ଓଡିଶା ସିଭିଲ ସର୍ଭିସ୍ 2024 Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | January 2nd Week

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Q1. With reference to Enhanced Rock Weathering, consider the following statements:

1. Enhanced Rock Weathering increase ocean acidification.
2. Tropical climate and perennial crops favour higher weathering rates.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S1.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Enhanced Rock Weathering is a proposed Carbon Dioxide Removal technology involving the application of crushed silicate rocks, such as basalt, to agricultural soils with potential co-benefits for crops and soils, and mitigation of ocean acidification.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Natural rock weathering absorbs around 0.3% of global fossil fuel emissions, enhanced weathering can provide a boost to remove even more CO2 from our atmosphere. As enhanced weathering makes water more alkaline, it can help counteract ocean acidification. And adding minerals to soils can boost nutrient levels, improving crop yields and helping restore degraded agricultural soils

Statement 2 is correct: Indonesia ranks second in fossil fuel emissions per unit of energy behind India, ranks low in human health impacts, because its tropical climate and perennial crops favour higher weathering rates, meaning that less grinding is required to achieve an equivalent amount of Carbon dioxide removal.

 

Q2. Which among following provisions of the Indian Constitution aims to establish egalitarian social order in India?

1. Preamble.
2. Fundamental Duties.
3. Directive Principles of State Policy.
4. Fundamental rights

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

 

S2.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option(d) is correct:

1. The Supreme Court of India observed in 1997 that: “The Constitution envisions to establish an egalitarian social order”.
2. An egalitarian social order can render every citizen social, economic and political justice in a social and economic democracy of the Bharat Republic.
3. In an egalitarian social order, the legal system promotes justice, and ensures that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any section of the society due to social and economic disabilities. Following provisions of the Constitution aims to provide different forms of Justice to the people of India. 1. Preamble: Social Justice, Economic Justice and Political Justice. 2. Fundamental Rights: Political Justice. 3. Directive Principles: Social Justice, Economic Justice.

 

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding the Asiatic cheetah

1. The Asiatic cheetah is a critically endangered cheetah subspecies currently only surviving in Iran.
2. Asiatic Cheetah has been extinct in the country since 1972.
3. Compared to African cheetahs, the Asiatic cheetah is bigger and Faster
4. India has signed an agreement to introduce African Cheetah in India from Namibia.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

1. 1,2 and 3
2. 2,3 and 4
3. 1 and 4
4. 3 and 4

 

S3.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The Asiatic cheetah is a critically endangered cheetah subspecies currently only surviving in Iran.

It has been extinct in the country since 1952

The project for the cheetah — the only wild cat to go extinct in independent India — was put back on track in 2020 when the Supreme Court lifted a stay on the original proposal to introduce African cheetahs from Namibia into the Indian habitat on an experimental basis.

Compared to African cheetahs, the Asiatic cheetah is smaller but has a thicker coat, a more powerful neck, and slender legs. Many believe that they could be faster than the African species with longer legs

African Cheetahs are listed as “Vulnerable” by the International Union for the Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List of Threatened Species but after a recent study revealed significant population declines, scientists are calling for cheetahs to be up listed to “Endangered category. But currently, they are listed under ‘vulnerable’ category.

Under the Cheetah Reintroduction Plan, Kuno National Park, Madhya Pradesh is selected as first   for introduction of African Cheetah.

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding piezoelectric effect

5. It is the ability of certain materials to generate an electric charge in response to applied mechanical stress.
6. One of the unique characteristics of the piezoelectric effect is that it is irreversible
7. It is observed only in Solids.
8. Analog wristwatches and clocks makes use of this phenomenon.

1. 1 and 3
2. 2 and 4
3. 1 and 4
4. 2 send 3

 

S4.Ans.(c)

Sol.

In the piezoelectric effect, a body develops an electric current when it is squeezed. The effect is reversible in nature, meaning that materials exhibiting the direct piezoelectric effect (the generation of electricity when stress is applied) also exhibit the converse piezoelectric effect (the generation of stress when an electric field is applied).

