ଓଡିଶା ସିଭିଲ ସର୍ଭିସ୍ 2024 Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | February 2nd Week

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Q1. Which of the following are applications of Technical textiles?

1. Construction Material
2. Adaptive Clothing
3. Medicine
4. Industry
5. Agriculture

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 3 and 5 only

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) All of the above

 

S1.Ans.(d)

Sol.

• A technical textile is a textile product manufactured for non-aesthetic purposes, where function is the primary criterion.
• They are products that are resistant to chemicals, weather conditions, micro-organisms, have superior performance properties such as high strength and non-flammability. Some of their applications are

○ Agrotech: Textiles used in agriculture, horticulture, forestry and aquaculture.

○ Buildtech: Textiles used in buildings and constructions.

○ Clothtech: Lining and similar technical components of clothing and shoes.

○ Geotech: Geological textiles and civil engineering materials.

○ Hometech: Technical components of furniture, home textiles and floor coverings.

○ Indutech: Filtration, transport, cleaning textiles for industrial applications.

○ Medtech: Textiles for hygienic and medical products.

Mobiltech: Textiles for automotive, ships, trains and aircraft.

 

Q2. Consider the following statements:

1. Lunar missions have operated on the time of the country that launched them.
2. The International Space Station (ISA) has its own time zone.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

 

S2.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct Lunar missions have operated on the time of the country that launched them. But with several lunar explorations heading for the launchpad, the European Space Agency has deemed the current system unsustainable.

Statement 2 is not correct: The International Space Station (ISA) does not have its own time zone. Instead, it runs on Coordinated Universal Time, or UTC, which is based on time kept by atomic clocks. This helps ease the time difference between NASA and the Canadian Space Agency, as well as other space partners in Russia, Japan and Europe.

 

Q3. With reference to Project Gateway, consider the following statements:

1. It will be humanity’s first space station in lunar orbit to support NASA’s deep space exploration plans.
2. It will be a critical platform for developing technology and capabilities to support Moon and Mars exploration in the coming years.
3. It will also support the Human Landing System (HLS) that will send astronauts to the Moon.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

 

S3.Ans.(d)

Sol.

A small, human-tended space station orbiting the Moon that will provide extensive capabilities to support NASA’s Artemis campaign.

• Gateway will be humanity’s first space station in lunar orbit to support NASA’s deep space exploration plans, along with the Space Launch System (SLS) rocket, Orion spacecraft, and the Human Landing System (HLS) that will send astronauts to the Moon. Hence Statement 1 and 3 are correct.
• Gateway’s capabilities for supporting sustained exploration and research in deep space include docking ports for a variety of visiting spacecraft, space for crew to live and work, and on-board science investigations to study heliophysics, human health, and life sciences, among other areas.
• Gateway will be a critical platform for developing technology and capabilities to support Moon and Mars exploration in the coming years. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

 

Q4. Which of the following is the correct description of ‘Hora Shastra’?

1. It is a major ancient Indian text concerning code of conduct for men and women in society.
2. It is a book containing rules regarding performance, acting, gesture and stage direction.
3. It deals with the study of Vedic astrology.
4. It is one of the oldest grammar rule books for Sanskrit language.

 

S4.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option c is the correct answer.

Option a is incorrect: Manusmriti or laws of manu is a rule book containing role of men and women in society and their interaction in social plane.

Option b is incorrect: Natyasastra by Bharata contains the rules regarding performance, acting, gesture and stage direction.

Option c is correct: Horashastra deals with the study of Vedic astrology. Post-Mauryan Indian astronomy and astrology has a huge Greek influence. The term ‘Hora Shastra’ used for astrology in Sanskrit was derived from the Greek term ‘horoscope’. Option d is incorrect: Panini’s Ashtadhyayi contains the rules of grammar for Sanskrit language. It dated around 500 BCE.

 

Q5. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards the right to timely medical treatment in government hospitals?

