ଓଡିଶା ସିଭିଲ ସର୍ଭିସ୍ 2024 Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | January 3rd Week

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Q1. “The power to enact laws is a primary power of Parliament. Parliament, however, frequently enacts legislation containing provisions which empower the executive government, or specified bodies or office holders, or the judiciary, to make regulations or other forms of instruments which, provided that they are properly made, have the effect of law.”

Which one of the following legislations is best described in the above paragraph?

1. Supreme Legislation
2. Ex Post Facto Legislation
3. Delegated Legislation
4. Colonial Legislation

 

 

S1.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option c is the correct answer. The Parliament makes laws in a skeleton form and the power to enact laws is a primary power of Parliament. Parliament, however, frequently enacts legislation containing provisions which empower the executive government, or specified bodies or office-holders, or the judiciary, to make regulations or other forms of instruments which, provided that they are properly made, have the effect of law. This form of law is referred to as “delegated legislation”, “secondary legislation”, “subordinate legislation” or “legislative instruments”. Option a is incorrect: Supreme Legislation is that legislation that is made by the sovereign authority of that state. It cannot be repealed, or controlled, or amended by any other authority except the one from which it proceeds. Option b is incorrect: Ex Post Facto Legislation retroactively makes criminal conduct that was not criminal when performed, increases the punishment for crimes already committed, or changes the rules of procedure in force at the time an alleged crime was committed in a way substantially disadvantageous to the accused. Option d is incorrect: Colonial Legislation: The nations which are not autonomous, and are under the control of some other state have no Supreme capacity to make law. Such countries can be in different classes such as colonies, domains, secured or trust regions and so forth. The laws made by them are subject to the Supreme legislation of the state under whose control they are.

 

 

Q2. Consider the following statements with reference to the Indian Constitution:

1. Constitution gave exclusive power to Parliament to legislate upon preventive detention.
2. Protection under Article 22 is available only for Citizens.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

 

S2.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Statement 2 is incorrect:

Article 22 has two parts—the first part deals with the cases of ordinary law and the second part deals with the cases of preventive detention law.

(a) The first part of Article 22 confers the following rights on a person who is arrested or detained under an ordinary law:

1. Right to be informed of the grounds of arrest.
2. Right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner.
3. Right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours, excluding the journey time.
4. Right to be released after 24 hours unless the magistrate authorises further detention. These safeguards are not available to an enemy alien or a person arrested or detained under a preventive detention law.

 

Q3. Consider the following pairs with reference to Diastrophism:

1. Epeirogeny processes Uplift or warping of large parts of the earth’s crust.
2. Orogenic processes Mountain building through severe folding.
3. Plate tectonics Horizontal movements of crustal plates.

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) One pair only

(b) Two pairs only

(c) All the three pairs

(d) None of the pairs

 

S3.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option (c) is correct: All processes that move, elevate or build up portions of the earth’s crust come under diastrophism. : Diastrophism include following processes:

(i) Orogenic processes involving mountain building through severe folding and affecting long and narrow belts of the earth’s crust;

(ii) Epeirogenic processes involving uplift or warping of large parts of the earth’s crust;

(iii) Earthquakes involving local relatively minor movements;

(iv) Plate tectonics involving horizontal movements of crustal plates.

Orogeny is a mountain building process whereas epeirogeny is continental building process. Through the processes of orogeny, epeirogeny, earthquakes and plate tectonics, there can be faulting and fracturing of the crust.

 

 

Q4. With reference to Rajasthan’s Right to Health Bill consider the following statements:

1. It provides for the free health care services only at Government establishments to residents of the state.
2. Health Authorities will be set up at the state and district level.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

 

S4.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Statement 1 is not correct. Rajasthan’s Right to Health Bill provides the right to health and access to healthcare for people in the state. This includes free health care services at any clinical establishment to residents of the state including private establishments.

Statement 2 is correct Health Authorities will be set up at the state and district level. These bodies will formulate, implement, monitor, and develop mechanisms for quality healthcare and management of public health emergencies.

 

Q5.which of the following conditions make Kuno-Palpur National park, a suitable site for the reintroduction of Cheetahs?

1. Adequate prey base along with suitable carrying capacity
2. The area is devoid of human settlements.
3. Forms part of sheopur-Shivpuri deciduous open forest landscape

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 1, 2 and 3
3. 2 and 3
4. 1 and 3

 

S5.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Amongst the 10 surveyed sites of the central Indian states, Kuno Palpur National Park (KNP) in Madhya Pradesh has been rated the highest. This is because of its suitable habitat and adequate prey base. KNP is 748 sq. km. in area, devoid of human settlements, forms part of Sheopur-Shivpuri deciduous open forest landscape, and is estimated to have a capacity to sustain 21 cheetahs.

