ଓଡିଶା ସିଭିଲ ସର୍ଭିସ୍ 2024 Prelims GS Mock Paper-I

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Q1. Consider the following statements with reference to the International Treaty on Plant Genetic

Resources for Food and Agriculture :

It provides solutions to achieve food and nutritional security as well as climate-resilient agriculture.
It was adopted by the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations in 2001.
It is not a legally binding treaty.
India is a Contracting Party to this agreement.

How many statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one statement

(b) Only two statements

(d) All four statements

S1.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (PGRFA) provides scale-free solutions to achieve food and nutritional security and climate-resilient agriculture. Countries are mutually interdependent for the PGRFA, leading to the need for a global system to facilitate access and profit sharing. So, Statement 1 is correct.

The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture was adopted by the Thirty- First Session of the Conference of the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations on 3 November 2001.So, Statement 2 is correct.

The ITPGRFA is a legally binding comprehensive agreement signed during the 31st session of the United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) in Rome in November 2001, which took effect on 29 June 2004, and currently has 149 Contracting Parties, including India. Thus the treaty is legally binding, and India is Contracting Party. So, Statement 3 is not correct and Statement 4 is correct.

Q2. Consider the following statements with reference to the Hypersonic missile :

India joined the hypersonic missile club with the launch of the BrahMos cruise missile.
Hypersonic missile ‘Kinzhal’ or Dagger is developed by China.
Unlike other cruise missiles, hypersonic missiles cannot be maneuvered to the intended target.

Which of the statements given above are not correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

S2.Ans.(d)

Sol.

BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile developed jointly by Russia’s NPO Mashinostroyeniya and India’s Defense Research and Development Organization (DRDO). In India, the BrahMos-2 will be the hypersonic version of the missile and will have a range of 1,500 km. Trials have put its speed at almost Mach 8, . 131 making it the fastest in the world. It is likely to enter the prototype stage in the next three years. As of now, India has not yet produced any hypersonic missiles. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

The Kh-47M2 “Kinzhal” (“Dagger” in Russian) is a nuclear-capable, air-launched, hypersonic ballistic missile, one of six new “next generation” weapons developed by Russia. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

A hypersonic missile is a weapon system that flies at least at Mach 5, which is five times the speed of sound and is maneuverable. A ballistic trajectory is the path of an object that is dropped, thrown, served, launched, or shot but has no active propulsion during its actual flight. Consequently, the trajectory is fully determined by a given initial velocity and the effects of gravity and air resistance. The hypersonic missiles do not follow a ballistic trajectory and can be maneuvered to the intended target. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Q3. Consider the following:

Gyani Zail Singh
R. Venkataraman
Shankar Dayal Sharma
V.V. Giri

Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the tenure of the given former Presidents of India, starting from the earliest?

(a) 4-1-2-3

(b) 3-2-1-4

(d) 3-1-2-4

S3.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Varahagiri Venkata Giri (1969 to 1974) served as the 4th President of India. In 1967, he was also elected as the Vice President of India.

Giani Zail Singh (1982 to 1987) was an Indian politician who was the first Sikh to serve as the President of India. Important events during his tenure include Operation Bluestar and the assassination of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.
R. Venkataraman (1987 to 1992) was involved in India’s independence struggle and was consequently jailed. After his release he continued to practice law and helped draft India’s Constitution. After serving as Vice President of India in 1984–87, he was elected to the post of President of India in 1987.
Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma (1992 to 1997) was appointed as the Governor of Andhra Pradesh, Punjab, and Maharashtra before becoming the Vice President of India in 1987 and then the President of India in 1992.

Q4. Consider the following statements with reference to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

(MSMEs) :

MSMEs contribute around 30 percent to India’s Gross domestic product.
A firm is classified as Medium category if its investment in plant and machinery or equipment does not exceed ₹ 50 crores and its turnover does not exceed ₹ 250 crores.
According to the new definition, export revenue is deducted from total sales while estimating the turnover of MSMEs.
MSMEs constitute nearly 50 percent of total exports.

How many statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one statement

(b) Only two statements

(d) All four statements

S4.Ans.(d)

Sol.

