following statements:
- The system of double government was ended by the Act for better administration.
- The legislative and executive functions were separated from the Governor general council.
- A board of control was formed to assist the secretary of state for India.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
S4.Ans.(b)
Sol.
About Act of Good Government of India:
- The Act of 1858 was enacted in the wake of the Revolt of 1857 which was also known as the First War of or the ‘sepoy mutiny’.
- Under this act, the East India Company was abolished and it transferred the powers of government, territories and revenues of Independence to the British Crown.
- The act known as the Act for the Good Government of India
- It provided that India henceforth was to be governed by, and in the name of, Her Majesty. The designation of the Governor General of India was changed to that of Viceroy of India. Viceroy was made the direct representative of the British Crown in India. The first Viceroy of India was Lord Canning
- The system of double government was ended by abolishing the Board of Control and the Court of Directors.
- A new office, Secretary of State for India, was created , vested with complete authority and control over Indian administration. The secretary of state was a member of the British cabinet and was ultimately responsible to the British Parliament.
- A 15-member Council of India was established (not the Board of Control) to assist the secretary of state for India. However, the council was made an advisory body.
- The chairman of the council was the Secretary of state. It constituted the secretary of state-in- council as a body corporate, capable of suing and being sued in India and in England.
- “The Act of 1858 was, however, largely confined to the improvement of the administrative machinery by which the Indian Government was to be supervised and controlled in England.
- The system of government that prevailed in India was not altered substantially.
- The Charter act of 1853 provides for separation of legislative and executive functions for the first time.
Q5. Which among the following is the part of revenue receipts of the Government of India?
- Dividend accrued from Public Sector Undertakings.
- Return of loans given to State governments.
- Money received by selling the assets of the Government.
- Money received through Interest on loans provided by government of India. 5. Money raised by issuing government securities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 4 and 5 only
S5.Ans.(a)
Sol.
Revenue receipts are those receipts which neither create any liability nor cause any reduction in the assets of the government. They are regular and recurring in nature and the government receives them in the normal course of activities.
- Option 1 is correct: Dividends accrued from Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) forms part of the revenue receipts of the Government of India. It forms part of the non-tax revenue receipts of the Government of India.
- Option 2 is incorrect: Recovery of loans given to others (including from State governments) forms part of the capital receipts. It is part of revenue receipts because it reduces assets of the government (loan granted by government is an asset). Also, fresh loans raised by the Government of India forms part of the capital receipts because it is liability of the government. Option 3 is incorrect: Money received by selling the assets of the Government known as the process of disinvestment forms part of the non-debt creating capital receipts.
- Option 4 is correct: Money received through Interest payments on loans forms part of the revenue receipts as it does not create any assets nor liabilities. Further grants received form part of non-tax revenue receipts of the Government of India.
- Option 5 is incorrect: Money raised by issuing government securities is also a form of raising loan by the Government of India from public/commercial banks. Thus, it forms part of the debt creating capital receipts of the government of India.
Q6. The Chinese pilgrim Hiuen Tsang visited India during the reign of:
(a) Harshavardhana, Pulakeshin II and Mahendravarman II
(b) Harshavardhana, Pulakeshin II and Narasimhavarman I
(c) Pulikeshin II, Kirtivarman I and Narasimhavarman I
(d) Harshavardhana, Mahendravarman II and Bhaskaravarman.
S6.Ans.(b)
Sol.
Option b is the correct answer.
Hiuen Tsang was a Chinese traveller who visited India during 630–643 AD and he spent time in India by collecting sacred texts and relics which he took back to China.
