ଓଡିଶା ସିଭିଲ ସର୍ଭିସ୍ 2024 Prelims GS Mock Paper-I

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Q1. Consider the following statements:

The Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister aids and advises the President in the exercise of his functions.
The Council of Ministers can be removed from office by Lok Sabha if a vote of no-confidence is adopted by it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

S1.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct: The Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister aids and advises the President in the exercise of his functions. The Council of Ministers consists of two levels of Ministers– Cabinet Ministers and Ministers of State. The President appoints the Ministers on the advice of the Prime Minister.

Statement 2 is correct: The Council of Ministers consists of all category of Ministers, while the Cabinet is a smaller group consisting of senior Ministers. The Council of Ministers as a whole rarely meets. It is the Cabinet which determines the policies and programmes of the Government. All the Ministers are collectively as well as individually responsible to the Lok Sabha. The Council of Ministers can be removed from office by Lok Sabha if a vote of no-confidence is adopted by it. The Cabinet formulates the external and internal policies of the government. It coordinates the working of various departments. It has full control over the national finance. A money bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha by a Minister.

Q2. With reference to Gene therapy, which of the following statements is/are correct?

This technique treats a disease by altering the genetic makeup.
It introduces molecular tools to change the existing cellular DNA.
This therapy is used to treat spinal muscular atrophy.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

S2.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Gene therapy is a medical approach that treats or prevents disease by correcting the underlying genetic problem. Gene therapy is defined as the treatment of disease by transfer of genetic material into cells. Human gene therapy seeks to modify or manipulate the expression of a gene or to alter the biological properties of living cells for therapeutic use.

Statement 1 is correct: Gene therapy techniques allow doctors to treat a disorder by altering a person’s genetic makeup instead of using drugs or surgery. The earliest method of gene therapy, often called gene transfer or gene addition, was developed to: Introduce a new gene into cells to help fight a disease. Introduce a non-faulty copy of a gene to stand in for the altered copy causing disease. Later studies led to advances in gene therapy techniques. A newer technique, called genome editing (an example of which is CRISPR-Cas9), uses a different approach to correct genetic differences.

Statement 2 is correct: Instead of introducing new genetic material into cells, genome editing introduces molecular tools to change the existing DNA in the cell.

Statement 3 is correct: Gene therapies are being used to treat a small number of diseases, including an eye disorder called Leber congenital amaurosis and a muscle disorder called spinal muscular atrophy.

Q3. Consider the following statements with reference to cryptojacking:

It is a cyber-attack wherein a computing device is hijacked to illicitly demand ransom.
Corporate networks are least vulnerable to cryptojacking.
Unlike ransomware, cryptojacking can succeed without the victim ever being aware of it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

S3.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option (d) is correct:

The silicon chip, sourced from silica (and by extension sand) is the foundation of the semiconductor industry and constitute the sinews of the information technology infrastructure. While silicon’s structure is extremely conducive to electrons, it is much less accommodating to “holes” — electrons’ positively charged counterparts — and harnessing both is important for some kinds of chips. Silicon is not very good at conducting heat, which is why overheating issues and expensive cooling systems are common in computers. Silicon has good electron mobility but poor hole mobility, and other materials such as gallium arsenide, widely used for lasers, similarly have good mobility for electrons but not for holes. Emerging research shows that a material known as cubic boron arsenide overcomes both of these limitations. It provides high mobility to both electrons and holes, and has excellent thermal conductivity.

Q4. Consider the following statements:

Plastics which gets deformed easily on exposure to heat are known as thermoplastics.
Bakelite is an example of thermoplastics.
Melamine resists fire and tolerates heat better than thermoplastics.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

S4.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Plastic is also a polymer like the synthetic fibre. All plastics do not have the same type of arrangement of units. In some it is linear, whereas in others it is cross-linked. Polythene is an example of a plastic. It is used for making commonly used polythene bags. Statement 1 is correct: Plastics which gets deformed easily on heating and can be bent easily are known as thermoplastics.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Polythene and PVC are some of the examples of thermoplastics. These are used for manufacturing toys, combs and various types of containers. On the other hand, there are some plastics which when moulded once, cannot be softened by heating. These are called thermosetting plastics. Two examples are bakelite and melamine.