For the first time, scientists have reported evidence of the piezoelectric effect in liquids. The effect has been known for 143 years and in this time has been observed only in solids. The new finding challenges the theory that describes this effect as well as opens the door to previously unanticipated applications in electronic and mechanical systems. Quartz is the most famous piezoelectric crystal: it is used in this capacity in Analog wristwatches and clocks. Such crystals are also used in cigarette lighters, electric guitars, TV remote controls, audio transducers, and other instruments where converting mechanical stress to a current is useful.

 

Q5. Consider the following pairs: Supreme Court Cases Concerned Provisions

1. Mahabir Prasad Judgement Nature of the governor’s pleasure
2. Nabam Rebia Judgement Discretionary Power of governor
3. Minerva Mills case Basic Structure doctrine
4. MC Mehta Scope of Article 32

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pair

(c) Only three pair

(d) All four pair

 

 

S5.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Pair 1 is correctly matched Mahabir Prasad Judgement: The case revolved around the question of the nature of the governor’s pleasure under article 164(1).  The withdrawal of the governor’s pleasure must coincide with the withdrawal of support to the ministry by the assembly.

• Pair 2 is correctly matched Nabam Rebia Judgement: SC ruled that Article 163 of the Constitution does not give the Governor a general discretionary power to act against or without the advice of his Council of Ministers.
• Minerva Mills case: The judgement struck down 2 changes made to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act 1976, declaring them to be violative of the basic structure hence, Pair 3 is correctly matched
• Pair 4 is correctly matched MC Mehta: SC held that its power under Article 32 is not restricted to preventive measures, but also remedial measures when rights are violated.

 

Q6. With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?

1. It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.
2. It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.
3. The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.
4. The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.

 

S6.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Exp) Option a is the correct answer. In the Gupta period Vishti or forced labour became a source of state income and was looked upon as a sort of taxation paid by the people. So, it finds frequent mention along with other taxes in the Gupta inscriptions. The donees were not only provided with land and villages along with right to various taxes, they were also given the right to forced labour. This shows that forced labour was probably more common than in the earlier period. Most of the inscriptions referring to Vishti come from Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions may suggest this practice was more prevalent in these areas.

 

Q7. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Kushanas empire in ancient India? Consider the socio-economic life during the Kushana empire in Ancient India:

1. The Kushana period was marked by the complete absence of copper coins.
2. Kushanas had extensive trade contacts with foreign countries such as Rome and China.
3. The Kushana period witnessed a decline in the number of Urban centers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 2 only
4. 1 and 3 only

 

 

S7.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The Kushan Empire was founded by Kujula Kadphises and was the major power in Central Asia and northern India from the 1st to 3rd Century CE. Kanishka (127 CE – 150 CE) was considered the greatest Kushan king. Kanishka’s reign extended to cover Peshawar, Gandhara, Pataliputra, Oudh, Kashmir, and Mathura. The Kushan kingdom also comprised parts of Tajikistan and Uzbekistan.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The significant aspect of the Kushan empire was the availability of a large number of copper coins. Copper coins generally used for petty transactions indicate the importance of money in the daily life of the common people. The system of barter, however, was very much in practice.

Statement 2 is correct: The Periplus states that the Kushan empire had trade contact with Thina (China) through Barygaza port. Also, Kushans had trade contact with Roman both through maritime and land route which is evident from the large number of gold coins found during the Kushan empire. The two major ports of north India during the Kushana period were Barbaricum at the mouth of the river Indus and Barygaza (Bhrigukachchha) on the mouth of the river Narmada in Gujarat.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The economic prosperity of the Kushan empire facilitated a brisker rate of urban growth. Important cities like Bactra, Peucolaotis (Pushkalavati), Taxila, Modoura (Mathura), etc. which had already been in existence prior to the Kushana rule, blossomed further. Therefore, it is not true that urban centres declined during the Kushan empire.

 

Q8. Which of the following is/are in-situ bioremediation techniques?

1. Biopiles
2. Landfarming
3. Bioattenuation

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

 

 

S8.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Biopile-mediated bioremediation involves above-ground piling of excavated polluted soil, followed by nutrient amendment, and sometimes aeration to enhance bioremediation by basically increasing microbial activities. The components of this technique are: aeration, irrigation, nutrient and leachate collection systems, and a treatment bed.