1. Article 19
2. Article 21
3. Article 14
4. Article 15

 

S5.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option b is the correct answer. The Supreme Court has held that failure on the part of government hospitals to provide timely medical treatment to a person in need of treatment results in violation of fundamental right guaranteed under Article 21 (right to life) of the Constitution of India.

 

Q6. Which of the following authority can provide for citizenship in case of acquisition of territory?

1. Central Government
2. Parliament of India
3. Supreme Court of India
4. All the citizens of acquired territory would automatically become citizens of India.

 

S6.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The Citizenship Amendment Act 1955 has delegated the authority to grant citizenship in case of acquisition of territory to the Government of India which can do so via executive order. If any territory becomes a part of India, the Central Government may, by order notified in the Official Gazette, specify the persons who shall be citizens of India. For example, in 1962 central government issued Citizenship (Pondicherry) Order, 1962 to grant citizenship to the residents of the Pondicherry.

 

 

Q7. Consider the following statements

1. The western coast of India gets more affected by cyclones than the eastern coast
2. The occurrence of Tropical depression in the Indo-Gangetic plains is responsible for the cyclone formation in the Bay of Bengal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S7.Ans.(b)

Sol.

The western coast sees fewer cyclones than the eastern coast.

The tropical depression is a predominant occurrence in the Indo-Gangetic plains and this phenomenon is highly responsible for the cyclone formation in the Bay of Bengal.

 

Q8. ‘Soledar’ a place in conflict recently seen in news, is located in

1. Myanmar
2. Syria
3. Ukraine
4. Armenia

 

S8.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Soledar is a settlement in the Bakhmut Raion of Donetsk Oblast, Ukraine. It is a highly important salt-mining location, with the Soledar Salt Mine providing 95% of Ukraine’s salt in 2021. The settlement was heavily damaged due to intense fighting during the 2022 Russian invasion of Ukraine, after which it came under Russian control on 11 January 2023. Since then, it has been occupied by Russia as part of the Donetsk People’s Republic.

 

 

Q9. Consider the following statements

1. Kolkata city is located above the Tropic of Cancer.
2. Diphu Pass is a mountain pass around the area of the disputed tri-point borders of India, China, and Myanmar.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S9.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Kolkata city is located below the Tropic of Cancer Kolkata (W.B) – 22.34 N. Diphu Pass is a mountain pass around the area of the disputed tri-point borders of India, China, and Myanmar. West Bengal shares a border with Bangladesh, Nepal and Bhutan.

 

Q10. Consider the following statements with reference to Vijayanagar Empire:

1. The kings claimed to rule on behalf of the God Virupaksha.
2. Rulers used the title of “Hindu Suratrana”.
3. The royal orders were usually signed in Kannada script.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S10.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option d is the correct Answer.

According to tradition and epigraphic evidence two brothers, Harihara and Bukka, founded the Vijayanagara Empire in 1336. This empire included within its fluctuating frontiers peoples who spoke different languages and followed different religious traditions

Statement 1 and 3 are correct: The Vijayanagara kings claimed to rule on behalf of the god Virupaksha. All royal orders were signed “Shri Virupaksha”, usually in the Kannada script. Statement 2 is correct: Rulers also indicated their close links with the gods by using the title “Hindu Suratrana”. This was a Sanskritisation of the Arabic term Sultan, meaning king, so it literally meant Hindu Sultan.

 

 

Q11. In medieval India, the term “Fanam” referred to:

1. Clothing
2. Coins
3. Ornaments
4. Weapons

 

S11.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option b is correct:

The Fanam coins were the regular unit of currency in medieval Travancore and appear to have been extensively used for trading in the region of South India. The words Fanam and Panam literally mean money and are still used as a synonym for wealth in Kerala in the native language of Malayalam.