Statement 3 is correct: Melamine is a versatile material. It resists fire and can tolerate heat better than other plastics. It is used for making floor tiles, kitchenware and fabrics which resist fire. Bakelite is a poor conductor of heat and electricity. It is used for making electrical switches, handles of various utensils, etc. Melamine is a versatile material.

Q5. After the Quit India Movement, C. Rajagopalachari issued a pamphlet entitled “The Way Out”. Which one of the following was proposed in this pamphlet?

(a) The establishment of a “War Advisory Council” composed of representatives of British India and the Indian States.

(b) Reconstitution of the Central Executive Council in such a way that all its members, except the Governor-General and the Commander-in-Chief, should be Indian leaders.

(c) Fresh elections to the Central and Provincial Legislatures to be held at the end of 1945 and a Constitution-making body to be convened as soon as possible.

(d) A solution for the constitutional deadlock

S5.Ans.(d)

Sol.

“In the last years of the war, Rajagopalachari was instrumental in negotiations between Gandhi and Jinnah. In 1944, he proposed a solution to the Indian Constitutional tangle. He prepared a formula for Congress-League cooperation. It was a tacit acceptance of the League’s demand for Pakistan. Gandhi supported the formula. But Jinnah was in favor of the two-nation theory only.

Q6. Consider the following statements regarding C.R. Formula:

The League was to endorse the Indian demand for independence and to co-operate with the Congress information of Provisional Interim Government for a transitional period.
At the end of the war, a commission would be appointed to demarcate the districts having a Muslim population in the absolute majority and in those areas plebiscite to be conducted on all inhabitants (including the non-Muslims) on basis of adult suffrage.
All parties would be allowed to express their stance on the partition and their views before the plebiscite.
The two nations would be formed out of those areas where the majority has voted for the separation through a plebiscite

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 4 only
2, 3, and 4 only
1, 2, and 3 only
All of the Above

S6.Ans.(c)

Sol.

4^th statement is wrong.

In the event of separation, a mutual agreement would be entered into for safeguarding essential matters such as defense, communication, and commerce and for other essential services

Q7. Consider the following statements about ‘Certified Reference Materials (CRM)’

They are used as calibration standards for analytical methods, instrument performance evaluation, and data quality control in routine analysis
National Aluminium Company Limited (NALCO) recently developed a Bauxite Certified Reference Material (CRM) which is the first of its kind in India

Select the correct statement(s)

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

S7.Ans.(c)

Sol.

CRMs are used as calibration standards for analytical methods, instrument performance evaluation, and data quality control in routine analysis CRMs are blocks of metal that come with certificates indicating the concentration of their various constituent elements along with their uncertainty levels. National Aluminium Company Limited (NALCO) and Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) have jointly developed India’s first Bauxite Certified Reference Material (CRM) named BARC B1201. This is the fifth CRM of its kind in the world

Q8. With reference to ‘Cloning’, consider the following statements

Cloning describes a number of natural or artificial processes that can be used to produce genetically identical copies of a biological entity.
The technique of organism cloning involves the transfer of a germ line cell nucleus into an enucleated egg Select the correct statement(s)

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

S8.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Cloning describes a number of different processes that can be used to produce genetically identical copies of a biological entity. Cloning can be natural or artificial. Examples of cloning that occur naturally are as follows: Vegetative reproduction in plants, e.g. water hyacinth producing multiple copies of genetically identical plants through apomixis Binary fission in bacteria. Organism cloning, or reproductive cloning, where a multicellular clone is created generally through somatic cell nuclear transfer. This technique involves the transfer of a somatic cell nucleus into an enucleated egg.

Q9. Consider the following statements regarding geostrophic wind

Geostrophic wind is a wind whose direction and speed are determined by a balance of the pressure-gradient force and the Coriolis force
Jetstreams are Geostrophic winds

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

S9.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The velocity and direction of the wind are the net results of the wind generating forces. The winds in the upper atmosphere, 2 – 3 km above the surface, are free from the frictional effect of the surface and are controlled mainly by the pressure gradient and the Coriolis force. When isobars are straight and when there is no friction, the pressure gradient force is balanced by the Coriolis force and the resultant wind blows parallel to the isobar. This wind is known as the geostrophic wind. Jet streams are geostrophic winds. Hence they flow at a height of at least 3 to 4 km & the friction due to the earth’s surface is absent. In the geostrophic wind, the Coriolis force is balanced by horizontal pressure gradient force. Hence the wind flows parallel to the isobar.