Option b is correct: Harshavardhana was a Pushyabhuti emperor who ruled northern India from 606 to 647 CE. Hiuen Tsang visited (630-643 AD) India during the reign of Harshavardhana, Hieun Tsang gave an account of the Harsha empire during ancient India. He stated that in the Harsha empire, perfect law and order prevailed throughout the empire, as the law-enforcing agencies were strong. Pulakeshin II (reign 610–642 AD) was the most famous ruler of the Chalukya dynasty of Vatapi, thus his reign coincided with Hien Tsan’s visit to India. Harsha sought to extend his authority southward into the Deccan. However, the Chalukya king Pulikesin II defeated Harsha and thwarted his ambition.
Narasimhavarman I (reign 630- 668) is one of the famous rulers of Pallava dynasty, thus his reign coincided with Hiuen Tsan’s visit to India. Narasimhavarman led his army and his general Paranjothi into Vatapi, defeating and killing the Chalukya king Pulakeshin II in 642 AD and he took the title of Vatapikondan (conqueror of Vatapi). Baskaravarman (reign 600–650) was the king of mediaeval Kamarupa (modern Assam) and the last of the Varman dynasty, his reign also coincides with Hiuen Tsang’s visit to India.
Option a and d are incorrect: Mahendravarman II (reign 668–669 CE) was a king of the Pallava dynasty and he succeeded Narasimhavarman. His reign was not coincided with the Hiuen Tsang’s visit (630-643 AD) to India
Option c is incorrect: Kirttivarman I (reign 566-592) was a ruler of the Chalukya dynasty of Vatapi; thus, his reign did not coincide with Hiuen Tsang’s visit (630-643 AD) to India. Kirtivarman I succeeded Pulakeshin I (reign 540–567) who was the first sovereign ruler of the Chalukya dynasty of Vatapi.
Q7. Which of the following are the advantages of currency-swap arrangements for India?
- Does not carry any exchange rate risks.
- May help in bringing down the cost of capital for Indian entities while accessing foreign capital market.
- May strengthen the Indian rupee.
- Increases the investors’ confidence in India.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
S7.Ans.(d)
Sol.
Option d is the correct answer. Currency swap arrangement is an arrangement between two friendly countries to involve in trading in their own local currencies. As per the arrangements, both countries pay for import and export trade at the pre-determined rates of exchange, without bringing in third country currency like the US Dollar.
Statement 1 is correct: These swap operations carry no exchange rate or other market risks as transaction terms are set in advance. Hence, it provides benefit to the country which is getting dollars to use reserves at any time in order to maintain an appropriate level of balance of payments or short-term liquidity. It will aid in bringing greater stability to foreign exchange and capital markets in India.
Statement 2 is correct: A currency swap is a swap that involves the exchange of cash flows denominated in two currencies. It will not only enable the agreed amount of capital being available to India on tap for use, it would also help in bringing down the cost of capital for Indian entities while accessing foreign capital market.
Statement 3 is correct: A dollar swap arrangement would help India in supporting the rupee, which has depreciated significantly against the US currency over the past few months due to various global and domestic factors. Currency swaps have emerged as an important derivative tool after the global financial crisis of 2008 to hedge the exchange rate risks.
Statement 4 is correct: Swap agreements in US dollar provide confidence to the market and prevent excess volatility in financial and foreign exchange markets. Knowledge Base: Under currency swap arrangements, a country provides dollars to a foreign central bank which at the same time provides the equivalent funds in its currency to the former based on the market exchange rate at the time of the transaction. The parties agree to swap back these quantities of their two currencies at a specified date in the future which could be the next day or even two years later using the same exchange rate as in the first transaction.
Q8. Consider the following statements regarding the Estimates Committee:
- The Rajya Sabha has no representation in this committee.
- The members are elected as per the principles of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
S8.Ans.(c)
Sol.
Option (c) is correct:
The first Estimates Committee in the postindependence era was constituted in 1950 on the recommendation of John Mathai, the then finance minister. Originally, it had 25 members but in 1956 its membership was raised to 30. All the thirty members are from Lok Sabha only. The Rajya Sabha has no representation in this committee. These members are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst its own members, according to the principles of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
Q9. Consider the following pairs: Sea Bordering country
- Adriatic Sea Montenegro
- Celebes Sea Philippines
- Molucca Sea Indonesia
- Mediterranean Sea Cyprus
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4
S9.Ans.(d)
Sol.