 

Q12.  With reference to the characteristics of Sufism, consider the following statements:

1. They failed to communicate with the local masses due to over emphasis on the Persian language.
2. Some Sufis adopted yogic practices as one of the means to establish a link with God.
3. Sufism was restricted solely in Northern India during the period of Delhi Sultanate.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 2 and 3 only

 

S12.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option b is the correct answer. The Sufis are Muslim saints who aim at establishing direct communion between God and man through personal experience of mystery which lies within Islam. They did it through ascetic exercises, contemplation, renunciation and self-denial. By the 12th century, Sufism had become an influential aspect of Islamic social life as it extended over almost the entire Muslim community.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Sufi saints used local languages to spread their message among masses in India. They translated many Persian Sufi verses in the local language called Hindavi and these are considered as the earliest examples of translations of this kind. So, they focused on local languages to connect with the masses and did not focus on Persian language.

Statement 2 is correct: Some Sufis accepted yoga breathing exercise as one of the means of their devotional path. For example, Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya, the greatest Sufi saint of the 14th century, in his khanqah, had many conversations with the Nathpanthi yogi visitors and he adopted many yoga breathing exercises and was called a Sidh (perfect) by the yogis.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Sufism reached parts of Deccan region during the period of Delhi sultanate. Shaikh Burhanuddin Gharib (1340 AD) who was one of those Sufis who were forced by Sultan Muhammed Tughlaq to migrate to the Deccan. He made Daulatabad centre of his activities and introduced the Chishti order there.

 

Q13. Which of the following biosphere reserves of India is/are protected under UNESCO Man and Biosphere Reserve Programme?

1. Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve
2. Panna Biosphere Reserve
3. Kachh Biosphere Reserve
4. Seshachalam Hills Biosphere Reserve

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

 

 

S13.Ans.(b)

Sol.

• In India, there are 18 biosphere reserves out of which 12 have been protected under the UNESCO MAB.
• The 12 biosphere reserves which are protected under UNESCO MAB are:
• o Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve (Tamil Nadu) o Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve (Tamil Nadu)
• o Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve (West Bengal)
• o Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve (Uttarakhand)
• o Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve (Madhya Pradesh) o Nokrek Biosphere Reserve (Meghalaya)
• o Simlipal Biosphere Reserve (Odisha) o Achanakmar-Amarkantak Biosphere Reserve (Chhattisgarh) o Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve (Great Nicobar) o Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve (Kerala and Tamil Nadu) o Kanchenjunga Biosphere Reserve (Part of North and West Sikkim districts) o Panna Biosphere Reserve (Madhya Pradesh) • Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

 

 

Q14. Which of the following functions and ecosystem services are provided by a wetland?

1. Purify and filter harmful waste including heavy metal from water
2. Nutrients recycling
3. Climate change mitigation
4. Groundwater recharge

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 2 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

S14.Ans.(d)

Sol.

• Wetlands are unique, productive ecosystems where terrestrial and aquatic habitats meet. Wetlands play a critical role in maintaining many natural cycles and supporting a wide range of biodiversity.
• Wetlands are particularly important providers of all water-related ecosystem services. They regulate water quantity, groundwater recharge, and can contribute to regulating floods and the impacts of storms. Wetlands also help in erosion control and sediment transport, thereby contributing to land formation and increasing resilience to storms.
• Wetlands purify and filter harmful waste from water. Plants from wetlands help absorb harmful fertilizers and pesticides, as well as heavy metals and toxins from industry. They help in nutrients recycling, groundwater recharge and stabilisation of local climates. Wetlands act as nature’s sponges. Peatlands, wet grasslands and floodplains in river basins act as natural sponges by absorbing rainfall and creating wide surface pools that ease flooding in rivers. The same storage capacity can also safeguard against drought.
• Wetlands help fight climate change. Peatlands alone store more than twice as much carbon as all the world’s forests. Faced with rising sea levels, coastal wetlands reduce the impact of typhoons and tsunamis. They also bind the shoreline and resist erosion.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

 

 

Q15. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the ecological pyramid of numbers?

(a) It represents the total number of individuals of same species at each trophic level.

(b) In grassland and aquatic ecosystems, it is of spindle-shaped.

(c) In a forest ecosystem, it is upright because large sized trees are the producers.

(d) In an aquatic ecosystems, it is upright due to decrease in the number of individuals from lower level to higher tropic level.

