With Adda 247 Odia’s General Awareness quizzes, you can build a solid foundation in General Awareness for the OPSC OCS Exam. Our quizzes are designed to enhance your knowledge, improve your retention and boost your confidence. Join us in your journey to success and excel in your OPSC OCS Exam!
Q1. The term ‘Swathi’, which was in the news in relation to Defence, is a:
(a) Surface to air Weapon System
(b) Weapon locating radar
(c) Anti Tank Missile
(d) None of the Above
S1.Ans.(b)
Sol.
Swathi is a weapon locating phased array radar developed by India. It is a counter-battery radar designed to detect and track incoming artillery and rocket fire to determine the point of origin for counter-battery fire. ○ The WLR has been jointly developed by the Electronics and Radar Development Establishment (LRDE), a lab of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL).
Q2. Consider the following statements with respect to the Knowledge Involvement in Research Advancement through Nurturing (KIRAN) Scheme:
- It is implemented by Department of Science and Technology (DST).
- It aims to bring gender parity in the Science & Technology sector by inducting more women talent in the research & development.
- Under this scheme, the Government reserves a certain portion of seats only in R&D domain for women. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
S2.Ans.(a)
Sol.
Statement 1 is correct: The Department of Science and Technology (DST) implements ‘Knowledge Involvement in Research Advancement through Nurturing (KIRAN)’ Scheme to provide various career opportunities to women scientists and technologists.
Statement 2 is correct: It is primarily aimed to bring gender parity in the Science & Technology sector byway of inducting more women in the research & development domain. Statement 3 is not correct: It supports Women in the age group 27 to 57 years by providing fellowship support ranging from Rs. 25000 to 55000 for continuing higher education in Science and Technology after a break in career
Q3. Sablang or Sprouting Method is used in Plantation of which of the following Crops?
(a) Rice
(b) Peppers
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Mango
S3.Ans.(c)
Sol.
Sablang method is used in sugarcane farming. Plants are grown in fertile soil with wide spacing, shallow planting, frequent irrigation, and adequate fertilisation. The Offshoots are removed carefully from the mother plant as soon as they develop their own roots and are transplanted in the main field.
Q4. “He was an Indo-Greek ruler. He administered a large territory in the North-western regions of the Indian Subcontinent with his capital at Sagala. He was a patron of the Buddhist religion and was converted to Buddhism by Nagasena.”
Which of the following rulers is mentioned in the above paragraph?
(a)Menander
(b) Demetrius
(c) Hermaius
(d) Apollodotus
S4.Ans.(a)
Sol.
Menander was the Indo-Greek king who was patron of the Buddhist religion. He wrote one of the most important Buddhist works called the Milinda-panha (“The Questions of Milinda”) which was written in Pali. He was converted to Buddhism by Nagasena, who also was mentioned in his work. The kingdom of Menander in the Indian subcontinent extended from the Kabul River valley in the west to the Ravi River in the east and from the Swat River valley (in modern Pakistan) in the north to Arachosia (the Kandahar region) in Afghanistan in the south. He even made his attempts to capture Pataliputrabut was stopped by the army of Vasumitra (the grandson of Pushyamitra Sunga).
Q5. Which one of the following books of ancient India has the love story of the son of the founder of Sunga dynasty?
(a) Swapnavasavadatta
(b) Malavikagnimitra
(c) Meghadoota
(d) Ratnavali
S5.Ans.(b)
Sol.
The Malavikagnimitra is a Sanskrit play by Kalidas. The play tells the love story of Agnimitra, the Shunga Emperor. He falls in love with the picture of an exiled servant girl named Malavika.
Q6. With reference to the implementation of Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) in India, consider the following statements:
- The 25th Constitutional Amendment Act made all the DPSPs non-justiciable.
- There is no moral obligation on the government to implement the DPSPs.
- The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 has given effect to one of the Directive Principles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
S6.Ans.(b)
Sol.
Statement 1 is incorrect. All the DPSP since the adoption and enforcement of the constitution have been non-justiciable. The 25th amendment act provided that any law made to give effect to the Directive Principles contained in Article 39 (b) or (c) cannot be challenged on the ground of violation of the rights guaranteed by Articles 14, 19 and 31.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Though the Directive Principles are non-justiciable, the Constitution (Article 37) makes it clear that ‘these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws’. Thus, they impose a moral obligation on the state authorities for their application.
Statement 3 is correct. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, implemented the constitutional obligation stated in Article 40 (Organisation of village panchayats).
