ଓଡିଶା ସିଭିଲ ସର୍ଭିସ୍ 2024 Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | January 1st Week

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Q1. Consider the following statements

1. The Inter-State Council was established under Article 263 of the Constitution
2. The Inter-State Council can be constituted only by the legislation of parliament.
3. Six Ministers of Cabinet rank in the Union Council of Ministers are nominated by the Prime Minister on the interstate council.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1,2 and 3

 

S1.Ans.(c)

Sol.

It is a mechanism that was constituted “to support Centre-State and Inter-State coordination and cooperation in India”. The Inter-State Council was established under Article 263 of the Constitution, which states that the President may constitute such a body if a need is felt for it.

In 1988, the Sarkaria Commission suggested the Council should exist as a permanent body, and in 1990 it came into existence through a Presidential Order

 

Q2. A rapid increase in the rate of inflation is sometimes attributed to the “base effect”. What is “base effect”?

1. It is the impact of drastic deficiency in supply due to failure of crops
2. It is the impact of the surge in demand due to rapid economic growth
3. It is the impact of the price levels of previous year on the calculation of inflation rate
4. None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) ‘given above is correct in this context

 

S2.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option c is the correct answer. The base effect relates to inflation in the corresponding period of the previous year. If the inflation rate was too low in the corresponding period of the previous year, even a smaller rise in the Price Index will arithmetically give a high rate of inflation for current year.

 

Q3. With reference to modern history of India, consider the following pairs: Organisation Founder members

1. Servants of Indian Society Gopal Krishna Gokhale
2. Majoor Mahajan Sangh Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
3. Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) Bhagat Singh
4. Social Service League Narayan Malhar Joshi

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only One pair

(b) Only Two pairs

(c) Only Three pairs

(d) All Four pairs

 

S3.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Pair 1 is correct: The Servants of India Society was founded by Gopal Krishna Gokhale in 1905 with the assistance of M.G.Ranade. The aim of the society was to train national missionaries for the service of India. The society chose to remain aloof from political activities and organisations like the Indian National Congress. After Gokhale’s death (1915), Srinivasa Shastri took over as president.

Pair 2 is incorrect: Majoor Mahajan Sangh or the Textile Labour Association was formed by Mahatma Gandhi in a mill at Ahmedabad Gujarat in 1916 as a model trade union. Ansuyaben Sarabhai was one of the prominent leaders of this Sangh, she was the elder sister of Ambalal Sarabhai (mill owner of Gujarat). Gandhiji declared Ansuyaben Sarabhai as lifelong president of this Sangh in 1920.

Pair 3 is incorrect: The Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) later renamed Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA), was founded in 1924 in Kanpur by Ramprasad Bismil, Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee and Sachin Sanyal. HRA aim was to organize an armed revolution to overthrow the colonial government and establish the Federal Republic of United States of India based on the principle of adult franchise.

Pair 4 is correct: Social Service League was founded by Narayan Malhar Joshi in Bombay. The league aims to secure for the masses better and reasonable conditions of life and work.

 

 

Q4. Consider the following statements with reference to Sea Ports in India:

1. Port which is currently named as Deendayal Port was the first port created in Independent India.
2. At present, there is only one riverine port in the Country.
3. India allowed Foreign Direct Investment of up to 100% for port and harbour construction and maintenance projects.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S4.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct: With a long coastline of 7,516.6 km, India is dotted with 12 major and 200 notified nonmajors (minor/intermediate) ports. These major ports handle 95 per cent of India’s foreign trade. Kandla in Kuchchh was the first port developed soon after Independence to ease the volume of trade on the Mumbai port, in the wake of loss of Karachi port to Pakistan after the Partition. Kandla, also known as the Deendayal Port, is a tidal port. It caters to the convenient handling of exports and imports of highly productive granary and industrial belt stretching across UT of Jammu and Kashmir, and the states of Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Gujarat.