Kuno is probably the only wildlife site in the country where there has been a complete relocation of villages from inside the park. Kuno also offers the prospect of housing four big cats of India – tiger, lion, leopard, and cheetah – and allowing them to coexist as in the past.

 

Q6. Which of the following is/are the uses of baking soda?

1. Soda-acid fire extinguishers.
2. Making drinking water free from germs.
3. Oxidising agent in chemical industries.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S6.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct: Baking soda The baking soda is commonly used in the kitchen for making tasty crispy pakoras, etc. Sometimes it is added for faster cooking. The chemical name of the compound is sodium hydrogencarbonate (NaHCO3). It is produced using sodium chloride as one of the raw materials. Sodium hydrogencarbonate is also an ingredient in antacids. Being alkaline, it neutralises excess acid in the stomach and provides relief. It is also used in soda-acid fire extinguishers.

Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect:

Bleaching powder is used:

(i) for bleaching cotton and linen in the textile industry, for bleaching wood pulp in paper factories and for bleaching washed clothes in laundry;

(ii) to make drinking water free from germs.

(iii) as an oxidising agent in many chemical industries

 

Q7. Which of the following are the pillars of National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building (‘NPCSCB’) – “Mission Karmayogi”

1. Policy Framework
2. Competency Framework,
3. Team Building and motivational framework

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1,2 and 3

 

S7.Ans.(a)

Sol.

National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building (‘NPCSCB’) – “Mission Karmayogi” has been launched with the objective of enhancing governance through Civil Service Capacity Building. Mission Karmayogi will have the following six pillars: –

(i)         Policy Framework,

(ii)        Institutional Framework,

(iii)       Competency Framework,

(iv)       Digital Learning Framework (Integrated Government Online Training Karmayogi Platform (iGOT-Karmayogi),

(v)        electronic Human Resource Management System (e-HRMS),

(vi) Monitoring and Evaluation Framework

 

Q8. With reference to the procedure and conduct of business in Parliament consider the following statements:

1. It is regulated by rules made under Article 118 of the Constitution.
2. Rule 357 deals with the Personal explanation.
3. Personal explanation states that a member may make a personal explanation when there is a question before the House.
4. Rules were modified by the President under article 118(2) of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

S8.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct: The procedure and conduct of business in Parliament is regulated by rules made under Article 118 of the Constitution and, in relation to certain financial business, by law made by Parliament under Article 119 of the Constitution. (No such law has so far been made by Parliament under Article 119.)

Statement 2 is correct: Rule 357 procedure and conduct of business in Parliament deals with Personal explanation.

Statement 3 is not correct: Personal explanation states that a member may, with the permission of the Speaker, make a personal explanation although there is no question before the House, but in this case no debatable matter may be brought forward, and no debate shall arise.

Statement 4 is not correct: Rules were modified and adopted by the Speaker of Lok Sabha in exercise of the powers conferred on the Speaker by article 118(2) of the Constitution.

 

Q9. With reference to Sunga Dynasty, consider the following statements:

1. Sungas followed Brahmanism and performed Ashvamedha yajna.
2. Sungas encouraged the growth of Sanskrit language.
3. Buddhist art received patronage from Sunga rulers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S9.Ans.(d)

Sol.

The founder of the Sunga dynasty was Pushyamitra Sunga, who was the commander-in-chief under the Mauryas. He assassinated the last Mauryan ruler and usurped the throne in 180 BCE. This is corroborated by Bana, the court poet of Harshavardhana of Kannauj. Sunga rule in India according to the Puranas lasted for 112 years. Magadha was the nucleus of the kingdom. Statement 1 is correct: In the cultural sphere, the Sungas revived and followed Brahmanism and horse sacrifice. After Ashoka’s Dhamma and Buddhism, the Sungas are known for having reverted to Brahmanical orthodoxy. Pushyamitra was a staunch follower of Brahmanism. In the Ayodhya inscription of Dhanadeva, Pushyamitra Sunga is credited with the performance of two Asvamedha sacrifices. Buddhist sources claim that he persecuted the Buddhists.

Statement 2 is correct: Sungas promoted the growth of Vaishnavism and the Sanskrit language. Statement 3 is correct: Sunga rulers patronised buddhist art. Buddhist sources although refer Pushyamitra sunga as a persecutor of Buddhism, but there is enough evidence to show that he patronised Buddhist art. During his reign the Buddhist monuments at Bharhut and Sanchi were renovated and further improved.