Q7. With reference to the concept of ‘Police State’ in polity, consider the following statements:
- Its main objective is the establishment of economic and social democracy in a country.
- This concept is based on the theory of Laissez-Faire.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
S7.Ans.(b)
Sol.
Option b is the correct answer. The Directive Principles in India embody the concept of a ‘welfare state’ and not that of a ‘police state’, which existed during the colonial era.
Statement 1 is incorrect: A ‘Police State’ is mainly concerned with the maintenance of law and order and defence of the country against external aggression. It is a country in which the government uses the police to severely limit people’s freedom. The concept of a ‘welfare state’ is in contrast to that of a ‘police state’. A ‘Welfare State’ seeks to establish economic and social democracy in the country.
Statement 2 is correct: The concept of Police state is based on the nineteenth century theory of individualism or laissez-faire. The theory of laissez faire in the 19th century envisages maximum free enterprise and contractual freedom. The law and order characterized the situation in the state. Its role was limited to the traditional role of government as a protector.
Q8. The Equator passes through which one of the following places
- Velds grasslands
- Sahara desert
- Gobi desert
- Amazon forest
Select the correct code
(a) 1,2
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 4 only
(d) 1,2,3,4
S8.Ans.(c)
Sol.
- Velds grasslands-southern Africa
- Sahara desert-North Africa
- Gobi desert-Mongolia
- Amazon forest- south America
Q9. Consider the following statements regarding subtropical lows and subpolar highs
- Along 30 N and 30 S high-pressure areas are known as the subtropical lows.
- polewards along 60 N and 60 S, the low-pressure belts are termed as the subpolar highs
- These pressure belts are permanent,
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1,2
(b) 2,3
(c) 3 only
(d) None
S9.Ans.(d)
Sol.
Near the equator the sea level pressure is low and the area is known as equatorial low. Along 30
N and 30 S are found in the high-pressure areas known as the subtropical highs.
Further polewards along 60 N and 60 S, the low-pressure belts are termed as the subpolar lows. Near the poles the pressure is high and it is known as the polar high. These pressure belts are not permanent, however, and change with the movement of ITCZ.
Q10. The Large Hadron Collider is the World‟s largest and most powerful particle accelerator. What among the following has been its most prominent discovery?
(a) The measure of mass of the proton
(b) Sighting of the Higgs boson
(c) Evidence of supersymmetry
(d) Detection of gravitational waves
S10.Ans.(b)
Sol.
In 2012, the Higgs boson, which gives mass to the heavy elementary particles was detected for the first time at the Large Hadron Collider.
Q11. According to Tamil legends, there existed three Sangams (Academy of Tamil poets) in ancient Tamil Nadu popularly called Muchchangam. The Sangams flourished under the royal patronage of the-
(a) Cheras
(b) Pandyas
(c) Chalukya
(d) Kushanas
S11.Ans.(b)
Sol.
The Sangam Age constitutes an important chapter in the history of South India. According to Tamil legends, there existed three Sangams (Academy of Tamil poets) in ancient Tamil Nadu popularly called Muchchangam. These Sangams flourished under the royal patronage of the Pandyas.
Q12. Consider the following pairs
- Gurjara-Pratiharas Gujarat and Rajasthan
- Rashtrakutas – Western Deccan
- Palas -Bengal
- Cholas- Tamil Nadu
Which of the pair/s given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1,2,3 and 4
S12.Ans.(d)
Sol.
Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty, either of two dynasties of medieval Hindu India. The line of Harichandra ruled in Mandor, Marwar (Jodhpur, Rajasthan), during the 6th to 9th centuries ce, generally with feudatory status. The line of Nagabhata ruled first at Ujjain and later at Kannauj during the 8th to 11th centuries
Q13. The Gentoo Code (also known as A Code of Gentoo Laws or Ordinations of the Pundits) is a legal code translated from Vivādārṇavasetu ( a digest of Hindu law ) written in Sanskrit into Persian by Brahmin scholars, and then from Persian into English by
(a) William Bentick
(b) Warren Hastings
(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(d) Nathaniel Brassey Halhed
S13.Ans.(d)
Sol.
The Gentoo Code (also known as A Code of Gentoo Laws or Ordinations of the Pundits) is a legal code translated from Sanskrit (in which it was known as vivādārṇavasetu) into Persian by Brahmin scholars; and then from Persian into English by Nathaniel Brassey Halhed, a British grammarian working for the East India Company During the tenure of Warren Hastings.
Q14. Which among the following acts does not fall under the adjudication of National Green Tribunal?