Statement 2 is correct: Kolkata is an inland riverine port. This port serves a very large and rich hinterland of Ganga Brahmaputra basin. Being a tidal port, it requires constant dredging of Hoogly. Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Sunday (January 12) renamed the Kolkata Port Trust after Bharatiya Jana Sangh founder Dr Syama Prasad Mookerjee, at an event to mark its 150th anniversary. The Kolkata port is the only riverine port in the country, situated 203 km from the sea. The river Hooghly, on which it is located, has many sharp bends, and is considered a difficult navigational channel. Throughout the year, dredging activities have to be carried out to keep the channel open.

Statement 3 is correct: The Indian Government plays an important role in supporting the ports sector. It has allowed Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) of up to 100% under the automatic route for port and harbour construction and maintenance projects. It has also facilitated a 10-year tax holiday to enterprises that develop, maintain and operate ports, inland waterways and inland ports. X fact

 

Q5. Which of the following is an incorrect criterion for any landmass to be defined as a Continent?

1. It should be elevated above the area that surrounds it.
2. It should have its own distinctive geology.
3. The area that it takes up should be well defined.
4. It should have a crust thicker & heavier continental crust than the regular ocean floor with dark volcanic rocks

 

S5.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Zealandia, an underwater landmass, was once part of the Gondwana super-continent but broke away some 75 million years ago. It meets all the criteria that are satisfied by the existing seven continents. These are as follows:

1. It is elevated above the area that surrounds it.
2. It has its own distinctive geology.
3. The area that it takes up is well defined.
4. It has a crust thicker & lighter continental crust than the regular ocean floor with dark volcanic rocks

 

Q6.Consider the following statements regarding Quantum communication

1. It uses quantum properties such as entanglement and superposition to transmit information,
2. It involves the transmission of encrypted data and receiving of decrypted data in qbits

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S6.Ans.(a)

Sol.

What is Quantum Communication?

It refers to communication channels that leverage laws of quantum physics (use of ‘qubit’ instead of ‘0’ and ‘1’) to protect data and make it more secure than traditional transmission. Working of Quantum Communication

It uses quantum properties such as entanglement and superposition to transmit information, which cannot be intercepted or copied without being detected by the sender and the receiver. This makes quantum communication very secure and ideal for transmitting sensitive information such as financial transactions and classified messages.

What is Quantum Key Distribution?

QKD involves the transmission of encrypted data as classical bits while the decryption key is encoded and transmitted in a quantum state using qubits

 

Q7.Consider the following statements regarding bimodal nuclear propulsion system

1. It is based on two concepts Nuclear-Thermal Propulsion (NTP) and Nuclear-Electric Propulsion (NEP).
2. The NTP system includes a nuclear reactor that will heat liquid hydrogen (LH2) propellant and turn it into ionised hydrogen gas (plasma) whereas NEP uses electricity to a generate an electromagnetic field that will ionise and accelerate an inert gas to create thrust.
3. They have benefit that fuel efficiency, a higher specific impulserating and unlimited energy density

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S7.Ans.(d)

Sol.

NASA is developing bimodal nuclear propulsion – a two-part system Nuclear propulsion is based on two concepts:

Nuclear-Thermal Propulsion (NTP) and Nuclear-Electric Propulsion (NEP).

The NTP system includes a nuclear reactor that will heat liquid hydrogen (LH2) propellant and turn it into ionised hydrogen gas (plasma) that will then be channelled through nozzles to generate thrust. Meanwhile, NEP depends on a nuclear reactor to provide electricity to a Hall-Effect thrusters (ion engine), which will generate an electromagnetic field that will ionise and accelerate an inert gas (for example xenon) to create thrust.
Both systems have major advantages over conventional chemical propulsion. These benefits include fuel efficiency, a higher specific impulse (Isp) rating and unlimited energy density (virtually). The latest and new bimodal nuclear propulsion system will use a “wave rotor topping cycle” that may reduce transit times to Mars to 45 days.

 

Q8. In the context of ecology, consider the following statements regarding dead zones:

1. Dead zones are areas with low-oxygen or hypoxic conditions in the world’s oceans.
2. They are formed due to excess nutrient run-off.
3. Unlike most other animals, jellyfish can survive in dead zones.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3 only

 

S8.Ans.(c)

Sol.