Land farming is an ex-situ bioremediation treatment process that is performed in the upper soil zone or in biotreatment cells. Contaminated soils, sediments, or sludges are incorporated into the soil surface and periodically turned over or tilled to aerate the mixture.

Bioattenuation is an in-situ bioremediation technique that relies on natural processes to dissipate contaminants through biological transformation, during which the indigenous microbial populations degrade recalcitrants or xenobiotics compounds based on their metabolic processes.

 

Q9. Consider the following statements regarding the Koronivia Joint Work on Agriculture (KJWA):

1. It is the only program to focus on agriculture and food security under United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
2. It was established at the 2022 Conference of the Parties of the UNFCCC (COP27).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S9.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Recently, as per reports, India raised objections to discussions under KJWA. The Koronivia Joint Work on Agriculture (KJWA) is a landmark decision (decision 4/CP.23) recognizing the unique potential of agriculture in tackling climate change.

• The KJWA was established at the 23rd Conference of the Parties (COP) in Fiji in 2017 as a new process to advance discussions on agriculture in the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The KJWA is the only programme to focus on agriculture and food security under UNFCCC. Hence statement 1 is correct.

 

Q10. Consider the following statements in respect of Priority Sector Lending (PSL) norms fixed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI):

1. All Primary Urban Co-operative Banks (UCBS) are exempted from these norms.
2. Loans to small and marginal farmers for purchase of land for agricultural purposes are classified as PSL.
3. Commercial banks falling short of their PSL target have to transfer the balance amount to any funds as decided by the RBI.

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S10.Ans.(b)

Sol.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Only Salaried Earners’ Primary (Urban) Cooperative Banks are exempted from Priority sector lending norms. The PSL norms are applicable to all Commercial Banks including Regional Rural Bank (RRB), Small Finance Bank (SFB), Local Area Bank and foreign commercial banks too.
• Statement 2 is correct: Loans to individual farmers, including to small and marginal farmers for purchase of land for agricultural purposes are classified as Priority Sector Lending (PSL). Following are some of the lending activities to farmers which are classified as PSL.
• Statement 3 is correct: It is true that Commercial Banks having any shortfall in lending to priority sector have to transfer balance amounts to the Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) established with NABARD and other funds with NABARD/National Housing Bank (NHB) / Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)/ MUDRA Ltd., as decided by the Reserve Bank of India.

 

Q11. Consider the following statements regarding Government of India act, 1858:

1. The Government of India Act of 1858 act has ended the system of double government by abolishing the Board of Control and Court of Directors.
2. The Government of India Act, 1858 established a 15-member Council of India and the decisions made by the council are Binding.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S11.Ans.(a)

Sol.

• Statement 1 is correct: The Government of India act, 1858 changed the designation of the Governor-General of India to that of Viceroy of India. He (viceroy) was the direct representative of the British Crown in India. Lord Canning thus became the first Viceroy of India. It ended the system of double government by abolishing the Board of Control and Court of Directors.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Government of India act, 1858 created a new office, Secretary of State for India, vested with complete authority and control over Indian administration. The secretary of state was a member of the British cabinet and was ultimately responsible to the British Parliament. It established a 15-member Council of India to assist the secretary of state for India.
• The council was an advisory body. The secretary of state was made the chairman of the council. It constituted the secretary of state-in-council as a body corporate, capable of suing and being sued in India and in England.

 

Q12. Consider the following statements:

1. It is a statutory body mandated to investigate all the offences affecting security and integrity of the country.
2. It can investigate offenses involving human trafficking and counterfeit currency related offences. 3. Presently, it functions under the supervision of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
3. It has the authority to investigate offences under Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act committed outside Indian territory.

Which one of the following institutions/agencies of India is being described in the above given statements?

1. Central Bureau of Investigation
2. Enforcement Directorate
3. National Investigation Agency
4. Serious Fraud Investigation Office

 

S12.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The National Investigation Agency (NIA) was constituted under the National Investigation Agency (NIA) Act, 2008. It is a central agency to investigate and prosecute offences: 1) affecting the sovereignty, security and integrity of India, security of State, 2) Affecting friendly relations with foreign States. 3) against atomic and nuclear facilities. 4) smuggling in High-Quality Counterfeit Indian Currency. It is functioning under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India. The agency has been empowered with all the powers and privileges to conduct investigations under the various acts specified in the Schedule book of NIA act. NIA (Amendment) Act 2019 expands the jurisdiction of the NIA. Now, it has the authority to investigate schedule offences that are committed outside Indian territory subject to international treaties and domestic laws of other nations.