MSMEs (Micro Small and Medium Enterprises) play a key role in economic development. The sector accounts for over 80% of businesses and contributes to more than half of the employee share. With the presence of over 63 million MSMEs employing over 110 million people staggered across services, the manufacturing sector contributes nearly 30% to the GDP. So, Statement 1 is correct.

According to the Ministry of MSME, A firm is classified as a Medium category if its Investment in Plant and Machinery or Equipment is not more than Rs.50 crore and its Annual Turnover is not more than Rs. 250 crore. So, Statement 2 is correct.

According to RBI regarding the calculation of turnovers of MSMEs, the Exports value of goods or services or both shall be excluded while calculating the turnover of any enterprise, whether micro, small or medium, for classification. Information as regards turnover and export turnover for an enterprise shall be linked to the Income Tax Act or the Central Goods and Services Act (CGST Act) and the GSTIN. So, Statement 3 is correct. Regarding MSME-related products, its export share of all India’s export share stood at 49.4% and 49.8% for FY21 and FY20, respectively. So, Statement 4 is correct.

Q5. Consider the following statements with reference to the National Logistics Policy 2022 :

It aims to create a data-driven decision-support mechanism for an efficient logistics ecosystem.
It aims to reduce India’s logistics cost to a level comparable to global benchmarks by 2030.
It aims to make India among the top 25 countries by 2030 in the Logistics Performance Index.
It is formulated by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry and is implemented in complement to the PM-Gati Shakti scheme.

How many statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one statement

(b) Only two statements

(d) All four statements

S5.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Recently, National Logistics Policy (NLP) was launched, which aims to lower the existing cost of logistics in India from the present 14% of GDP to less than 10% on par with other developed country’s global benchmarks by 2030 and to create a data-driven decision support mechanism for an efficient logistics ecosystem. So, Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

This policy also targeted to improve India’s ranking in Logistics Performance Index to be among the top 25 countries by 2030. And it was formulated by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry will improve India’s trade competitiveness, create more jobs, improve India’s performance in global rankings and pave the way for India to become a logistics hub. This policy was implemented to complement the PM GatiShakti- National Master Plan scheme. So, Statements 3 and 4 are correct.

Q6. With reference to different types of taxes and their description, consider the following pairs:

Type of Tax Description

Ad Valorem Tax A tax assessed on the

total value of the item

Tobin Tax A Duty on spot currency trades
Pigouvian Tax: A tax on businesses that create products with negative effects on society
Transfer Tax A tax on capital gains from the sale of long term financial instruments

Which of the pairs given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

S6.Ans.(a)

Sol. Option a is the correct answer.

Pair 1 is correct: The Latin phrase ad valorem means “according to value.” So all ad valorem taxes are based on the assessed value of the item being taxed. An example for ad valorem tax is imposition of 28% GST on luxury cars. Here, if the price of a car is Rs 10 lakh, the GST amount will be Rs 2.8 lakhs

Pair 2 is correct: Tobin Tax is a concept of taxing spot transactions (speculative) on currencies in forex trading on the stock market so as to discourage speculation and promote currency stability which is important for the real economy. The Tobin tax is sometimes referred to as the Robin Hood tax, as many see it as a way for governments to take small amounts of money from the people making large, short-term currency exchanges.

Pair 3 is correct: Pigouvian Tax or Sin Tax is a duty assessed on businesses that create services or products like liquor, tobacco products, coal mining, etc which have adverse effects on society like environmental pollution, damage to public health, etc, whose price of these externalities has not been included in the sale price of the product. A carbon emissions tax or a tax on plastic bags are examples of Pigovian taxes.

Pair 4 is incorrect: Transfer Tax charge levied on the transfer of ownership or title to property from one individual or entity to another. A tax on capital gains from sale of long term financial instruments is a part of Long Term Capital Gains (LTCG) tax.

Q7.Consider the following statements

Orographic lift provides the required energy for a cloudburst.
A cloud burst event is restricted to mountainous regions only.
Moisture-rich air reaching the Himalayas due to warming of oceans can lead to cloud bursts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1,2 and 3

S7.Ans.(c)

Sol.

According to the India Meteorological Department (IMD) a cloudburst features very heavy rainfall over a localized area at a very high rate of the order of 100mm per hour featuring strong winds and lightning. Cloudburst occurs when moisture-rich air travels up a mountainous region, forming a vertical column of clouds known as Cumulonimbus clouds. These clouds usually cause rain, thunder and lightning. Due to these unstable clouds, heavy rainfall may occur over a small area. The upward movement of clouds provides the required energy for a cloudburst, known as ‘orographic lift’. So, statement 1 is correct. .