The Adriatic Sea is a part of the Mediterranean Sea positioned between the eastern coastline of Italy, and countries of the Balkan Peninsula, from Slovenia, South through Croatia, Montenegro, and to Albania. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
- The Celebes Sea is located in the western Pacific Ocean north of the Indonesian Island of Celebes and south of the Sulu Sea and the Philippines. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
- The Molucca Sea is a part of the western Pacific Ocean, bounded by the Indonesian islands of Celebes (west), Halmahera (east), and the Sula group (south). Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
- Cyprus is an island country located south of the Anatolian Peninsula in the eastern Mediterranean Sea. Hence, pair 4 is correctly matched.
Q10. With reference to the Asian Development Bank (ADB), consider the following statements:
- Japan has the maximum share in ADB, followed by China and India.
- All the members have equal voting rights is decision making process of ADB.
- For lending purposes, the member countries are categorized on the basis of per capita income and creditworthiness.
Which of the statements given above are incorrect?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
S10.Ans.(a)
Sol.
Option a is the correct answer. The Asian Development Bank (ADB) is a regional development bank headquartered in Manila, Philippines. The ADB aims to provide for sustainable and inclusive economic growth by financing projects in areas like education and health, while also helping improve the capital markets and business infrastructure in target countries.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Asian Development Bank has 67 members from Asia and the Pacific, of which 48 are from within Asia and the Pacific and 19 outside. Japan owns 15.677% of ADB, followed by the United States (15.567%), China (6.473%), and India (6.473%). ADB is also an official United Nations Observer.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The decision-making process of Asian Development Bank is similar to the World Bank’s process and uses a weighted voting method in which votes are awarded in proportion to members’ capital contributions (and not the equal voting rights to all the members).
Statement 3 is correct: ADB’s Classification and Graduation Policy determines the eligibility of developing member countries (DMCs) to borrow based on two main criteria, (1) per capita income and (2) creditworthiness. DMCs are classified into: (a) Group A (Concessional assistance-only): those in need of greatest concessionality and eligible for Asian Development Fund (ADF) grants (b) Group B (OCR blend): those that need some concessionality, and (c) Group C (Regular OCR only): those in need of least concessionality. India is in this group.
Q11. Which of the following Acts are associated with the communal representation?
- Indian Council Act, 1909
- Government of India Act, 1919
- Government of India Act, 1935
- Rowlatt Act, 1919
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
S11.Ans.(c)
Sol.
Option (c) is correct: The Indian Council Act, 1909 introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of ‘separate electorate’. Under this, the Muslim members were to be elected only by Muslim voters. Thus, the Act ‘legalised communalism’ and Lord Minto came to be known as the Father of Communal Electorate. The Government of India Act, 1919 extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians and Europeans. The Government of India Act, 1935 further extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for depressed classes (scheduled castes), women and labour (workers).
Q12. Consider the following pairs of different drainage patterns and their features: Drainage Patterns Features
- Dendritic The pattern develops in areas where the rock beneath the stream has no particular structure.
- Trellis Develops where sedimentary rocks have been folded and then eroded.
- Centripetal Streams radiate outwards from a central high point.
How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
S12.Ans.(b)
Sol.
Option b is the correct answer. Drainage pattern is the pattern formed by the streams, rivers, and lakes in a particular drainage basin. They are governed by the topography of the land, whether a particular region is dominated by hard or soft rocks, and the gradient of the land.
Pair 1 is correct: Dendritic pattern is also known as pinnate drainage and looks like branching of a tree. These are mainly found in regions with homogenous materials and develop where rock beneath the stream has no particular structure. This helps in easy and equal erosion in all directions. Truly dendritic systems form in V-shaped valleys.