 

Q13. Consider the following pairs:

Major Port               Country

1. Tripoli:                 Lebanon
2. Calais:                Netherland
3. Memphis:               USA
4. Abadan:                  Iraq

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) One pair only

(b) Two pairs only

(c) Three pairs only

(d) All four pairs

 

S13.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Pair 1 is correctly matched and pair 4 is incorrectly matched: Tripoli and Abadan are oil ports. Oil Ports deal in the processing and shipping of oil. Some of these are tanker ports and some are refinery ports. Maracaibo in Venezuela, Esskhira in Tunisia, and Tripoli in Lebanon are tanker ports. Abadan on the Gulf of Persia (in Iran) is a refinery port.

Pair 3 is correctly matched: Memphis is an inland port. Inland Ports are located away from the sea coast. They are linked to the sea through a river or a canal. For example, Manchester is linked with a canal; Memphis is located on the river Mississippi; Rhine has several ports like Mannheim and Duisburg; and Kolkata is located on the river Hoogli, a branch of the river Ganga. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Calais is a ferry port (packet station) in France. These packet stations are exclusively concerned with the transportation of passengers and mail across water bodies covering short distances. These stations occur in pairs located in such a way that

Q14. With reference to ‘designer baby’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Embryo is selected through the method of pre-implantation genetic diagnosis.
2. Molecular scissors are used to make cuts at certain specified locations.
3. Indian Parliament has passed a law to ban germline editing of humans because of ethical concerns.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S14.Ans.(b)

Sol.

A designer baby is a GM human embryo with appropriate qualities which have been shaped as per the instructions received from the parents. Specifically, designer babies were conceived so that children would be free from any life-threatening disease. For instance, if either of the parent has a history of a terminally ill disease in their family, the GM baby will be immune to that disease. Statement 1 is correct: Designer babies are either created from an embryo selected by pre-implantation genetic diagnosis (PGD) or genetically modified in order to influence the traits of the resulting children.

Statement 2 is correct: The process through which designer babies are produced is known as gene editing. These cuts are restored through non-homologous end joining or homologous recombination that result in the desired edits. Using molecular scissors, cuts can be made at certain locations of the genome.

Statement 3 is incorrect: India is witnessing technological growth of late, but still, there is no specific law that regulates genetic modification or germline editing. According to the Guidelines released by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), genetic editing to create designer babies is unethical, which should be prohibited

 

Q15. Consider the following statements regarding Election Petition

1. An election petition is the only legal remedy available to a voter or a candidate who believes there has been malpractice in an election
2. Such a petition has to be filed within 30 days from the date of the poll results; nothing is entertained by courts after that
3. An election petition submitted to the High Court of the state in which the constituency is located

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 only
4. 1,2 and 3

 

S15.Ans.(a)

Sol.

What Is An Election Petition?

• The Election Commission’s role ends with the declaration of results, that is once the Returning Officer has signed the final result sheet
• After that, an election petition is the only legal remedy available to a voter or a candidate who believes there has been malpractice in an election. Such a person can challenge the result through an election petition submitted to the High Court of the state in which the constituency is located.
• Such a petition has to be filed within 45 days from the date of the poll results; nothing is entertained by courts after that. Although the Representative of the People Act of 1951 suggests that the High Court should try to conclude the trial within six months, it usually drags on for much longer, even years

 

Q16. With reference to ‘Atal Vayo Abhyuday Yojana’, consider the following statements

1. It is a central sector scheme implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
2. The scheme has three components for the empowerment of senior citizens namely– Integrated program, state action plan and community action plan
3. Grant in aid is provided to NGOs/ Voluntary Organisations (VOs) for maintenance of old age homes under the Integrated Program for Senior Citizens (IPSrC) component

Choose the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

 

S16.Ans.(c)

Sol.