In the Mountains region of India, the moisture is usually provided by low-level eastern winds associated with a low-pressure system over the Gangetic plains. However, it occurs in plains as well. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Temperature in the Indian Ocean continuously rising due to climate change. As a result, moisture-rich air reaches the Himalayan region. This leads to cloudburst. It is likely to occur more with an increase in moisture from the Indian Ocean. So, statement 3 is correct.

Q8.Consider the following statements

Earthquake zones are divided on the basis of intensity and tectonic qualities of a region.
India Meteorological Department is responsible for maintaining a country wide National Seismological Network (NSN).
Richter scale measures the intensity of the quake based on P-waves of the earthquake.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1,2 and 3

S8.Ans.(a)

Sol.

An earthquake is the result of a sudden release of stored energy in the Earth’s crust that creates seismic waves. Scientists can measure these seismic waves on instruments called seismometers.
The point inside the Earth where the earthquake rupture starts is called the focus or hypocentre. The point directly above it on the surface of the Earth is the epicenter.
Based on seismicity, intensity of earthquakes experienced, and geological and tectonic qualities of a region, countries are divided into several zones. In India, for example, there are four zones. Among these, Zone V is the most hazardous and Zone II the least hazardous. So, statement 1 is correct.
India Meteorological Department, under the Ministry of Earth Science, is responsible for maintaining a country wide National Seismological Network (NSN), consisting of seismological stations, spread over the country. So, statement 2 is correct.
Richter scale: The Richter magnitude scale (not intensity) was developed in 1935 by Charles F. Richter of the California Institute of Technology as a mathematical device to compare the size of earthquakes. The magnitude of an earthquake is determined from the logarithm of the amplitude of waves recorded by seismographs. There is a relationship between the quantum of energy released and the wave amplitude. The amplitude of the wave is a function of the time period of the wave. So, statement 3 is not correct.
The Mercalli Intensity Scale measures the intensity of an earthquake by observing its effect on people, the environment and the earth’s surface. The Richter Scale measures the energy released by an earthquake using a seismograph.

Q9. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

National securities depository limited(NSDL) is the first depository in India established under the RBI Act of 1934.

NSDL does not charge the investors directly.
NSDL helps to increase efficiency and minimize risk in the capital market.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

S9.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The Depositories Act, 1996 (SEBI) paved the way for the creation of the National Security Depository Limited (NSDL)in India for managing securities, and it is the firstdepository and one of the largest Depositories, established in August 1996which is formed to handle the securities held in dematerialized form in the 12 Indian capital market. Hence, it is not established under the RBI act of 1934. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

NSDL provides depository services to investors and clearing members through market intermediaries called Depository Participants (DPs). NSDL does not charge the investors directly but charges its Depository Participants (DPs), who are free to have their charge structure for their clients. National Security Depository Limited chargesuniformly for all to Depository Participants (DPs). So, Statement 2is correct. National Security Depository Limited (NSDL) aims to ensure safety and reliability in the capital market of India by developing effective settlement solutions that increase efficiency by minimizing risk and reducing costs. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the Bay of Bengal branch of the Indian Monsoon,

The Arakan Hills along the coast of Myanmar deflect it towards the Indian subcontinent.
It splits into two parts due to the Himalayas and the thermal low present in northwest India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

S10.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The Bay of Bengal branch strikes the coast of Myanmar and part of southeast Bangladesh. But

the Arakan Hills along the coast of Myanmar deflect a big portion of this branch towards the

Indian subcontinent. Hence statement 1 is correct.

The monsoon, therefore, enters West Bengal and Bangladesh from the south and southeast instead of from the south-westerly direction. From here this branch splits into two under the influence of the Himalayas and the thermal low in northwest India. It’s one branch that moves westward along the Ganga plains reaching as far as the Punjab plains. The other branch moves up the Brahmaputra valley in the north and the northeast causing widespread rains. Its sub-branch strikes the Garo and Khasi Hills of Meghalaya. Mawsynram located on the crest of Khasi hills receives the highest average annual rainfall in the world. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q11. Which of the following are the effects of sea level rise due to climate change?