 

 

Q10. In the context of biodiversity, Tomistoma, a shy and reclusive species, sometimes mentioned in the news is a

(a) reptile

(b) bird

(c) mammal

(d) insect

 

 

S10.Ans.(a)

Sol.

According to recent studies, the increasing human intrusion is causing Tomistoma (Tomistoma schlegelii) a shy and reclusive species to attack people.Also known as the false gharial (Tomistoma schlegelii), Tomistoma is a freshwater crocodilian in the family Gavialidae of the Reptile class. o They are characterized by a long, narrow snout filled with 76-84 sharp pointed teeth, similar to that of gharials (Gavialis gangeticus), from which false gharials get their common name. o It is native to Peninsular Malaysia, Borneo, Sumatra, and Java. It is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List, as the global population is estimated at around 2,500 to 10,000 mature individuals.They are found in a variety of habitats throughout their range, including lowland freshwater swamp forests, flooded forests, peat swamps, lakes, and blackwater streams and rivers. They are also found on the fringes of rainforests near slow-moving rivers. x Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

 

Q11. With reference to protected areas in India, consider the following statements:

1. No alteration in the boundary of a wildlife sanctuary can be made except by recommendation of the National Board for Wildlife.
2. No alteration in the boundaries of a tiger reserve can be made except with the approval of the National Tiger Conservation Authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S11.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Under the Wild Life (Protection) Act o No alteration of boundaries of a wildlife sanctuary can be made except on the recommendation of the National Board for wildlife. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

No alteration in the boundaries of a tiger reserve shall be made except on a recommendation of the Tiger Conservation Authority and the approval of the National Board for Wild Life. The National Tiger Conservation Authority recommends but the power of approval rests with the National Board for Wildlife. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

 

Q12. Consider the following statements:

1. The concept of ‘equality before law’ is of British origin while the concept of ‘equal protection of laws’ has been taken from the American Constitution.
2. Unlike the concept of ‘equality before law’, the ‘equal protection of laws’ advocates absence of special privileges in favour of any person.
3. Indian Constitution has rejected the concept of ‘equal protection of laws’ in favour of the concept of ‘equality before the law’.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1 and 2 only

 

S12.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option a is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct: The expression ‘equality before law’ stems from the English Common Law (British) and the expression ‘equal protection of law’ stems from the American Constitution. The concept of ‘equality before law’ is an element of the concept of ‘Rule of Law’, propounded by A.V. Dicey, the British jurist. While, the Fourteenth Amendment’s Equal Protection Clause of US Constitution requires states to practice equal protection.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The expression ‘equality before law’ is a negative concept as it implies an absence of special privileges that favour any individual. However, the expression ‘equal protection of law’ on the other hand, is a positive concept as it simply means that there should be equality of treatment of individuals in similar circumstances.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Indian Constitution has accepted both the concept of ‘equality before law’ and ‘equal protection of laws’ under Article 14. It says that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. Wherever there is no equal protection of law, there is no equality before law. The Constitution permits the State to enact laws that apply to only certain classes of people for achieving certain reasonable objects.

 

Q13. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the “5+1” system of collegium, recently seen in news?

1. It is a newly devised system in judiciary for appointment of Chief Justice of India.
2. It is a newly devised system where a jurist is added as an additional member to the collegium for appointing Supreme Court judges.
3. It is a mechanism used when recommendation of appointing judges to Supreme Court is sent back to the collegium by the President of India.
4. It is a system where a potential Chief Justice of India is added as an additional member in the collegium, when four seniormost judges of collegium cannot become the next Chief justice.

 

S13.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option d is the correct answer.

In the two-year tenure of Justice Chandrachud as CJI, a potential CJI candidate (Justice Khanna) is unlikely to be in the collegium until May 2023. So, Justice Khanna will be the sixth member of the collegium from November 9, 2022, itself 5+1 system in collegium: 1) Generally, one or more of the four senior judges in the collegium would be a potential CJI candidate. The next in line is considered important to ensure continuity of decision-making. 2) But if the situation is such that the successor Chief Justice is not one of the four seniors most Judges, then he must invariably be made part of the collegium. 3) Since, the Judges to be appointed will function during his term and it is his right that he should have a hand in their selection. 4) However, in the two-year tenure of Justice Chandrachud as CJI, a potential CJI candidate is unlikely to be in the collegium until May 2023. Hence, Justice Khanna will be the sixth member of the collegium from November9,2022 itself. 5) The similar situation happened in 2007 when CJI KG Balakrishnan took the top office, the collegium he headed did not have the potential CJI candidate. Justice SH Kapadia, who was next in line to be CJI, was invited to the collegium as the sixth member.