A dead zone is an area of an ocean (or lake) that has too little oxygen to support marine life; it is hypoxic. This is a natural phenomenon that has been increasing in shallow coastal and estuarine areas as a result of human activities. Hence statement 1 is correct.

There are many physical, chemical, and biological factors that combine to create dead zones, but nutrient pollution is the primary cause of those zones created by humans. Excess nutrients that run off land or are piped as wastewater into rivers and coasts can stimulate an overgrowth of algae, which then sinks and decomposes in the water. The decomposition process consumes oxygen and depletes the supply available to healthy marine life. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Dead zones occur in coastal areas around the nation and in the Great Lakes — no part of the country or the world is immune. The has been a staggering increase in the number of dead zones worldwide over the past 60 years, from just 42 in 1950, to 405 in 2008. Dead zones now cover 95,000 square miles; this is the size of the United Kingdom. x Unlike most other animals, jellyfish can survive, and reproduce, in oxygen-starved waters, such as those that form each year along the northern Gulf coast, giving them a big advantage as so-called dead zones expand globally. Hence statement 3 is correct.

 

Q9. Consider the following statements with respect to the Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC):

1. It is an ad-hoc body which is set up to examine only bills presented before the Parliament.
2. The first JPC was authorised in 1974 to investigate the maruti scandal.
3. They are set up by a motion passed in any one house of Parliament and agreed to by the other.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S9.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Statement 1 is not correct: The Joint Parliamentary committee (JPC) is an ad-hoc body which is set up for a given period of time and is aimed at addressing a specific issue not limited to only bills and dissolved after submission of its report to Parliament.

Statement 2 is not correct: The first JPC was formed in August 1987 to investigate the Bofors scandal. It was formed on a motion moved by the then defence minister K.C. Pant in the Lok Sabha on August 6, 1987.

Statement 3 is correct: Joint parliament committees are set up by a motion passed in one house of Parliament and agreed to by the other. The details regarding membership and subjects are also decided by Parliament. For example, the motion to constitute a JPC on the stock market scam (2001) and pesticide residues in soft drinks (2003) was moved by the government in the Lok Sabha.

         

 Q10. With reference to tide formation, consider the following statements:

1. Spring tide occurs when sun and moon are at right angles to each other.
2. Neap happens when the sun, the moon and the earth are in a straight line.
3. The highest tides in the world occur in the Bay of Fundy in Canada.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S10.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Spring tides: The position of both the sun and the moon in relation to the earth has direct bearing on tide height.

Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is incorrect: When the sun, the moon and the earth are in a straight line, the height of the tide will be higher. These are called spring tides and they occur twice a month, one during the full moon period and another during the new moon period. Neap tides: Normally, there is a seven-day interval between the spring tides and neap tides. At this time the sun and moon are at right angles to each other and the forces of the sun and moon tend to counteract one another. The Moon’s attraction, though more than twice as strong as the sun’s, is diminished by the counteracting force of the sun’s gravitational pull. Statement 3 is correct: Tides of Bay of Fundy, Canada the highest tides in the world occur in the Bay of Fundy in Nova Scotia, Canada. The tidal bulge is 15 – 16 m. Because there are two high tides and two low tides every day (roughly a 24-hour period); a tide must come in within about a six-hour period

Q11. Which of the following is the correct description of the terms ‘Kshaharatas’ and ‘Kardamakas’?

• Coins of Satavahana rulers
• Dynasties of Saka-Kshatrapa rulers
• Taxes levied by Gupta Rulers
• Titles of Mauryan Rulers

 

S11.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option b is the correct answer.