A LEDS (Low Emission Development Strategy) is a policy instrument that identifies the sources of a country‘s GHG emissions.
A LEDS helps to improve framework conditions for private sector investment in mitigation actions.
Through LEDS some countries focus only on the mitigation aspect of climate change.
India submitted its Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy to the UNFCCCat COP26.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 2,3 and 4 only

S11.Ans.(c)

Sol.

A Low-Emission Development Strategy (LEDS) is a national, high-level, comprehensive, long-term strategy developed by domestic stakeholders aiming to decouple economic growth and social development from greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions growth. A LEDS is a policy instrument that identifies the sources of a country‘s GHG emissions and prioritizes options for their mitigation. So, Statement 1 is correct.

A Low Emission Development Strategy helps to improve framework conditions for private sector investment in mitigation actions. The long-term strategies of LEDS framework will be a core tool to help productive sectors in business and industry identify the opportunities for economic growth in the low-carbon transition. It will also help achieve inclusive growth and other sustainable development goals. So, Statement 2 is correct.

A Low-Emission Development Strategy (LEDS) focuses on achieving development through mitigation actions. Through LEDS, some countries have included a full vulnerability analysis and a description of necessary adaptation measures in their LEDS. Other countries focused only on the mitigation aspect of climate change. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Long-term low emissions development strategies (LT-LEDS) are a policy tool that helps to place short-term actions in the context of the long-term structural changes required to transition to a low-carbon, resilient economy. Recently, India submitted its Long-Term low emission development strategy at the 27th United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), Conference of Parties (COP27), which is aimed at the rational utilization of national resources concerning energy security. Therefore, the Low Emission Development Strategy to the UNFCCC is outside of COP26. So, Statement 4 is not correct.

Q12. Which of the following are the ‘Trace Minerals’ required for the human body?

Calcium and Sodium
Iodine and Iron
Copper and Zinc
Phosphorus and Magnesium

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

S12.Ans.(b)

Sol.

The body needs minerals to stay healthy. There are two types of minerals, Major Minerals and Minor (Trace) Minerals. Major minerals are minerals your body needs in relatively large (or major) quantities, and trace minerals are minerals your body needs in relatively small (or trace) quantities. .

Major Minerals: Sodium, Calcium, Potassium, Chloride, Phosphorus, Magnesium and Sulphur. So, points 1 and 4 are not correct.
Minor Minerals: Iron, Zinc, Iodine, Fluoride, Copper, Selenium, Chromium, Cobalt, Manganese and Molybdenum. So, points 2 and 3 are correct.
Hidden Hunger refers to a micronutrient deficiency caused by eating food that is cheap and filling but deficient in essential vitamins and minerals. Micronutrient deficiencies can exist even in communities where the food supply is adequate to meet the energy needs of the population.

Q13. Consider the following statements:

The Constitution of India has provisions against child labour under both Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy.
The Child labour (Prohibition and Prevention) Amendment Act, 2016 prohibits employment of children below age 14 in hazardous occupations only.
India has ratified International Labour Organization (ILO) conventions for ‘admission age of employment’ and ‘worst forms of child labour’.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

S13.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Article 39(f) (DPSP) provides children the right to equal opportunities and facilities to develop in a healthy manner and in conditions of freedom and dignity and guaranteed protection of childhood and youth against exploitation and against moral and material abandonment. So, statement 1 is correct.

The Central Government had enacted a new law — Child labour (Prohibition and Prevention) Amendment Act, 2016 – banning employment of child labour below 14 years of age in all occupations and processes. It further prohibits employment of adolescents (14-18 years of age) in hazardous occupations. So, statement 2 is not correct.

India has ratified the two Core Conventions of International Labour Organization (ILO), Convention 138 regarding ‘admission age to employment’ and Convention 182 regarding ‘worst forms of Child Labour’. So, statement 3 is correct.