Pair 2 is correct: Trellis drainage system is generally formed where sedimentary rocks have been folded or tilted and then eroded to varying degrees. The short subsequent streams meet the main stream at right angles. Through soft rocks differential erosion paves the way for tributaries.
Pair 3 is incorrect: In radial drainage system, the streams radiate outwards from a central high point. For example, rivers originating from Amarkantak range forms radial system. In centripetal drainage system, rivers discharge their waters from all directions into a lake or depression. The centripetal drainage system is similar to the radial drainage system, with the only exception that radial drainage flows out versus centripetal drainage flows in.
Q13. The ‘Annie Larsen Affair’ is an event related to Modern Indian History. In this context, which of the following options describes the event? It is related with the-
(a) spreading of Communist movement in India with the help of Russia in 1920s.
(b) hidden support given by some Irish revolutionaries to the Home Rule Legue Movement of Annie Beasant.
(c) Indo- German plot to send weapons to India for an armed revolt against British during first world war.
(d) efforts of Indian National Army to overturn the British government in India with the help of Japan during second world war.
S13.Ans.(c)
Sol.
Option c is correct: The First World War broke out in Europe in August 1914. It provided a new hope for the Ghadarites (Ghadar Party) to take advantage of the opportunity and organise an armed revolt against British rule in India and achieve liberation. The Ghadarites wanted to drive the British out of India through an armed insurrection. With the hope of achieving a successful revolution, they formulated an alliance with anti-British countries such as Germany and Turkey. During the course of the War, the Ghadar leadership in the USA held regular meetings with German agents. In 1915, they organised an Indo- German ‘Conspiracy’ (also known as Hindu German ‘Conspiracy’), effectively a German plot with the aim of overthrowing British rule in India. The Maverick and Annie Larsen incident was a well-known attempt by the Ghadar Party to get arms into India with the assistance of the Germans. Two steamships called Maverick and Annie Larsen were purchased with German’s money for the purpose of transferring arms to India. This plan to get arms and ammunition to India was started in the United States, a neutral country at the time of the European War. Thus, the Annie Larsen affair was related to the Indo- German plot to send weapons to India for an armed revolt against British during first world war.
Q14. Which of the following statements rightly describes the distinction between Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and Gross National Product (GNP) of India in a financial year ?
(a) While GDP measures economic activities happening within the nation, GNP measures economic activities of Indian citizens, irrespective of their location.
(b) While the higher GNP necessarily means higher economic growth, higher GDP necessarily means higher economic development.
(c) While GNP data is published by Office of Economic Advisor, Ministry of Commerce, the GDP data is released by National Statistical Office, Ministry of Statistics and Program Implementation.
(d) All are correct
S14.Ans.(a)
Sol.
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and Gross National Product (GNP) are two of the most commonly used measures of a country’s economy. Both represent the total market value of all goods and services produced over a certain period of time, usually a year. However, they are calculated in a different ways,
- Statement a is correct: Gross domestic product (GDP) is the value of the finished domestic goods and services produced within a nation’s borders. On the other hand, gross national product (GNP) is the value of all finished goods and services produced by a country’s citizens, whether or not those goods are produced within the territory of the country. Thus, it is true that GDP measures economic activities happening within the nation, the GNP measures economic activities happening both inside and outside the nation.
- Statement b is incorrect: While it is true that higher GDP indicates higher economic growth of a nation (which means production of goods and services by a nation.) but higher GNP may mean a country is increasing its international financial operations, trade, or production. Neither higher GDP nor higher GNP necessarily mean higher economic development of a nation, economic development is determined by the living standards of people. For instance, the persistence of high-income inequality in a country which has higher GDP or GNP means that the major portion of wealth generated were cornered by the few people and leaving the majority to poverty and low living standard, thus low economic development of a nation.
- Statement c is incorrect: Both GDP and GNP are released by National statistical office, Ministry of Statistics and Program Implementation.