It is a Central Sector Scheme, which is formerly known as National Action Plan for Senior Citizens. The Department of Social Justice and Empowerment, under The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment is implementing the scheme It has two components – the Integrated Program for Senior Citizens (IPSrC) and the State Action Plan for Senior Citizens (SAPSrC). IPSRC: It entails setting up homes to improve the quality of life of senior citizens, especially indigent senior citizens for writing basic amenities.

SAPSRC: Each state/union territories expected to frame its own action plan for the welfare of senior citizens.

Under IPSrC component grant in aid is provided to NGOs/ Voluntary Organisations (VOs) for running and maintenance of old age homes, Continuous Care Homes.

 

 

Q17. Consider the following statements about the cold water corals:

1. They always live as colonies that form extensive reefs.
2. They are found in the deep oceans only.
3. They lack the symbiotic relationship with zooxanthellae.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) None

 

S17.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Cold-water corals are part of the taxonomic group called Cnidaria, and they are related to animals like sea anemones and jellyfish. They can live as individuals or as colonies that form extensive reefs. Hence statement 1 is not correct. These corals feed by waiting for small food particles to flow past, and then use their stinging cells to capture them. They also provide habitat for other species. o These are among the oldest living organisms; some reefs are several thousand years old, and some individual corals live several hundred years. Usually existing in a world of darkness, these corals lack the symbiotic algae that populate (and help color) the shallow corals. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Researchers, using the latest submersible technologies, are now discovering cold-water coral reefs in many of the world’s seas and oceans, including the Atlantic, Pacific, Indian Ocean and the Mediterranean. o Some, as the various individual reefs on the continental shelves of the East Atlantic stretching from Norway as far south as West Africa, are, when combined, far bigger than more famous tropical ones such as Australia’s Great Barrier Reef. Living in waters of 4o-13o C, they are usually found in depths between 200 and 1,000 metres. However, they can occur as shallow as 40 metres and as deep as 6,300 metres. Hence statement 2 is not correct. o The new findings show that cold-water corals thrive in waters off the coasts of more than 40 countries including Spain, Suriname and Seychelles. In fact, over half of all known coral species are found in cold, deep, and dark waters.

 

Q18. .Which of the following statement regarding NETRA project is incorrect?

1. It an early warning system in space to detect debris and other hazards to Indian satellites.
2. it aims to give India its own capability in space situational awareness (SSA) for low-earth orbits only
3. under this, an indigenously built radar will be deployed, which will be capable of detecting and tracking objects 10 cm and above in size
4. All are correct

 

S18.Ans.(b)

Sol.

The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) last month quietly initiated ‘Project NETRA’ – an early warning system in space to detect debris and other hazards to Indian satellites. The project estimated to cost ₹400 crores, when in place, will give India its own capability in space situational awareness (SSA) like the other space powers — which is used to ‘predict’ threats from debris to Indian satellites.

It also goes so far as to serve as an unstated warning against missile or space attacks for the country, experts say. The space agency says our SSA will first be for low-earth orbits or LEO which have remote-sensing spacecraft. NETRA’s eventual goal is to capture the GEO, or geostationary orbit, the scene at 36,000 km where communication satellites operate. The government has given nod to the go-ahead for the deployment of the radar, which will be capable of detecting and tracking objects 10 cm and above in size. It will be indigenously designed and built

 

Q19.Consider the following statements

1. The Juvenile Justice Act, 2015 provides for the process of taking care of children who are orphaned.
2. India has not ratified the Hague Convention on Intercountry Adoptions, 1993.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S19.Ans.(b)

Sol.

The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) law was enacted in 2015. The Juvenile Justice Rules of 2016 and the Adoption Regulations of 2017 followed to create the Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) as a statutory body for the regulation, monitoring, and control of all intra-country and inter-country adoptions. Furthermore, CARA became pivotal in granting a ‘no objection certificate for all intercountry adoptions, pursuant to India becoming a signatory to the Hague Convention on Protection of Children and Co-operation in Respect of Intercountry Adoptions. India is also a signatory to the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child.