Q14. The recently launched Green Fins Hub is related to

(a) Alternatives to single-use plastics

(b) Organic way of physical workouts

(d) Coral reef protection

S14.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Recently, the United Nations Environmental Programme (UNEP), along with UK-based charity Reef-World Foundation, launched the Green Fins Hub, a global digital platform they said would give sustainable marine tourism a ‘major boost’. The Green Fins Hub is the first-ever global marine tourism industry platform, helping operators to make simple, cost-efficient changes to their daily practices by utilizing tried and tested solutions, keeping track of their annual improvements, and communicating with their communities and customers. The initiative aims to protect and conserve coral reefs through environmentally friendly guidelines that promote a sustainable diving and snorkeling tourism industry. It provides the only internationally recognized environmental standards for the diving and snorkeling industry and has a robust assessment system to measure compliance. So, Option (d) is correct.

Q15. Consider the following statements :

It is the second-largest wetland system in India.
Currently, it is shrinking, and its unique biodiversity is under threat of ecological decay.
It is declared as a Ramsar site.

The above statements are about which of the below lake ?

(a) Loktak Lake

(b) Vembanad lake

(d) Kolleru Lake

S15.Ans.(b)

Sol.

In India, Vembanad lake, in the state of Kerala, is the second largest wetland after the Sunderbansof West Bengal. Despite being declared a Ramsar site, the lake is now under serious environmental degradation because of the recurring floods, increased pollution, reduced water spread area and increased weed growth.

The Vembanad Lake was declared as a Ramsar Site in the year of 2002. Vembanad Wetland is the largest brackish, humid tropical wetland ecosystem fed by 10 rivers. A Ramsar site is a wetland site designed to be of international importance under the Ramsar Convention, also known as the ‘Convention of Wetlands’. So, Option (b) is correct.

Q16. Several jute mills in West Bengal have been experiencing closure and suspension of their operations in the recent past. Which among the following is the most appropriate reason behind this?

(a) Ban on the export of Jute products from India

(b) Increase in temperature and heat waves due to global warming

(d) High Procurement prices of raw jute

S16.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option d is correct: Several jute mills in West Bengal have announced temporary suspension of their operations this year. This is because mills are procuring raw jute at prices higher than what they are selling them at after processing. Mills do not acquire their raw material directly from the farmers.

There are two reasons for the same:

1) First, because the farmers are far-off from the mills locations and the procurement process is cumbersome. Mills would have to go to multiple farmers to acquire the requisite quantity as no single farmer produces enough to fulfil the requirements of the entire mill. The procurement now flows through middlemen or traders. As a standard practice, the middlemen charge mills for their services, which involves procuring jute from farmers, grading, bailing and then bringing the bales to the mills.

2) The government has a fixed Minimum Support Price (MSP) for raw jute procurement from farmers which is ₹4,750 per quintal for the 2022-23 season.

However, jute reaches mill at ₹7,200 per quintal that is, ₹700 more than the ₹6,500 per quintal cap for the final product. This is why the procuring price is higher than the selling price. The situation was made particularly worrisome by the occurrence of Cyclone Amphan in May 2020 and the subsequent rains in major jute producing States. These events led to lower acreage, which in turn led to lower production and yield compared to previous years.

Q17. With reference to Green Transport in India, consider the following statements:

It refers to modes of transportation that do not negatively impact the ecology as well as human health.
The Green Urban Transport Scheme(GUTS) aims to reduce air pollution caused by public transport.
The GUTS is implemented in the cities and urban areas with a population of 5 Lakh and above and all capital cities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

S17.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Green transportation is a low-carbon initiative, thus environmentally friendly. This mainly refers to modes of transportation that do not negatively impact the environment, ecological balance, and human health. So, Statement 1 is correct.

The Ministry of Urban Development has launched the ‘Green Urban Transport Scheme (GUTS),’ which aims to consider the impact of air pollution caused in urban cities due to public transportation and improve the climate-friendly transport system in urban areas. And it mainly focuses on reducing the emission of harmful carbon gas from transportation, especially from government-owned transport facilities. So, Statement 2 is correct.

The Green Urban Transport Scheme (GUTS) scheme is implemented in the selected cities and urban areas where a population of 5 Lakh and above and all capital cities. By implementing this scheme, public transportation would increase as people would prefer public transport instead of individual modes to travel, directly reducing pollution. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Q18. He was a Persian merchant. Under his guidance the Bahmani kingdom reached its peak. He waged successful wars against Vijayanagar, Orissa, and the sea pirates on the Arabian sea. He built a Madarsa at Bidar in Persian architectural style.

The above paragraph describes which among the following official of the Bahamani Kingdom?