Q15. Under which Act, the supreme control was given to the British Government over the company’s affairs and it’s administration in India?
(a) Amending Act of 1781
(b) Pitt’s India Act of 1784
(c) Charter Act of 1833
(d) Regulating act of 1773
S15.Ans.(b)
Sol.
- Under Pitt’s India Act of 1784, the supreme control was given to the British Government over the company’s affairs and it’s administration in India.
- Other features of Pitt’s India Act of 1784 are:
- The commercial and political functions of the Company were distinguished by this act.
- The Court of Directors were allowed to manage the commercial affairs but a new body called the Board of Control was created to manage the political affairs. Thus, a system of double government was established.
- The Board of Control was empowered to supervise and direct all operations of the civil and military government or revenues of the British possessions in India.
- Thus, the act was significant for two reasons: 1. The Company’s territories in India were for the first time called the British possessions in India. 2. The supreme control over the Company’s affairs and its administration was given to the British Government in India.
Q16. Panchayats in India receive funds in which of the following ways?
- State Government can devolve funds based on recommendations of the State Finance
Commission.
- State Government can provide loans to Panchayats.
- Grants from Union Government based on recommendations of the Central Finance Commission
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
S16.Ans.(d)
Sol.
Option d is the correct answer. Panchayats in our country receive funds in the following ways: Option 1 is correct. Devolution from the State Government based on recommendations of the State Finance Commission as per Art 243-I.
Option 2 is correct. Loans / grants from the State Government and also Programme-specific allocation under Centrally Sponsor Schemes and Additional Central Assistance.
Option 3 is correct. Internal Resource Generation (tax and non-tax). However Internal resource generation at the Panchayat level is weak. This is partly due to a thin tax domain and partly due to Panchayats own reluctance in collecting revenue. Another way is grants from the Union Government based on recommendations of the Central Finance Commission.
Q17. Consider the following statements
- The air in equatorial regions has a higher dew point than air in Polar Regions.
- The dew point temperature varies with the moisture content of the air.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
S17.Ans.(c)
Sol.
Dew Point
The air containing moisture to its full capacity, i.e. air is saturated to 100%, or relative humidity is 100%, at a given temperature is said to be at dew point. It means that the air at the given temperature is incapable of holding any additional amount of moisture at that stage. The temperature at which saturation occurs in a given sample of air is known as the dew point when the temperature of the air falls below the dew point temperature, Vapour condenses.
Statement 1 is correct: The highest dew point would be in an oceanic area (to supply the vapour) in tropical regions near the equator where the ocean temperature is the warmest compared to lower due points in the polar regions.
Statement 2 is correct: Dew points indicate the amount of moisture in the air. The higher the dew points, the higher the moisture content of the air at a given temperature
Q18. Which of the following factors affect Indian monsoon
- The shift of the position of Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) in summer, over the Ganga plain
- The presence of the high-pressure area, east of Madagascar, approximately at 20°S over the Indian Ocean
- Formation of high pressure over Tibetan Plateau at about 9 Km above MSL
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
S18.Ans.(a)
Sol.
To understand the mechanism of the monsoons, the following facts are important.
(a) The differential heating and cooling of land and water create a low pressure on the landmass of India while the seas around experience comparatively high pressure.
(b) The shift of the position of Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) in summer, over the Ganga plain (this is the equatorial trough normally positioned about 5°N of the equator – also known as the monsoon trough during the monsoon season).
(c) The presence of the high-pressure area, east of Madagascar, approximately at 20°S over the Indian Ocean. The intensity and position of this high-pressure area affect the Indian Monsoon. (d)The Tibetan plateau gets intensely heated during summer, which results in strong vertical air currents and the formation of high pressure over the plateau at about 9 km above sea level. (e) The movement of the westerly jet stream to the north of the Himalayas and the presence of the tropical easterly jet stream over the Indian peninsula during summer
Q19. With reference to Plastic Waste Management Amendment Rules 2021, consider the following statement:
- It has put complete ban on plastic carry bags less than 150 microns.