(a) The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
(b) The Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
(c) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
(d) The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991.
S14.Ans.(a)
Sol.
The National Green Tribunal, established in 2010, as per the National Green Tribunal Act is a specialised judicial body equipped with expertise solely for the purpose of adjudicating environmental cases in the country
Q15. “PayNow system” was seen in the news recently, is associated with which of the following countries?
(a) China
(b) Singapore
(c) Russia
(d) Nepal
S15.Ans.(b)
Sol.
PayNow is a fast payment system in Singapore. It enables peer-to-peer funds transfer service, available to retail customers through participating banks and Non-Bank Financial Institutions (NFIs) in Singapore.
Q16. Consider the following statements:
- A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha lapses on the dissolution of Lok Sabha.
- A bill passed by both Houses but returned by the president for reconsideration of Houses lapses on the dissolution of Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
S16.Ans.(d)
Sol.
Option (d) is correct: The position with respect to lapsing of bills on the dissolution of Lok Sabha is as follows:
- A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses (whether originating in the Lok Sabha or transmitted to it by the Rajya Sabha).
- A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses.
- A bill not passed by the two Houses due to disagreement and if the president has notified the holding of a joint sitting before the dissolution of Lok Sabha, does not lapse.
- A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse.
- A bill passed by both Houses but pending assent of the president does not lapse.
- A bill passed by both Houses but returned by the president for reconsideration of Houses does not lapse.
Q17. With reference to citizenship in India, consider the following statements:
- The constitution of India provides for Single citizenship.
- A person can acquire citizenship by naturalisation if he/she fulfils all qualifications in the third schedule of the Citizenship Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
S17.Ans.(c)
Sol.
Statement 1 is correct: Though the Indian Constitution is federal and envisages a dual polity (Centre and states), it provides for only a single citizenship, that is, the Indian citizenship. The citizens in India owe allegiance only to the Union. There is no separate state citizenship like USA and Switzerland.
Statement 2 is correct: A person can acquire citizenship by naturalisation if he/she fulfils all qualifications in the third schedule of the Citizenship Act.
Q18. Consider the following statements:
- Barbiturates are hypnotic or sleep producing agents.
- Analgesics do not cause impairment of consciousness.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
S18.Ans.(c)
Sol.
Statement 1 is correct: Barbiturates are hypnotic, i.e., sleep producing agents. Some other substances used as tranquilizers are valium and serotonin.
Statement 2 is correct: Analgesics reduce or abolish pain without causing impairment of consciousness, mental confusion, incoordination or paralysis or some other disturbances of nervous system
Q19. Which of the following indicators are released in the Periodic Labour Force Survey of the National Statistical Office ?
- Worker Population Ratio
- Labour Force Participation Rate
- Unemployment Rate
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
S19.Ans.(d)
Sol.
The National Statistical Office (NSO) comes under ‘The Ministry of Statistics, and Programme Implementation”, started the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) in 2017. The objective of PLFS is primarily twofold,
- To estimate the key employment and unemployment indicators (viz. Worker Population Ratio, Labour Force Participation Rate, Unemployment Rate) in the short time interval of three months for the urban areas only in the ‘Current Weekly Status’ (CWS).
- To estimate employment and unemployment indicators in both ‘Usual Status’ (ps+ss) and CWS in both rural and urban areas annually. So, Option (d) is correct.
Q20. Which of the following is not a challenge faced by the Food Processing Sector in India?
(a) Poor availability of primary processing, storage and distribution facilities
(b) Many Food Processing Industries are in the unorganized sector.
(c) Only 49% FDI is permitted in the food-processing sector, leading to fund shortages.
(d) Inadequate focus on quality and safety standards
S20.Ans.(c)
Sol.
Statement c is incorrect: The Food Processing sector was opened to a 100% FDI under Automatic Route in 2016. Further, in 2017, 100 per cent FDI under the Government route for retail trading, including through e-commerce, is permitted in respect of food products manufactured and/or produced in India.
Q21. The ‘Asola Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary’ has sometimes been seen in the news recently because of
(a) The notification of eco-sensitive zone
(b) The proposal of mining in the sanctuary
(c) The discovery of Bamboo-dwelling bats
(d) The development of ecotourism
S21.Ans.(d)
Sol.