The Kshaharatas and Kardamakas are two important dynasties/lines of Kshatrapa rulers who were Indo- Scythian (Saka) rulers of the western and central part of India. Kshaharatas dynasty- The prominent rulers of this dynasty are-Bhumaka and Nahapana. Another name, Aghudaka or Abhedaka is also known from coins, who also bears the family name Kshaharata on his coins. Bhumaka seems to have originally owed allegiance to Kanishka. His coins with legends in Brahmi and Kharosthi have been found in coastal Gujarat; some also could be traced in Malwa and Ajmer area. Bhumaka was immediately succeeded by Nahapana as his copper coins were of the same type as issued by Bhumaka. Kardamaka dynasty- The Kardamakas dynasty rulers are another line of the Shaka kshatrapas who ruled western India after the Kshaharatas dynasty came to an end. The prominent rulers of this dynasty are- Chashtana, Founder of the Kardamaka dynasty and Rudradaman I, the most important ruler of the Kardamaka family. During his reign the Saka power experienced a major expansion.

 

Q12. Under which of the following circumstances may ‘capital gains’ arise?

1. when there is an increase in the sales of a product
2. when there is a natural increase in the value of the property owned.
3. when you purchase a painting and there is a growth in its value due to increase in its popularity.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S12.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

Capital gain is an increase in a capital asset’s value and is considered to be realized when the asset is sold.

Realized capital gains and losses occur when an asset is sold, which triggers a taxable event. Unrealized gains and losses, sometimes referred to as paper gains and losses, reflect an increase or decrease in an investment’s value but are not considered a capital gain that should be treated as a taxable event. Increase sale of a product doesn’t imply the increase of value of that product. So, no capital gain.

 

Q13. Consider the following statements with reference to the conservation reserves:

1. These are the areas owned by either the central government or the state governments.
2. The areas adjacent to national parks and sanctuaries and those areas which link one protected area with another cannot be declared as conservation reserves.
3. Conservation Reserve Management Committee advises the Chief Wild Life Warden to conserve, manage and maintain the conservation reserve.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S13.Ans.(c)

Sol.

• Section 36A of the Wildlife Protection Act mentions the declaration and management of a conservation reserve.
• It states that the State Government may, after having consultations with the local communities, declare any area owned by the Government, particularly the areas adjacent to National Parks and sanctuaries and those areas which link one protected area with another, as a conservation reserve for protecting landscapes, seascapes, flora and fauna, and their habitat.
• It also states that where the conservation reserve includes any land owned by the Central Government, its prior concurrence shall be obtained before making such declaration. Hence statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

The State Government constitutes a conservation reserve management committee to advise the Chief Wild Life Warden to conserve, manage and maintain the conservation reserve. Hence statement 3 is correct.

 

 

Q14. Which of the following best reflects the term ‘Shrinkflation’, seen in the news?

1. Drastic increase in the price of a product due to its unavailability.
2. Drastic decrease in the price of a product due to its easy availability.
3. Reducing the quantity of a product without altering its price.
4. Increase in the price of a product due to a rise in the price of its substitute goods.

 

S14.Ans.(c)

Sol.

• Option a and b are incorrect: Shrinkflation or Shrink Inflation is not related to drastic increase/decrease in the price of a product due to unavailability/easy availability. According to the law of demand and supply, the price of a product will increase/decrease based on the mismatch between demand and supply of a particular product. Price will rise when demand exceeds supply and price falls if supply exceeds demand. Shrinkflation is related more to reducing the quantity of product while keeping the same price.
• Option c is correct: Shrinkflation refers to the practice of reducing the quantity of a product without altering its price. For instance, reducing the weight of chips in a packet without altering its price would count as shrinkflation.
• Option d is incorrect: In Microeconomics, Substitute goods are similar products that a customer may use for the same purpose. For example, tea is a substitute good for coffee and vice versa and Coca cola and Pepsi are another example of substitute goods. Usually, an increase in the price of one substitute good (tea) results in the price rise of another substitute good (coffee).

 

Q15. Consider the following Pairs:

Members                                      Portfolio held in first cabinet (1947)

1. Sardar Vallabhbhai                       Home Affairs
2. John Mathai                             Scientific Research
3. Dr. Rajendra Prasad                         Education

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S15.Ans.(c)

Sol.