- It provides legal force to the Extended Producer Responsibility.
- The rules have been framed as per the provision of Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
S19.Ans.(b)
Sol.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Plastic Waste Management Amendment Rules, 2021, on 12th August 2021, prohibiting manufacture, import, stocking, distribution, sale and use of the identified single use plastic items, which have low utility and high littering potential with effect from the 1st July, 2022. In order to stop littering due to light weight plastic carry bags, with effect from 30th September, 2021, the thickness of plastic carry bags has been increased from fifty microns to seventy-five microns and to one hundred and twenty microns with effect from the 31st December, 2022. This will also allow reuse of plastic carry due to increase in thickness. Statement 2 is correct: For effective implementation of Extended Producer Responsibility, the Guidelines for Extended Producer Responsibility being brought out have been given legal force through Plastic Waste Management Amendment Rules, 2021.
Statement 3 is correct: Plastic Waste Management Amendment Rules 2021 has been released by the Government of India as per the provision of Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Q20. Consider the following statements with reference to Coral reefs:
- Zooxanthellae are unicellular algae that provide food for corals.
- The skeletons of coral colonies are made up of white calcium phosphates.
- These are found in large concentrations between 4 degrees north and south latitudes in western portions of major oceans.
- They develop at a temperature not less than 10 degrees Celsius.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
S20.Ans.(b)
Sol.
Statement 1 is correct: Zooxanthellae are unicellular algae that provide color to corals. They also provide food to corals and their deaths lead to breakdown of the symbiotic relationship between them.
Statement 2 is incorrect: This breakdown of symbiotic relationship causes starvation and resultant deaths of coral polyps. This condition exposes the white calcium carbonate skeletons of the coral colony.
Statement 3 is correct: The coral reefs are most complex ecosystems found on the earth. These are found in great concentrations between 4 degrees north and south latitudes in western portions of all major oceans. They generally extend to about 30 degrees north and south of the equator.
Statement 4 is incorrect: They develop at a temperature not less than 20 degree Celsius. This is the reason why they are not found in very cold seas
Q21. Consider the following statements with reference to temperature distribution of Ocean water:
- Temperature of the ocean surface decreases from the equator towards the poles.
- Oceans in the southern hemisphere receive more heat than the northern hemisphere due to their contact with larger extent of land.
- The highest ocean surface temperature is observed at equator.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
S21.Ans.(a)
Sol.
statements 1 is correct: The factors which affect the distribution of temperature of ocean water are:
(i) Latitude: the temperature of surface water decreases from the equator towards the poles because the amount of insolation decreases poleward. Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect: The factors which affect the distribution of temperature of ocean water are:
(ii) Unequal distribution of land and water: the oceans in the northern hemisphere receive more heat due to their contact with larger extent of land than the oceans in the southern hemisphere.
The oceans in the northern hemisphere record relatively higher temperature than in the southern hemisphere. The highest temperature is not recorded at the equator but slightly towards north of it. The average annual temperatures for the northern and southern hemisphere are around 19° C and 16° C respectively. This variation is due to the unequal distribution of land and water in the northern and southern hemispheres.
Q22. These are large dome-shaped intrusive bodies with a level base and connected by a pipe-like conduit from below. It resembles the surface volcanic domes of composite volcano, only these are located at deeper depths. It can be regarded as the localized source of lava that finds its way to the surface.
The above description is concerned with which of the following Intrusive landform of volcano?
(a) Laccoliths
(b) Lopoliths
(c) Dyke
(d) Batholiths
S22.Ans.(a)
Sol.
Option (a) is correct:
Volcanic intrusive landforms: The lava that is released during volcanic eruptions on cooling develops into igneous rocks. Depending on the location of the cooling of the lava, igneous rocks are classified as volcanic rocks (cooling at the surface) and plutonic rocks (cooling in the crust). The lava that cools within the crustal portions assumes different forms. These forms are called intrusive forms.