Q10. Consider the following statements

The wind circulation around a low-pressure area is called cyclonic circulation and Around a high, it is called anticyclonic circulation
Over high-pressure areas, the air will subside from above and diverge at the surface and over the low-pressure area the air will converge and rise

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

S10.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The wind circulation around a low is called cyclonic circulation. Around a high, it is called anticyclonic circulation. The direction of winds around such systems changes according to their location in different hemispheres. The wind circulation at the earth’s surface around low and high on many occasions is closely related to the wind circulation at a higher level. Generally, over the low-pressure area, the air will converge and rise. Over high-pressure areas, the air will subside from above and diverge at the surface

Q11. With reference to Digital Rupee, consider the following statements:

It would be in the form of a digital token that represents legal tender.
It would be issued in different denominations than the paper currency and coins that are currently issued.
It would be distributed directly through the Reserve Bank of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

S11.Ans.(a)

Sol.

x The Reserve Bank of India recently announced the launch of retail digital rupee (eRs-R) on 1 December on a pilot basis. According to a statement from RBI, the pilot would cover select locations in closed user group (CUG) comprising participating customers and merchants. x The Digital Rupee would be in the form of a digital token that represents legal tender. Hence statement 1 is correct.The Digital Rupee would be issued in the same denominations that paper currency and coins are currently issued. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

It would be distributed through intermediaries, banks. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Eight banks have been identified for phase-wise participation in this pilot, according to the central bank. The first phase will begin with four banks, namely State Bank of India, ICICI Bank, Yes Bank and IDFC First Bank in four cities across the country. o Four more banks, namely Bank of Baroda, Union Bank of India, HDFC Bank and Kotak Mahindra Bank will join this pilot subsequently.

The pilot would initially cover four cities, namely, Mumbai, New Delhi, Bengaluru and Bhubaneswar. It will later extend to Ahmedabad, Gangtok, Guwahati, Hyderabad, Indore, Kochi, Lucknow, Patna and Shimla.

Users will be able to transact with eRs-R through a digital wallet offered by the participating banks and stored on mobile phones/devices.

Transactions can be both person-to-person (P2P) and person-to-merchant (P2M). Payments to merchants can be made using quick response (QR) codes displayed at merchant locations, according to the statement.

Q12. Which of the following statements is not correct with reference to the silk cultivation in India?

(a) Mulberry silk constitutes nearly 70 per cent of the total silk production in India.

(b) Tussar Silk is produced in Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand.

(d) India is the only country that produces all five known silk varieties.

S12.Ans.(c)

Sol.

India is the second-largest producer of raw silk in the world after China. India is the only country producing all five known commercial silks, namely, mulberry, tropical tussar, oak tussar, eri and muga, of which muga with its golden yellow glitter is unique and a prerogative of India. North East has the unique distinction of being the only region producing four varieties of silk viz., Mulberry, Oak Tussar, Muga and Eri. Overall NE region contributes 18% of India’s total silk production.

India is the second-largest producer of silk in the world. Among the four varieties of silk produced in 2020- 21, Mulberry accounted for 70.72%, tussar 8.02%, Eri 20.55% and Muga 0.71% of the total raw silk production of 33,739 MT.

Mulberry silk is produced predominantly in the southern states of Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, and non-mulberry varieties (Vanya silk) such as Tussar are produced in Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Odisha, and West Bengal.

Muga silk is specific to Assam state and Eri silk is grown in Meghalaya and Nagaland. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q13.Consider the following statements regarding the solicitor general of India and additional solicitor general of India

The post of solicitor general of India and additional solicitor general of India is not Subordinate to the Attorney General of India
They are appointed for a tenure of three years.
They can tender their Resignation to the president of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 3
2 and 3
2 only
1,2 and 3

S13.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The Solicitor General of India is subordinate to the Attorney General for India. They are the second law officer of the country, assist the Attorney General, and are assisted by Additional Solicitors General for India.

The solicitor general and the Additional Solicitors General advise the Government and appear on behalf of the Union of India in terms of the Law Officers (Terms and Conditions) Rules, 1972

However, unlike the post of Attorney General for India, which is a Constitutional post under Article 76 of the Constitution of India, the posts of the Solicitor General and the Additional Solicitors General are merely statutory. Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) recommends the appointment and officially appoints them.