 

Q14. Which of the following features is/are associated with the divergent plate boundaries?

1. Ocean trenches
2. Rift Valley
3. Submarine Mountain ridges

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S14.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Explanation:

Features associated with Convergent plate boundary:

1. Convergent plate boundary is the margin where two plates collide with one another.
2. Ocean trenches are associated with the Convergent plate boundary.
3. A trench is a narrow and deep depression of the ocean floor. It is formed when the oceanic plate slides down underneath continental plate as the oceanic plate is denser than the continental plate.

Features associated with Divergent Plate Boundary:

1. Divergent plate boundary is the margin where two plates move apart.
2. Narrow oceans represent young divergent boundaries.
3. A submarine mountain ridge is formed through the fissures in the oceanic crust when the plates move apart.
4. A rift valley is formed when two plates move apart. If a divergent boundary runs through the continent, the continent splits apart and a rift valley is formed.

 

Q15. Consider the following statements regarding ecological efficiency:

1. It describes the efficiency with which energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next.
2. Ecological efficiencies may range from 5 to 35%.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S15.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Ecological efficiency: It is the ratio between the amount of energy acquired from the lower trophic level and the amount of energy transferred from higher trophic level is called ecological efficiency. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Lindman in 1942 defined these ecological efficiencies for the 1st time and proposed a 10% rule e.g. if autotrophs produce 100 cal, herbivores will be able to store 10 cal. and carnivores 1 cal. However, there may be slight variations in different ecosystems and ecological efficiencies may range from 5 to 35%. Ecological efficiency is also called Lindman’s efficiency. Hence statement 2 is correct.

 

Q16. Consider the following statements regarding Reusable Launch Vehicle- Technology Demonstration (RLV-TD) programme

1. RLV-TD configuration is a hybrid of a civilian aircraft and a space launch vehicle.
2. In this programme, for the first time in the world, a winged body has been carried to an altitude of 4.5 km by helicopter and released for carrying an autonomous landing on a runway.
3. It is an indigenously developed by ISRO

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1,2 and 3

 

S16.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) on Sunday successfully carried out the landing experiment of the Reusable Launch Vehicle-Technology Demonstration (RLV-TD) programme at the Aeronautical Test Range in Challakere, Chitradurga. An Indian Air Forces (IAF) Chinook helicopter was used to drop the RLV-TD from a 4.5 km altitude and ISRO executed the landing experiment of the RLV-TD as planned. In a first in the world, a winged body has been carried to an altitude of 4.5 km by helicopter and released for carrying an autonomous landing on a runway. The configuration of RLV-TD is similar to that of an aircraft and combines the complexity of both launch vehicles and aircraft.

 

 

Q17. Consider the following statements regarding  IndIGO consortium

1. It is the Indian Initiative in Gravitational-wave Observations and is  involved in constructing the Indian road-map for Gravitational Wave Astronomy
2. IndIGO is the Indian partner of the LIGO-India project
3. The first ligo project site in India will be set up in Gujrat

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. None

 

S17.Ans.(a)

Sol.

INDIGO or IndIGO (Indian Initiative in Gravitational-wave Observations) is a consortium of Indian gravitational-wave physicists. It is an Indian Initiative in Gravitational-wave Observations, is an initiative to set up advanced experimental facilities, with appropriate theoretical and computational support, for a multi-institutional Indian national project in gravitational-wave astronomy. This is an initiative to set up advanced experimental facilities for a multi-institutional observatory project in gravitational-wave astronomy to be located near Hingoli District, Maharashtra, India. Predicted date of commission is 2024.

IndIGO, the Indian Initiative in Gravitational-wave Observations, is an initiative to set up advanced experimental facilities, with appropriate theoretical and computational support, for a multi-institutional Indian national project in gravitational-wave astronomy

 

 

Q18. With reference to the two types of Financial Bills mentioned in the Indian constitution, consider the following statements:

1. While Type I can only be introduced in Lok Sabha, Type II can be introduced in either House
2. The President cannot withhold his assent or return the bill of both Types.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

 

S18.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option a is the correct answer. Article 117 of the Indian constitution introduces a new category of Bills termed as Financial Bills. They are of two types. Type I Financial Bill contains any one of those matters listed in Article 110 (Money Bill) + general legislative matter. Type II Financial Bill contains provisions involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, but does not include any of the matters mentioned in Article 110. Statement 1 is correct: One of the features that is different between both the Finance Bills, is where they are allowed to be introduced. While a Finance Bill of Type I can only be introduced in Lok Sabha, a Finance Bill of Type II can be introduced in either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. Statement 2 is incorrect: When both Type I and Type II bill is presented to the President, he can either give his assent to the bill or withhold his assent to the bill or return the bill for reconsideration of the Houses.