 

 

S15.Ans.(d)

Sol.

• Pyramid of numbers represents the total number of individuals of different species (population) at each trophic level.
• In a forest ecosystem, large sized trees are the producers, which are less in number and so form a narrow base. The trees support large number of herbivores like insects, birds, frogs, etc. including several species of animals that feed upon leaves, fruits, flowers, bark, etc. of the trees. They are large in number than trees and hence form a middle broad level. The secondary consumers like predatory birds (hawks, eagle, etc.), foxes, snakes, lizards, etc. are less in number than herbivores while top carnivores like lion, tiger, etc. are still smaller in number making the pyramid gradually narrow towards apex. So the pyramid assumes a spindle shape with narrow on both sides and broader in the middle.
• In grassland and aquatic ecosystems, pyramid of number is upright. The producers in the grassland are the grasses and in aquatic ecosystems are phytoplanktons (algae etc.) which are small in size and large in number per unit area. So the producers form a broad base in the pyramid. The herbivores in the grassland are the insects; carnivores are frogs, birds, etc. and top carnivores are hawk, eagle, foxes etc. which are gradually less and less in number and so the pyramid apex becomes gradually narrower forming an upright and erect pyramid. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

 

Q16. Consider the following statements regarding currency swap agreements

1. The purpose of engaging in a currency swap is usually to procure loans in foreign currency at more favourable interest rates than if borrowing directly in a foreign market.
2. The concept behind this is to match the difference between the spot and forward rate of any currency over a specified period of time.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

 

S16.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The purpose of engaging in a currency swap is usually to procure loans in foreign currency at more favourable interest rates than if borrowing directly in a foreign market.

The concept behind this is to match the difference between the spot and forward rate of any currency over a specified period of time.

 

 

 Q17. Which of the following is/are the correct reason/s for quest of Europeans to find a direct sea route

to India?

1. Demand for Indian luxury goods increased in Europe.
2. Land routes to India were controlled by the Arabs.
3. Religious hostility between Christianity and Islam.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S17.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option d is the correct answer Statement 1 is correct: The increased economic prosperity of Europeans increased the demand for Indian goods in European region. This pushed the traders in European country to find a direct sea route to India. This economic development was facilitated by an expansion of land under cultivation. Statement 2 correct: In 1453, Constantinople was captured by Ottoman empire. With this, Arabs controlled the land routes to India. Europeans’ inability to control land routes to India pushed them to find a direct sea route to India. Statement 3 is correct: Pope Nicholas V desired to fight Islamic influence and spread the Christian faith across the world. This motivated Portuguese to find a direct sea route to India. Portugal’s desire to circumvent the Muslim domination of the eastern Mediterranean and all the routes that connected India to Europe also motivated them.

 

Q18. Arrange the following ores in the order of increasing iron content :

1. Limonite
2. Siderite
3. Haematite
4. Magnetite

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1-2-3-4

(b) 2-3-4-1

(c) 3-4-1-2

(d) 4-1-2-3

 

S18.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Iron, the second most abundant metal in the earth’s crust, is extracted from its oxides; Haematite (Fe2O3), Magnetite (Fe3O4), Limonite (FeO(OH), carbonate Siderite(FeCO3) are the important iron ores, and Iron pyrites(FeS2) are not considered to be an important ore of iron. Increasing iron content in Iron :

• Haematite Ore – 68 %
• Magnetite Ore – 60 %
• Limonite Ore – 35-50 %
• Siderite Ore – less than 40 %

 

Q19. Consider the following pairs :

Characteristics of Forest soil                                             Region

1. High content of nitrogen and organic matter-        Meghalaya
2. Podzols –                                                   North Western Himalaya
3. Brown soils and laterites –                                    Western Ghats
4. Well-decomposed humus –                                     Darjeeling

How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d) All four pairs

 

S19.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Forest soils have a heavy accumulation of organic matter due to the decomposition of leaves and other parts of plants in the forested regions. Humus predominates in forest soils, and in the upper reaches of the slopes, the soils are often acidic in nature.