 

Q20. Consider the following statements regarding the British era in India

1. Lord William Bentick was the Governor-General when the Doctrine of Lapse was articulated.
2. Treaty of Sagauli was done after Anglo Nepalese war.
3. The annexation of Burma into British India was in 1885.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 & 3 Both
3. 2 & 3 Both
4. All the above are correct

 

S20.Ans. (d)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct:

The policy is most commonly associated with Lord Dalhousie, who was the Governor-General of the East India Company in India between 1848 and 1856. However, it was articulated by the Court of Directors of the East India Company as early as 1834 (Lord William Bentinck was the governor-general) and several smaller states were already annexed under this doctrine before Dalhousie took over the post of Governor-General. Dalhousie used the policy most vigorously and extensively, though, so it is generally associated with him. The accession of Lord Dalhousie inaugurated a new chapter in the history of British India. He functioned as the Governor-General of India from 1848-1856.

 Statement 2 is correct:

Anglo-Nepalese Relations The Gorkhas wrested control of Nepal from the successors of Ranjit Malla of Bhatgaon in 1760. They began to expand their dominion beyond the mountains. They found it easier to expand in the southern direction, as the north was well defended by the Chinese. In 1801, the English annexed Gorakhpur which brought the Gorkhas’ boundary and the Company’s boundary together. The conflict started due to the Gorkhas’ capture of Butwal and Sheoraj in the period of Lord Hastings (1813-23). The war ended in the Treaty of Sagauli,1816 which was in favour of the British.

Statement 3 is correct:

At the beginning of the 19th century, Burma was a free country and wanted to expand westward. The expansionist urges of the British, fuelled by the lure of the forest resources of Burma, the market for British manufactures in Burma and the need to check French ambitions in Burma and the rest of South-East Asia, resulted in three Anglo-Burmese Wars, and in the end, the annexation of Burma into British India in 1885

 

Q21. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to the Central Information Commission (CIC)?

1. It is a statutory body formed under the provisions of Right to Information Act, 2005.
2. The chief information commissioner shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.
3. The salaries and allowances payable to the chief information commissioner are the same as that of an Election Commissioner.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

 

S21.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct: Under the provision of Section-12 of RTI Act 2005 the Central Government shall, by notification in the Official Gazette, constitute a body to be known as the Central Information Commission. Hence it is a statutory body.

Statement 2 and 3 are incorrect: The Right to Information (Amendment) Bill, 2019 was introduced in Lok Sabha by the Minister of State for Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, Mr. Jitendra Singh, on July 19, 2019. It seeks to amend the Right to Information Act, 2005. Key features of the Bill include: Term of Information Commissioners: Under the Act, Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) and Information Commissioners (ICs) are appointed at the national and state level to implement the provisions of the Act. The Act states that the CIC and other ICs (appointed at the central and state level) will hold office for a term of five years. The Bill removes this provision and states that the central government will notify the term of office for the CIC and the ICs.

Determination of salary: The Act states that the salary of the CIC and ICs (at the central level) will be equivalent to the salary paid to the Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners, respectively. Similarly, the salary of the CIC and ICs (at the state level) will be equivalent to the salary paid to the Election Commissioners and the Chief Secretary to the state government, respectively. The Bill seeks to amend these provisions to state that the salaries, allowances, and other terms and conditions of service of the central and state CIC and ICs will be determined by the central government.

Deductions in salary: The Act states that at the time of the appointment of the CIC and ICs (at the central and state level), if they are receiving pension or any other retirement benefits for previous government service, their salaries will be reduced by an amount equal to the pension. Previous government service includes service under: (i) the central government, (ii) state government, (iii) corporation (iv) government company owned or controlled by the central or state government. The Bill removes these provisions.

 

Q22. Which of the following statements are cause/s of the slow melting of Glaciers of the North Atlantic Ocean?

1. The presence of Blue Blob located in south of Iceland and Greenland.
2. The reduction in North Atlantic Oscillation.
3. Slowdown of the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S22.Ans.(c)

Sol.

A massive zone of cool water in the North Atlantic Ocean is slowing the melting of Iceland’s glaciers but since 2011 the speed of Iceland’s melting slowed, resulting in about half as much ice loss annually.