They are appointed for a period of three years by the Appointment Committee of Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister

Q14. As per the provisions of Rule 49MA of Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, if the voter claim that the vote cast is incorrect it must give a written declaration to___________to get the opportunity to check the record of vote casted

Returning officer
Presiding officer
State election commission
Election commission of India

S14.Ans.(b)

Sol.

The Presiding Officer with the assistance of polling officers conducts the poll at a polling station. The District Election Officer appoints the Presiding Officers and the Polling Officers

As per the provisions of Rule 49MA of Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, if the voter claim that the vote cast is incorrect it must give a written declaration to the presiding officer who reports to returning officer. The returning officer after getting the written declaration checks and let the elector see the record of the vote cast.

Q15. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding Finance Commission?

It is constituted by President after every five years.
It is a quasi-judicial body.
Its recommendations are binding in nature.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

S15.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Article 280 provides for a Finance Commission as a quasi-judicial body. It is constituted by the President every fifth year or even earlier.

It is required to make recommendations to the President on the following matters:

The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes to be shared between the Centre and the states, and the allocation between the states, the respective shares of such proceeds.
The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid to the states by the Centre (i.e., out of the Consolidated Fund of India).
The measures needed to augment the consolidated fund of a state to supplement the resources of the panchayats and the municipalities in the state on the basis of the recommendations made by the State Finance Commission.
Any other matter referred to it by the President in the interests of sound finance. Statement 3 is incorrect. The recommendations made by the Finance Commission are only of advisory nature and hence, not binding on the government. It is up to the Union government to implement its recommendations on granting money to the states.

Q16. Which of the following action can most likely lead to further ‘dollarization’ of the Indian economy?

Paying import bill exclusively in the dollars.
Allowing full capital account convertibility.
Increasing the India’s IMF shareholding in dollars.
Adoption of cryptocurrency.

S16.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option d is the correct answer. Dollarization is a form of currency substitution, where dollars are used in addition to or instead of the local currency of a country. Option a is incorrect: According to some research papers, Indian EXIM (import export) transactions are already dominated by dollars. 86% of both Indian imports and exports are invoiced in dollars, though only 5% of India’s imports and 15% of exports are from and to the US. Since it is already dominated by dollars paying import bill exclusively in the dollars would not lead to further dollarization. Furthermore, it would also not affect the domestic or local usage of the currency. Option b is incorrect: Capital account convertibility (CAC) means the freedom to conduct investment transactions without any constraints. In other words, CAC means there is no restrictions on the amount of rupees an Indian resident can convert into foreign currency to enable to acquire any foreign asset. Inflows and outflows of the foreign and domestic capital, which are prone to volatility, can lead to excessive appreciation/depreciation of their currency and impact the monetary and financial stability. Thus, full Capital account convertibility would not lead to dollarization but rather make domestic currency more volatile. Option c is incorrect: Increasing the shareholding denominated in dollars in International Monetary Fund would have no impact whatsoever in dollarization of economy. Option d is correct: Almost all cryptocurrencies are dollar-denominated and issued by foreign private entities, it may eventually lead to dollarization of a part of our economy which will be against the country’s sovereign interest. RBI officials have also said these currencies ‘can replace a part of monetary system it will also undermine the RBI’s capacity to regulate the flow of money in the system’.

Q17. Which among the following can be the effects of high inflation in the economic

Loss of allocative efficiency.
Adoption of an external currency by the country
Expensive imports

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
1,2 and 3

S17.Ans.(d)

Sol.

A change in the supply or demand for goodwill normally causes its relative price to change, in case of high inflation, signaling the buyers and sellers that they should re-allocate resources in response to the new market conditions. But when prices are constantly changing due to inflation, price changes due to genuine relative price signals are difficult to distinguish from price changes due to general inflation, so agents are slow to respond to them. The result is a loss of allocative efficiency.
If inflation becomes too high, it can cause people to severely curtail their use of the currency, leading to an acceleration in the inflation rate. High and accelerating inflation grossly interferes with the normal workings of the economy, hurting its ability to supply goods. Hyperinflation can lead to the abandonment of the use of the country’s currency (for example as in North Korea) leading to the adoption of an external currency (dollarization).
If there is a depreciation in the exchange rate, it is likely to cause inflation to increase. – (Import prices more expensive)

Q18. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Primary productivity is defined as the rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers.
Net primary productivity is the final productivity obtained after excluding the respiration. losses. 3. Tropical forests have the highest primary productivity of any of the terrestrial biomes.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

S18.Ans.(c)

Sol.