Asola-Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary covers 32.71 sq-km area on the Southern Delhi Ridge of the Aravalli hill range on the Delhi-Haryana border lies in Southern Delhi and northern parts of Faridabad and Gurugram districts of Haryana state. Construction of artificial waterfalls and floating fountains in Neeli Jheel is underway at the heart of the Asola Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary to boost eco-tourism. The waterfalls and the fountains are being developed by the Territorial Army in coordination with the forest department. So, Option (d) is correct.
Q22. ‘Nature Restoration Law’ sometimes seen in the news recently, is related to the affairs of :
(a) Arab League
(b) Pacific Islands Forum
(c) African Union
(d) European Union
S22.Ans.(d)
Sol.
The proposal of Nature Restoration Law by the European Commission is a key element of the EU Biodiversity Strategy, which calls for binding targets to restore degraded ecosystems, particularly those with the most potential to capture and store carbon and to prevent and reduce the impact of natural disasters. The proposal adds a new level of legal strength to conservation and restoration efforts across Europe. So, Option (d) is correct.
Q23. Consider the following statements with reference to the Bahamani Kingdom:
- It was founded by Hoshang Shah.
- They had regular confrontations with the Vijayanagar kingdom over the Marathwada region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
S23.Ans.(b)
Sol.
Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Bahmani Kingdom was a Muslim state of the Deccan in Southern India during the medieval era in Indian History. It was founded by Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah (in 1347), also known as Hasan Gangu, revolting against the Delhi Sultanate of Muhammad bin Tughlaq. Hoshang Shah (1406–1435) was the first formally appointed Sultan of the Malwa Sultanate of Central India.
Statement 2 is correct: There were constant conflicts between the Vijayanagar kingdom and the Bahmani Sultanate as their interests clashed in three separate and distinct areas:
1) Over the control of the Raichur doab
2) The Krishna–Godavari basin 3) Over the Marathwada region
Q24. Consider the following statements:
- Demutualisation is a process through which the debt of a company is transformed into equity shares.
- Corporatization is transferring control of a government-owned entity to a private entity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
S24.Ans.(d)
Sol.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Demutualization is a process by which a private, member-owned company, such as a co-operative, or a mutual life insurance company, legally changes its structure, in order to become a public-traded company owned by shareholders. Demutualisation allows such associations to conduct commercial business to make a profit just like a normal corporate entity. Demutualisation would also allow the exchange to put in place a board of directors, to look after day-to-day operations.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Corporatization occurs when the government reorganizes the structure of a government-owned entity into one that resembles a private entity (not transferring control to private entity). Corporatized companies tend to have a board of directors, management, and shareholders. But the government is the only shareholder, and the shares in the company are not publicly traded. The goal of the government is to retain ownership while allowing the entity to operate efficiently and competitively. Disinvestment is the action of an organization or government selling or liquidating an asset or subsidiary.
Q25. With reference to ‘National Investment Fund (NIF)’, consider the following statements:
- The fund is created by the Department of Investment and Public asset management (DIPAM).
- The capital in the fund is to be mobilised through bonds issued by the Reserve Bank of India.
- NIF is permanent in nature and is maintained outside the Consolidated fund of India.
- The funds from NIF can be used for recapitalization of public sector banks in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
S25.Ans.(c)
Sol.
Option c is the correct answer. The Government of India constituted the National Investment Fund (NIF) on 3rd November, 2005, into which the proceeds from disinvestment of Central Public Sector Enterprises were to be channelized.
Statement 1 is correct: National Investment Fund is created by Department of Investment and public asset management (DIPAM), Ministry of Finance. In 2016, The Department of Disinvestment was renamed as Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM) under Ministry of Finance. It deals with all matters relating to the sale of Central Government equity through offer for sale or private placement or any other mode in the erstwhile Central Public Sector Undertakings.
Statement 2 is incorrect: National Investment Fund is not mobilized through Public Investment bond, but it is mobilized from the proceeds from Disinvestment which include Central Government equity through offer for sale or private placement. As the Fund will be professionally managed, to provide sustainable returns without depleting the corpus, by UTI Asset Management Company Ltd.; SBI Funds Management Company Pvt. Ltd etc.
Statement 3 is correct: The corpus of the National Investment Fund will be of a permanent nature. And the disinvestment proceeds will be credited to the existing ‘Public Account’ (Out of the Consolidation fund of India) under the head of National Investment Fund. 75 per cent of the annual income of the Fund will be used to finance selected social sector schemes, which promote education, health and employment. The residual 25 per cent of the annual income of the Fund will be used to meet the capital investment. Statement 4 is correct: The funds from National Investment Fund (NIF) can be used for recapitalization of public sector banks and public sector insurance companies so as to strengthen them.