(a) Alauddin Hassan Gangu Bahaman Shah

(b) Mohammad Gawan

(d) Firuz Shah

S18.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option b is the correct answer.

Option b is correct: The Bahmani kingdom reached its peak under the guidance of Prime minister Muhammad Gawan. He was a Persian merchant. He was well-versed in Islamic theology, Persian Language, and Mathematics. He was also a poet and a prose writer. He was also a military genius. He waged successful wars against Vijayanagar, Orissa, and the sea pirates on the Arabian sea. He built a Madarsa at Bidar in Persian architectural style.

Q19. Consider the following statements with reference to the ecological succession:

The primary succession occurs over a barren area which usually lacks topsoil and organic matter.
The recolonisation of an area damaged by fire is an example of primary succession.
Each transitional community that is formed and replaced during succession is called a seral community.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

S19.Ans.(d)

Sol.

“Ecological succession” is the observed process of change in the species structure of an ecological community over time. Succession occurs due to large scale changes or destruction (natural or manmade). Within any community some species may become less abundant over some time interval, or they may even vanish from the ecosystem altogether. Similarly, over some time interval, other species within the community may become more abundant, or new species may even invade into the community from adjacent ecosystems. This observed change over time in what is living in a particular ecosystem is “ecological succession”.

Primary succession is an ecological succession where a newly formed area is colonized for the first time by a group of species or a community. This previously uninhabited, barren area is usually lacking topsoil and organic matter. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The species colonizing an uninhabited area for the first time is referred to as the pioneer species and the dominating community is called pioneer community. For example, in primary succession on a terrestrial site, the new site is first colonised by a few hardy pioneer species that are often microbes, lichens and mosses.
Secondary succession occurs when a previously occupied area is colonized by a new dominating group of species or communities. In secondary succession, the new inhabitants replace the previous communities over a habitat that had been exposed to a particular ecological disturbance. The disturbance may be an external or an internal factor. An example of secondary succession is the recolonization of an area damaged by fire. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
The stage leading to the climax community is called successional stages or seres. Each transitional community that is formed and replaced during succession is called a stage in succession or a seral community. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Q20. In the context of ecology, which of the following statements best describes the ecophene?

(a) It is a phenotype of an organism when it lives in a new environment for too long a time period.

(b) It refers to the population incapable of exchanging genes with other populations of the same species.

(c) It is a structural change in the chromosome, which cause changes in genetic makeup that result in the phenotypes leading to the formation of new ecological races.

(d) It is the first response or phenotype an organism shows when it arrives in a new environment.

S20.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Organisms have the ability to adapt to new environments. However, every individual or species has a specific range to which it can tolerate ecological changes. This is known as ecological amplitude. Based on the ecological amplitude: o Ecotype is a phenotype of an organism when it lives in a new environment for too long a time period. In other words, when an ecophene remains in its new habitat for too long, it becomes an ecotype. Therefore, the adaptations are permanent, and genetic changes occur within the organism. The genes they carry are responsible for the success in the new environment. Adaptations of the ecotypes are based on the interactions between their genes with their new environment. Therefore, they become best adapted to the new habitat and the prevailing conditions. o Ecophene is the first response or phenotype an organism shows when it arrives in a new environment. It is a morphologically changed phenotype. But the adaptation and changes are not permanent, and they are
These adaptations are temporary changes. They develop only to survive under new environmental conditions. Genetic changes do not happen. Therefore, when the organism returns to the normal habitat, changes are reversed to the normal morphology. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Q21. An All India Federation It was to comprise all British Indian provinces, all chief commissioner’s provinces and the Indian states (princely states) was first proposed by-

(a) Indian council act 1861

(b) Indian council act 1909

(d) Government of India Act 1935

S21.Ans.(d)

Sol.

The Government of India Act was passed by the British Parliament in August 1935. Its main provisions proposed the establishment of An All India Federation It was to comprise all British Indian provinces, all chief commissioner’s provinces and the Indian states (princely states). The federation’s formation was conditional on the fulfilment of: (i) states with the allotment of 52 seats in the proposed Council of States should agree to join the federation; and (ii) the aggregate population of states in the above category should be 50 per cent of the total population of all Indian states. Since these conditions were not fulfilled, the proposed federation never came up. The central government carried on up to 1946 as per the provisions of the Government of India Act, 1919.