A constant input of solar energy is the basic requirement for any ecosystem to function and sustain.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Primary production is defined as the amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a time period by plants during photosynthesis. It is expressed in terms of weight (gm–2) or energy (kcal m–2). The rate of biomass production is called productivity. It is expressed in terms of gm– 2 yr–1 or (kcal m–2) yr–1 to compare the productivity of different ecosystems. It can be divided into gross primary productivity (GPP) and net primary productivity (NPP). Gross primary productivity of an ecosystem is the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis.

Statement 2 is correct: A considerable amount of GPP is utilized by plants in respiration. Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses (R), is the net primary productivity (NPP). GPP – R = NPP Net primary productivity is the available biomass for the consumption to heterotrophs (herbiviores and decomposers). Secondary productivity is defined as the rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers.

Statement 3 is correct: Tropical forests have the highest biodiversity and primary productivity of any of the terrestrial biomes.

Q19. Which of the following are examples of nitrogen fixing plants used as bio- fertilizers?

Bromeliaceae
Anabaena azollae
Nostoc
Azolla pinnata
Theobroma cacao

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 5 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

S19.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option (c) is correct: Bio-fertilizers are specific types of living organisms like symbiotic bacteria, Cyanobacteria (also called as blue green algae), sea weeds etc. that can bring about nutrient enrichment of soil in many different ways. Anabaena azollae, Anabaena cycadae, Azolla pinnata and Nostoc are different plants that enhance the productivity of soil when added to it. Bacteria like Rhizobium fix nitrogen for plants and Nostoc, Azolla, and Cyanobacteria that are great nitrogen fixers, are used as bio- fertilizers in crop fields, most frequently. However, Theobroma cacao and Bromeliaceae are species of plants found in Amazon rainforests.

Q20. Consider the following statements regarding El Nino

It refers to the warming phase of the surface waters of the Pacific and affects only the summer monsoon in India
It does not favor the Peruvian Fisherman.
It usually decreases the hurricane activity in the Atlantic

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 3
2 and 3
1 and 2
1,2 and 3

S20.Ans.(b)

Sol.

El Nino is the name given to a slight warming of the surface waters of the Pacific. It is the opposite of La Nina, which is cooling. As the ocean is one of the biggest influences on our weather, both of the phenomena have a dramatic effect on the weather around the globe.

To explain what happens during an El Nino event, we need to know what happens ‘normally’, at a time when there is no El Nino or La Nina The warmest part of the Pacific Ocean is the region near the equator. Due to the spinning of the earth, the prevailing winds flow from east to west. This pushes the warm waters westwards, towards Indonesia.

In the east, around the coast of South America, cool waters would normally well up. These waters are rich in nutrients and fish and provide plenty of food for the Peruvian Fisherman. During an El Nino event, the prevailing winds across the Pacific weaken, and sometimes they can even reverse and blow the other way. This allows some of the warmer waters to move eastwards, away from Indonesia and towards South America.

El Nino has some effects that are easy to explain; for example, as the waters near the coast of South America are warmer than usual, it makes sense that the weather in the region is also warmer than usual. This will increase evaporation and therefore the region will also see more rain than in a typical year. It also is intuitive that because the warmer waters are moving away from Indonesia, the weather here is drier than usual.

Q21. Consider the following statements

El Nino Modoki has been identified as a coupled ocean-atmosphere phenomenon in the tropical Pacific Ocean.
It is marked by warming water in the Pacific Ocean and along the Equator.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

S21.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Modoki is a Japanese word for “same but different”. El Nino Modoki events are a rarer subset of the regular El Nino and are marked by warming water in the Pacific, but not along the Equator.

Instead, the warming is in the mid-Pacific and the warming is not as strong as in the regular El Nino events.

Many times, in a strong Modoki, water actually cools below normal off the coast of Peru, which is the opposite of a normal El Nino event.

Q22. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?

Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
Abolition of untouchability
Protection of the interests of minorities
Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1, 2 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 4 only
1, 2, 3 and 4

S22.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option c is the correct answer. The Right against Exploitation under Articles 23 and 24 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the dignity of the individual. Under these – Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings, begar (forced labour) and other similar forms of forced labour. Any contravention of this provision shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law. This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens. It protects the individual not only against the State but also against private persons Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in any factory, mine or other hazardous activities like construction work or railway. But it does not prohibit their employment in any harmless or innocent work. Abolition of untouchability and protection of the interests of minorities are envisaged under Article 17 and Article 29 of the Constitution respectively.