Laccoliths: These are large dome-shaped intrusive bodies with a level base and connected by a pipe-like conduit from below. It resembles the surface volcanic domes of composite volcano, only these are located at deeper depths. It can be regarded as the localized source of lava that finds its way to the surface. The Karnataka plateau is spotted with domal hills of granite rocks. Most of these, now exfoliated, are examples of laccoliths or batholiths.
Batholiths: A large body of magmatic material that cools in the deeper depth of the crust develops in the form of large domes. They appear on the surface only after the denudational processes remove the overlying materials. They cover large areas, and at times, assume depth that may be several km. These are granitic bodies. Batholiths are the cooled portion of magma chambers.
Q23. Consider the following statements with reference to recent finding on the planet Mars:
- The rocks found on the Mars are incredibly weathered and beaten.
- Rocks on the Mars are easier to analyse due to active tectonic plates and the weathering effects. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
S23.Ans.(d)
Sol.
Option (d) is correct: The silicon chip, sourced from silica (and by extension sand) is the foundation of the semiconductor industry and constitute the sinews of the information technology infrastructure. While silicon’s structure is extremely conducive to electrons, it is much less accommodating to “holes” — electrons’ positively charged counterparts — and harnessing both is important for some kinds of chips. Silicon is not very good at conducting heat, which is why overheating issues and expensive cooling systems are common in computers. Silicon has good electron mobility but poor hole mobility, and other materials such as gallium arsenide, widely used for lasers, similarly have good mobility for electrons but not for holes. Emerging research shows that a material known as cubic boron arsenide overcomes both of these limitations. It provides high mobility to both electrons and holes, and has excellent thermal conductivity.
Q24. Consider the following statements:
- Carbonisation refers to the conversion of dead vegetation into coal.
- Coke used in the manufacture of steel is produced by heating coal in presence of oxygen.
- Naphthalene balls used to repel insects are obtained from coal tar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
S24.Ans.(d)
Sol.
Statement 1 is correct: As coal contains mainly carbon, the slow process of conversion of dead vegetation into coal is called carbonisation. Since it was formed from the remains of vegetation, coal is also called a fossil fuel.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Coke is a tough, porous and black substance. It is an almost pure form of carbon. Coke is used in the manufacture of steel and in the extraction of many metals. Coke is produced by heating coal at high temperatures, for long periods of time. This heating is called “thermal distillation” or “pyrolysis.” Pyrolysis is the heating of an organic material, such as biomass, in the absence of oxygen.
Statement 3 is correct: Coal Tar is a black, thick liquid with an unpleasant smell. It is a mixture of about 200 substances. Products obtained from coal tar are used as starting materials for manufacturing various substances used in everyday life and in industry, like synthetic dyes, drugs, explosives, perfumes, plastics, paints, photographic materials, roofing materials, etc. Interestingly, naphthalene balls used to repel moths and other insects are also obtained from coal tar.
Q25. Consider the following statements regarding Anti defection law
- The law does not specify a time period for the presiding officer to decide on a disqualification plea.
- The Supreme Court held that the decision of the speaker is final on the question of disqualification on the ground of defection
- Courts can intervene only after the Presiding Officer has decided on the matter of disqualification
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2 and 3
S25.Ans.(c)
Sol.
The law initially stated that the decision of the Presiding Officer is not subject to judicial review. This condition was struck down by the Supreme Court in 1992 in Kihoto Hollohon vs Zachillhu And Others case in 1992. Currently, the anti-defection law comes under the judicial review of courts.
Thereby allowing appeals against the Presiding Officer’s decision in the High Court and Supreme Court. However, it held that there may not be any judicial intervention until the Presiding Officer gives his order.
The law does not specify a time period for the Presiding Officer to decide on a disqualification plea.