• Statement 1 is correct: In the first Cabinet of free India portfolios held by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was: Home, Information and Broadcasting and States.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Dr. John Mathai held the Portfolio of Railways and transport, where Jawahar Lal Nehru held a portfolio of Scientific research.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Dr. Rajendra Prasad held the portfolio of Food and Agriculture, the portfolio of education was held by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad.

 

Q16. Which of the following fibre is commonly referred to as ‘artificial silk’?

(a) Rayon

(b) Linen

(c) Acrylic

(d) Nylon

 

S16.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option (a) is correct: Silkworm was discovered in China and was kept as a closely guarded secret for a long time. Fabric obtained from silk fibre was very costly. But its beautiful texture fascinated everybody. Attempts were made to make silk artificially. Towards the end of the nineteenth century, scientists were successful in obtaining a fibre having properties similar to that of silk. Such a fibre was obtained by chemical treatment of wood pulp. This fibre was called rayon or artificial silk. Although rayon is obtained from a natural source, wood pulp, yet it is a man-made fibre. It is cheaper than silk and can be woven like silk fibres. It can also be dyed in a wide variety of colours. Rayon is mixed with cotton to make  bed sheets or mixed with wool to make carpets.

 

 Q17. Which of the following statements with respect to National Policy for Rare Diseases, 2021 is incorrect?

1. It categorizes rare diseases into three groups and its funding pattern
2. 95% of rare diseases have no approved treatment and less than 1 in 10 patients receive disease-specific treatment
3. The government will notify Centres of Excellence (CoE) for the management of rare diseases and provided a one-time grant to a maximum of Rs.5 crore each
4. The rare diseases that require very high cost and lifelong therapy will be provided at Rs. 20 lakh under the Rashtriya Arogaya Nidhi

 

S17.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Rare Diseases

• There are 7,000-8,000 classified rare diseases, but less than 5% have therapies available to treat them
• About 95% of rare diseases have no approved treatment and less than 1 in 10 patients receive disease-specific treatment.
• India has said it lacks epidemiological data on the prevalence here and hence has only classified certain diseases as ‗rare.‘

National Policy for Rare Diseases, 2021

• Accordingly, a ‗rare disease‘ has been categorized into three groups.

Group 1 Diseases

• Financial support up to Rs. 20 lakh under the Umbrella Scheme of Rashtriya Arogaya Nidhi shall be provided by the Central Government for treatment, of those rare diseases that require a one-time treatment (diseases listed under Group 1).
• Beneficiaries for such financial assistance would not be limited to BPL families, but extended to about 40% of the population, who are eligible as per norms of Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana, for their treatment in Government tertiary hospitals only.

Group 2 Diseases

• State Governments can consider supporting patients of such rare diseases that can be managed with special diets or hormonal supplements or other relatively low-cost interventions (Diseases listed under Group 2).

Group 3 Diseases

• The new policy has absolutely no consideration for Group 3 patients, who require lifelong treatment support.
• The policy states that keeping in view the resource constraint and competing for health priorities, it will be difficult for the Government to fully finance the treatment of high-cost rare diseases.
• The gap can however be filled by creating a digital platform for bringing together notified hospitals where such patients are receiving treatment or come for treatment, on the one hand, and prospective individual or corporate donors willing to support the treatment of such patients.

 

Q18. Consider the following statements

4. The boundary between the inner and outer core is called Lehman Seismic Discontinuity.
5. The inner core is solid in nature and spins a bit faster than the rest of the planet
6. The inner core of Earth always spins in the same direction of its revolution around axis.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1,2 and 3

 

S18.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The inner core is predicted to have very high thermal and electrical conductivity. The inner core generates its own magnetic field and spins a bit faster than the rest of the planet.

. The boundary between the inner and outer cores is located at approximately 5150 km below the surface of the Earth. This boundary is called the Lehman Seismic Discontinuity.

The inner core  is a solid metallic ball made mainly of iron. The inner core is solid due to the pressure caused by the weight put on it by the Earth’s other top layers. It is distinct from the outer core, which is a liquid.

A recent study has stated  that the inner core of Earth seems to have stopped spinning in the same direction as the rest of the planet.