Q23. With reference to the ‘Preventive Detention’, consider the following statements:

Preventive Detention means detention of a person without trial and conviction by a court.
The maximum period for which a person can be detained under Preventive Detention is 2 months.
Only the Parliament can make a law regarding Preventive Detention.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only

S23.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option a is the correct answer. Article 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained. Detention is of two types, namely, punitive and preventive.

Statement 1 is correct: Preventive detention means detention of a person without trial and conviction by a court. Its purpose is not to punish a person for a past offence but to prevent him from committing an offence in the near future. It is only a precautionary measure and based on suspicion. Statement 2 is incorrect: The 44th Amendment act of 1978 has reduced the period of detention without obtaining the opinion of the advisory board from 3 months to 2 months. However, this provision has not yet been brought into force, hence, the original period of three months still continues. Also, if an advisory board reports sufficient cause for an extension, its 3-month period can also be extended.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Constitution has divided the legislative power with regard to preventive detention between the Parliament and the state legislatures. The Parliament has exclusive authority to make a law of preventive detention for reasons connected with defence, foreign affairs and the security of India. Both the Parliament as well as the state legislatures can concurrently make a law of preventive detention for reasons connected with the security of a state, the maintenance of public order and the maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community

Q24. With reference to the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands, which of the following is/are the prescribed criteria for a wetland to be designated as a Ramsar site?

A wetland should support vulnerable, endangered, or critically endangered species or threatened ecological communities.
A wetland should regularly support 20,000 or more waterbirds.
A wetland should regularly support at least 10% of the individuals in a population of one species or subspecies of waterbird.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

S24.Ans.(b)

Sol.

The nine criteria for identifying Wetlands of International Importance under Ramsar convention are

o A wetland should be considered internationally important if it contains a representative, rare, or unique example of a natural or near-natural wetland type found within the appropriate biogeographic region.

o A wetland should be considered internationally important if it supports vulnerable, endangered, or critically endangered species or threatened ecological communities.

o A wetland should be considered internationally important if it supports populations of plant and/or animal species important for maintaining the biological diversity of a particular biogeographic region.

o A wetland should be considered internationally important if it supports plant and/or animal species at a critical stage in their life cycles, or provides refuge during adverse conditions. o A wetland should be considered internationally important if it regularly supports 20,000 or more waterbirds.

o A wetland should be considered internationally important if it regularly supports 1% of the individuals in a population of one species or subspecies of waterbird.

o A wetland should be considered internationally important if it supports a significant proportion of indigenous fish subspecies, species or families, life-history stages, species interactions and/or populations that are representative of wetland benefits and/or values and thereby contributes to global biological diversity.

o A wetland should be considered internationally important if it is an important source of food for fishes, spawning ground, nursery and/or migration path on which fish stocks, either within the wetland or elsewhere, depend.

o A wetland should be considered internationally important if it regularly supports 1% of the individuals in a population of one species or subspecies of wetland-dependent nonavian animal species.

Q25. In the context of the wildlife in India, in which of the following National Parks one can find snow leopards?

Mount Manipur National Park
Saddle Peak National Park
Pin Valley National Park
Hemis National Park

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

S25.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Snow leopards live in the mountainous regions of Central and Southern Asia. In India, their geographical range encompasses a large part of the western Himalayas, including the Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand and Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh in the eastern Himalayas.

Pin Valley National Park is located in Himachal Pradesh .There are more than 20 species of animals and birds in the Park. This park is specially renowned for the protection of endangered Snow-Leopard.

. • Located in the eastern part of Ladakh district in Jammu and Kashmir in north India, Hemis National Park has the distinction of being the largest national park in South Asia.. The most sought after animal species of the park are Snow Leopards, Shapu, Wild Sheeps, Ibex and Goats. Its natural habitat dwells over 17 mammal and 70 bird species.

Note that:

Mount Harriet National Park, officially renamed as Mount Manipur National Park, is a national park located in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Snow Leopards are not found in this national park since it lies in tropical zone.

Saddle Peak National park is located in the Northern side of the Andaman Islands and spreads in a scope of 33square miles. There are no snow leopards in this national park for the above same reason.