Q22. Consider the following statements :

In the winter season, the upper air westerly jet streams are bifurcated into two branches over the Indian subcontinent.

The strength of the westerly jet stream contributes to the intensification of high pressure formed over the southern Indian Ocean during summer.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

S22.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Jet streams are high altitude (9000-12000 m) Westerly winds between middle latitudes in the Northern hemisphere. Recent research has shown that these winds considerably impact surface weather conditions.
The summer-time heating of the Tibetan Plateau creates low pressure over the region, producing tropical easterly jet on the southern side of the Himalayas. This tropical easterly jet stream first develops in longitudes east of India and then extends westwards across India and the Arabian Sea to eastern Africa. Blowing along the Kolkata-Bangalore axis, the air under the easterly jet descends 116 over the Indian Ocean near Masscarness and Zanzibar Islands of Tanzania and further intensifies the high pressure formed over the southern indian ocean.
After crossing the equator, winds become South-Westerly and are known as the South-Westerly Summer Monsoons. These surface winds have the vast potential for South-Westerly summer, monsoon, and precipitation.
Therefore, the strength of the Easterly jet stream (not westerly) contributes to the intensification of high pressure formed over the Southern Indian Ocean. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Q23. Consider the following statements regarding River Cities Alliance

River Cities Alliance is an intergovernmental partnership for river cities in the world to ideate, discuss and exchange information for sustainable management of rivers.
Any river city can join the Alliance at any time
It is being implemented by a partnership of the Ministry of Jal Shakti and the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 3

S23.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Union Ministry of Jal Shakti has recently launched the River Cities Alliance, a dedicated platform for river cities in India to ideate, discuss and exchange information for sustainable management of urban rivers.

It is the Alliance of the Ministry of Jal Shakti and the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. The Alliance will focus on three broad themes- Networking, Capacity Building and Technical Support. The Secretariat of the Alliance will be set up at National Institute for Urban Affairs (NIUA), with NMCG’s support.

The Alliance is open to all river cities of India. Any river city can join the Alliance at any time. River Cities Alliance (RCA) started with 30 cities in 2021 and currently has 95 cities as members across India It has strong synergies with the Urban20 (U20) initiative (under India’s G20 Presidency) to promulgate urban water security.

Q24. Consider the following statements with reference to the representation of the population in the Lok Sabha:

Every state, irrespective of population, is allotted a number of seats in such a way that the ratio between that number and its population is the same for all states.
The division of each state into territorial constituencies is done by the Delimitation Commission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

S24.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option b is the correct answer. The Indian Constitution ensures that there is uniformity of representation in two respects i.e. between the different states, and between the different constituencies in the same state. Statement 1 is incorrect: For the purpose of holding direct elections to the Lok Sabha, each state is divided into territorial constituencies. Usually, each state is allotted a number of seats in the Lok Sabha in such a manner that the ratio between that number and its population is the same for all states. However, it is not applicable to every state. This provision does not apply to a state having a population of less than six million. Statement 2 is correct: The Delimitation Commission of India is a commission established by the Government of India under the provisions of the Delimitation Commission Act. The main task of the commission is redrawing the boundaries of the various assembly and Lok Sabha constituencies based on a recent census. The present delimitation of constituencies has been done on the basis of the 2001 census under the provisions of the Delimitation Act, 2002.

Q25. Which among the following do not take the oath of secrecy as per the Third Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

Members of Rajya Sabha
Members of Lok Sabha
Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
Union Ministers
Chief Justice of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 3 and 5 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 5 only

S25.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option c is the correct answer. Oath for 9 categories of people is mentioned in the 3rd schedule of the Indian Constitution. Union Ministers State Ministers Member of Parliament Member of Parliament Candidates Member of State Legislature Member of State Legislature candidates Supreme Court Judges (including Chief Justice) High Court Judges (including Chief Justices) Comptroller and Auditor General Oath of Secrecy is taken by the Minister of the Union. They take the oath that they will not directly or indirectly communicate or reveal to any person or persons any matter which shall be brought under their consideration or shall become known to them as a Minister for the Union except as may be required for the due discharge of their duties as such Minister. All members of Parliament, CAG, CJI as well as Union ministers too however take an oath to bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India and to uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India.