 

Q19. With reference to Indian Judicial System, ‘Nyaya Mitras’ can be best referred as:

1. the agent of the state to represent the interest of common people in the criminal justice system.
2. the social activist who plays an important role in maintaining communal harmony in particular areas.
3. the person providing assistance to the judiciary in the reduction of old pending court cases.
4. the advocates who provide free of cost legal services to the poor and vulnerable sections of society.

 

S19.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option c is the correct answer. Nyaya Mitra programme was introduced in 2017. It aims to facilitate expeditious disposal of 10-15 years old pending cases in High Courts and Subordinate Courts. 1) A Nyaya Mitra (NM) is a retired judicial officer/executive officer, having legal degree/background who is located at High Courts/District Courts. 2) Nyaya Mitra provides assistance to the judiciary in reduction of decade old pending court case, liaising with the different departments to fast disposal of cases, referring cases to Lok Adalat. etc. Nyaya Mitra’s responsibilities would include among others- 1) Assistance to litigants who are suffering due to delay in investigations or trial, by actively identifying such cases through the National Judicial Data Grid, 2) Providing legal advice and connecting litigants to DLSA, CSC Tele Law, other government agencies and civil society organizations.

 

Q20. With reference to CRISPR-CAS9, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a unique set of DNA sequences present in all the bacteria.
2. CRISPR system can identify and destroy the foreign DNA.
3. It has been used to modify the genomes of a variety of species including fruit flies and yeast. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S20.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Statement 1 is incorrect CRISPR-Cas9 is a gene editing technology that uses a combination of (1) an enzyme that cuts DNA (Cas9, a nuclease) (2) a guiding piece of genetic material (guide RNA) to specify the location in the genome It offers the potential for substantial improvement over other gene editing technologies in ease of use, speed, efficacy, and cost.

Statement 2 is correct and Statement 3 is correct: The CRISPR system identifies, cuts and destroys foreign DNA. Researchers have identified five different types of CRISPR systems. The most studied CRISPR system is associated with the Cas9 protein and is known as CRISPR-Cas9. Since then, CRISPR-Cas9 has been used to modify the genomes of a variety of species—ranging from mice and fruit flies to corn and yeast. CRISPR-Cas9 has shifted the paradigm with its simplicity and low-cost relative to other methods of gene editing— removing barriers to widespread adoption and creating new research opportunities.

 

Q21. Consider the following statements

1. According to the provisions of the RPA 1951 Act, the candidature of an Independent candidate must be proposed by 2 persons residing in the constituency from where the candidate is filling the nomination papers
2. The returning officer is the final authority on deciding whether the nomination will be accepted or not as per the Representation of Peoples Act 1951.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

 

S21.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Duties of returning officer:

1. According to the provisions of the Act, the candidature of an Independent candidate must be proposed by 10 persons residing in the constituency from where the candidate is filling the nomination papers
2. Initially, the returning officer was the final authority on deciding whether the nomination will be accepted or not per. However, after the case of Vishnu Kamath vs Ahmed Isheque,another landmark case in which the Supreme Court held that A 329(b) of the Indian Constitution, which provided that election petitions can only be heard by special tribunals only. And once the proceedings were initiated the requirements of the A 329(b) were met and trial by the election tribunal was subject to general law under which the petition could be taken up by the higher authority in the hierarchy of jurisprudence.
3. However, in order to avoid dual jurisdiction, the Election Commission recommended that high courts should be given the direct authority to adjudicate upon these matters. Eventually, Section 80-A was incorporated by an amendment into the Representation of People Act by the Parliament in 1966 which established high courts as the authority for deciding upon election petitions. Section 33(4) of Chapter I of Representation of Peoples Act 1951. Only a special tribunal had the power to overrule his decision and to hear the appeal of a candidate

 

 

Q22. Consider the following statements with reference to the National Centre of Excellence for Green Port & Shipping (NCoEGPS):

1. The centre aims to develop a regulatory framework to foster carbon neutrality and circular economy (CE) in the shipping sector.
2. The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) is the knowledge and implementation partner for this project.
3. NCoEGPS is a major initiative of NITI Aayog.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1 only