• The forest soils in the hilly tracts of Meghalaya and Assam have a high content of nitrogen and organic matter.
• The terai region on the foothills of the Himalayas is also covered with forest soils.
• Podzols dominate in the North Western Himalayan region.
• In Shayadris (Western Ghats) and Eastern Ghats, brown soils and laterites are found, •Darjeeling district of West Bengal has well-decomposed humus. So, Option (d) is correct.

 

 

Q20. With reference to mass movement, consider the following statement:

1. The steepest angle at which rock and soil material is stable is known as angle of repose.
2. Increased water content within the slope is the most common mass-wasting trigger.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S20.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Statement 1 and 2 are correct: The force vectors change as the slope angle increases. The gravitational force doesn’t change, but the shear force increases while the normal force decreases. The steepest angle at which rock and soil material is stable and will not move downslope is called the angle of repose. The angle of repose is measured relative from the horizontal. When a slope is at the angle of repose, the shear force is in equilibrium with the normal force. If the slope becomes just slightly steeper, the shear force exceeds the normal force, and the material starts to move downhill. The shear force exceeds the normal force, and the material starts to move downhill. The angle of repose varies for all material and slopes depending on many factors such as grain size, grain composition, and water content. Mass-wasting events often have a trigger: something changes that causes a landslide to occur at a specific time. It could be rapid snowmelt, intense rainfall, earthquake shaking, volcanic eruption, storm waves, rapid-stream erosion, or human activities, such as grading a new road. Increased water content within the slope is the most common mass-wasting trigger.

 

 

Q21. With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following

statements is/are correct?

1. They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places.
2. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S21.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option b is the correct answer. After Walmart’s $16bn purchase of Flipkart in 2018, the rules for foreign-owned e-commerce firms were tightened further, with unexpected severity. Two restrictions predominate.

Statement 1 is incorrect: First, foreign firms are prevented from holding inventory or selling their own goods, which both Amazon and Walmart do in other countries They can offer their platforms only as “marketplaces” for other buyers and sellers in India.

Statement 2 is correct: Second, the degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited, to prevent those sellers acting covertly on their behalf.

 

 

Q22. The report, ‘Global Sea-level Rise and Implications’ is published by

1. World meterological organisation
2. UNEP
3. UNFCCC
4. GermanWatch

 

S22.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The report — “Global Sea-level Rise and Implications”  by the World Meteorological Organisation (WMO), released on Tuesday. It stated that several big cities in all continents are threatened by the rise in sea level. These include Shanghai, Dhaka, Bangkok, Jakarta, Mumbai, Maputo, Lagos, Cairo, London, Copenhagen, New York, Los Angeles, Buenos Aires and Santiago. India, China, Bangladesh and the Netherlands face the highest threat of sea-level rise globally

 

Q23. With reference to ‘Lagrange point (L-point)’ consider the following statements:

1. These are a special kind of orbit used by satellites to get from one orbit to another.
2. These points in space can be used by spacecraft to reduce fuel consumption needed to remain in position. 3. The most used L-points are L1 and L2.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S23.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Lagrange point are positions in space where objects sent there tend to stay. Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Lagrange point can be used by spacecraft to reduce fuel consumption needed to remain in position. The most used L-points are L1 and L2

 

Q24. With reference to Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) consider the following statements:

1. It is the term used for a group of neurodevelopmental disorders.
2. At present, there are no known cures available to treat ASD.

Select the correct statements using the codes given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S24.Ans.(c)

Sol. Statement 1 and 2 are correct. ASD is the term for a group of neurodevelopmental disorders. At present, there are no known cures available to treat ASD.

 

Q25. Who among the following Chinese travelers visited the Kingdoms of Harsrhavardhana and Kumar Bhaskar Varma?

(a) I–Tsing

(b) Fa–Hien

(c) Hiuen Tsang

(d) Sun Shuyun

S25.Ans. (c)

Sol.

Hieun Tsang was a Chinese Buddhist monk who visited the kingdom of Harshvardhan and Kumar Bhaskar Varm