Statement 1 is correct: Blue Bob is a patch of unusually cold water located south of Iceland and Greenland. But not much is known about it, and scientists are still investigating the impact of this cold- water area on surrounding regions. Blue Blob has been linked to cooler air temperatures over Iceland’s glaciers and cooler waters.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The North Atlantic Oscillation is a prominent mode of variability with important impacts from the polar to subtropical Atlantic and surrounding landmasses. It is most pronounced during boreal winter. It is associated with changes in wind strength and direction, heat and moisture transport, and the frequency and strength of storms. Hence it is not associated with slow melting of glaciers rather it will fasten the melting process.

Statement 3 is correct: Before the Blue Blob, a long-term cooling trend in the same region, called the Atlantic Warming Hole, reduced sea surface temperatures by about 0.4 to 0.8 degrees Celsius during the last century and may continue to cool the region in the future. The Warming Hole is a slowdown of the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC). AMOC is an ocean current that brings warm water up from the tropics to the Arctic, thus reducing the amount of heat delivered to the region.

 

Q23. With respect to Barchan, consider the following statements:

1. These are crescentic shaped dunes which always occur individually in desert regions.
2. Strong winds blow sand in one direction in desert region favour the Barchan formation.
3. The windward slope of the barchan is gentle and concave while the leeward slope is steep and convex.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S23.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Aeolian landforms:

Depositional landforms:

Sand dunes:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Barchan are crescentic or moon shaped dunes which occur individually or in groups.

Statement 2 is correct: Barchans arise in deserts where the ground is hard and flat and strong winds blow sand in one direction. Thousands of the dunes can occupy a narrow strip. Fueled by wind, the dunes travel at different paces and can traverse up to 100 meters in a year.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Barchans windward side is convex and gently – sloping while the leeward side, being sheltered, is concave and steep. The collisions prevent dunes from growing out of control. If two barchan dunes collide, they can merge into one crescent or they can split up into multiple smaller barchans.

 

Q24. Consider the following statements with reference to the powers of the Speaker of Lok Sabha:

1. The parliamentary precedents are decided by the Speaker within the house.
2. The Lok Sabha speaker has the power to summon the joint sitting of both the houses in case of deadlock.
3. The Speaker is the chairman of the Business Advisory Committee.
4. On questions of disqualification of a member of the Lok Sabha, the decision of the speaker is final and not subject to judicial review.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

S24.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option a is the correct answer. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha derives his powers and duties from three sources, that is, the Constitution of India, the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha, and Parliamentary Conventions (residuary powers that are unwritten or unspecified in the Rules). Statement 1 is correct: The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the final interpreter of the provisions of the Constitution of India, the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha, and the parliamentary precedents, within the House.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Joint sitting is an extraordinary machinery provided by the Constitution to resolve a deadlock between the two Houses over the passage of a bill. The President (not Lok Sabha Speaker) can summon both the Houses to meet in a joint sitting for the purpose of deliberating and voting on the bill. The Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of the two Houses. Statement 3 is correct: The Speaker appoints the chairman of all the parliamentary committees of the Lok Sabha and supervises their functioning. He is the chairman of the Business Advisory Committee, the Rules Committee and the General-Purpose Committee. Statement 4 is incorrect: The Speaker decides the questions of disqualification of a member of the Lok Sabha, arising on the ground of defection under the provisions of the Tenth Schedule. Earlier, his decisions were considered final and were not subject to judicial review. However, in 1992 in the Kihota Hollohan Vs. Zachilhu Case, the Supreme Court ruled that the decision of the Speaker in this regard is subject to judicial review.

 

Q25. Which of the following grants are regulated by the same procedure which is applicable in the case of regular budget?

1. Token Grant
2. Vote of Credit
3. Additional Grant
4. Supplementary Grant
5. Excess Grant

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
3. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

 

S25.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option b is the correct answer. In budgetary proceedings, there is a provision for grants that are made by the Parliament under extraordinary or special circumstances. Option 2, 3, 4 and 5 are correct Supplementary, Additional, Excess and Exceptional grants and Vote of Credit are regulated by the same procedure which is applicable in the case of a regular budget. Option 1 is incorrect Token Grant is not regulated by the same procedure which is applicable in the case of a regular budget.