 

S22.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Union Minister of Ports, Shipping & Waterways has recently announced India’s first National Centre of Excellence for Green Port & Shipping (NCoEGPS) a major initiative by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping towards providing greener solutions. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

The centre aims to develop a regulatory framework and alternate technology adoption roadmap for Green Shipping to foster carbon neutrality and circular economy (CE) in the shipping sector in India. India intends to increase the share of renewable energy to 60% of the total power demand of each of its major ports from a present share of less than 10%. This will be through solar and wind-generated power. Hence statement 1 is correct.

The main objective of the proposed NCoEGPS is to provide support to MoPSW in developing and maintaining a policy and regulatory framework for a green alternative technologies roadmap for the shipping sector in India for its transition to carbon neutrality and CE principles. The NCoEGPS will be working under the framework of the Sagarmala programme of the MoPSW. The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) is the knowledge and implementation partner for this project. Hence statement 2 is correct.

 

Q23. With reference to Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF), consider the following statements:

1. The framework has 23 targets to address the loss of biodiversity and restore natural ecosystems by 2030.
2. The GBF aims to protect at least 30% of the planet by 2030 and reverse ecosystem degradation. 3. The Global Environment Facility has been requested to establish a Special Trust Fund to support the implementation of the Framework.

Which of the following statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3 only

 

S23.Ans.(c)

Sol.

x The 15th Conference of Parties (COP15) to the United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) held in Montreal in December 2022 adopted the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF). The GBF includes four goals and 23 targets to address the loss of biodiversity and restore natural ecosystems by 2030. Hence statement 1 is correct.

x The GBF aims to protect at least 30% of the planet by 2030 and reverse ecosystem degradation. As part of the GBF, countries have pledged to reduce harmful government subsidies worth USD500 billion annually and identify subsidies that are harmful to biodiversity by 2025. Hence statement 2 is correct. x To support the implementation of the GBF, the Global Environment Facility has been requested to establish a Special Trust Fund, and a multilateral fund for the equitable sharing of benefits between providers and users of digital sequence information on genetic resources will be established within the GBF. Hence statement 3 is correct.

 

Q24. Consider the following statements

1. In a Tidally locked planet one side of the planet always faces the star.
2. The ‘terminator line’ is the dividing line between the ‘day’ and ‘night’ sides of the planet.
3. There is no terminator line for Earth. Choose the correct statements:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 2

( d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S24.Ans.(c)

Sol.

• Tidally locked planet – ‘Tidally locked’ is a gravitational phenomenon in which one side of the planet always faces the star.
• Most of the exoplanets are tidally locked and have a permanent day side and a permanent night side.
• Terminator Zone – The ‘terminator’ is the dividing line between the ‘day’ and ‘night’ sides of the planet.
• Terminator zones are the border region between light and dark halves of an exoplanet.
• Terminator zones are the regions that could exist in that sweet spot between too hot and too cold.
• They are also known as ‘Twilight zones’.
• On Earth, the terminator moves around over the course of a day, but on some planets it’s fixed in place called tidally locked planets.

 

Q25.Parliament can alter the name of any State provided –

1. The Bill is introduced in either House of Parliament on the recommendation of the President.
2. The Bill has been referred by the President to the State Legislature concerned for expressing its views thereon within a specified period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S25.Ans. (c)

Sol.

How is a new state formed?

By law, Parliament can form a new state by separating the territory from any state, by merging two or more states or parts of states. Parliament can also reduce or increase the area or alter the boundary of any state or even change its name. But first, a bill on the matter has to be referred by the President to the legislature of the affected state so that the legislature can express its views within a certain period.

Once the President has ascertained the views of the state government, a resolution is tabled before the assembly. Once the resolution is passed by the assembly, it has to pass a bill creating the new state. Finally, a separate bill on the matter is introduced in Parliament on the recommendation of the President. Once this bill is passed by a two-thirds majority and ratified by the President, the new state is formed.