 

 

Q19. Consider the following statements regarding the exclusive lawmaking power of Parliament under Article 35

1. Prescribing residence as a condition for certain employments or appointments in a state
2. Prescribing law regarding the restriction of fundamental rights of Assam rifles.
3. Empowering the district court with all kinds of writs for the enforcement of the fundamental right.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S19.Ans. (d)

Sol.

Article 35 lays down that the power to make laws, to give effect to certain specified fundamental rights shall vest only in the Parliament and not in the state legislatures.

The Parliament shall have (and the legislature of a state shall not have) power to make laws with respect to the following matters:

(a) Prescribing residence as a condition for certain employments or appointments in a state or union territory or local authority or other authority (Article 16). (statement 1  is correct)

(b) Empowering courts other than the Supreme Court and the high courts to issue directions, orders, and writs of all kinds for the enforcement of fundamental rights (Article 32). (statement 3 is correct)

(c) Restricting or abrogating the application of Fundamental Rights to members of armed forces, police forces, etc. (Article 33). (statement 2 is correct. Assam Rifles is under armed forces category under Ministry of defense

 

 

Q20. Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to the Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022?

1. It authorizes to store the physical and biological samples of convicted individuals for the purposes of investigation in criminal matters.
2. It empowers the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) of India to collect, store and preserve the record of measurements.
3. The record of measurements can be retained in digital or electronic form for a period of 75 years from the date of collection of such measurement.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S20.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct: The Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022 replaces the Identification of Prisoners Act, 1920 and authorises the law enforcement agencies to collect, store the physical and biological samples of convicted individuals and other persons for the purposes of identification and investigation in criminal matters.

Statement 2 is correct: The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) will be the central agency to maintain the records.It will share the data with law enforcement agencies. Further, states/UTs may notify agencies to collect, preserve, and share data in their respective jurisdictions. Statement 3 is correct: The data collected will be retained in digital or electronic form for 75 years. Records will be destroyed in case of persons who are acquitted after all appeals, or released without trial. However, in such cases, a Court or Magistrate may direct the retention of details after recording reasons in writing.

 

Q21. With reference to gravity anomaly, which among the following will be the possible reason for that?

1. High rotational speed
2. Uneven distribution of materials within the earth.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S21.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Most geophysical surveys are aimed at separating out the in order to interpret the geologic structure. It is therefore necessary to make proper allowance for the other factors. The first two factors imply a variation of gravity with latitude that can be calculated for an assumed shape for Earth. The third factor, which is the decrease in gravity with elevation, due to increased distance from the center of Earth, amounts to −0.3086 milligal per meter. The value of the attraction of gravity or of the potential is determined by the distribution of matter within Earth or some other celestial body. In turn, the distribution of matter determines the shape of the surface on which the potential is constant. Measurements of gravity and the potential are thus essential both to geodesy, which is the study of the shape of Earth, and to geophysics, the study of its internal structure

Statement 1 is correct: The major planets, all of which rotate quite fast, have large equatorial bulges, and their gravity is dominated by a large increase from equator to pole. The polar flattening of Jupiter is about 10 percent and was first estimated from telescopic observation by Gian Domenico Cassini about 1664. The results of gravity measurements are crucial to understanding the internal properties of the planets.

Statement 2 is correct: The gravitational force (g) is not the same at different latitudes on the surface. It is greater near the poles and less at the equator. This is because of: 1. the distance from the center at the equator being greater than that at the poles. 2. The gravity values also differ according to the mass of material. The uneven distribution of mass of material within the earth influences this value.

 

Q22. With reference to Parliamentary System, which one of the following statements correctly describe the term ‘Rule of Lapse’?

1. A bill passed by both Houses but returned by the president for reconsideration of House lapses.
2. If the budgetary money is not spent by the end of the financial year, then the balance expires and returns to the Consolidated Fund of India.
3. If the money bill is not passed by the Lok Sabha within specified period, then the bill is considered to be lapsed.
4. No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under appropriation made by law.

 

S22.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option b is the correct answer. The budget is based on the principle of annuality, that is, the Parliament grants money to the government for one financial year. If the granted money is not spent by the end of the financial year, then the balance expires and returns to the Consolidated Fund of India. This practice is known as the ‘rule of lapse’. It facilitates effective financial control by the Parliament as no reserve funds can be built without its authorisation. However, the observance of this rule leads to heavy rush of expenditure towards the close of the financial year. This is popularly called as ‘March Rush’

 

Q23.Consider the following statements regarding “Black Soldier Fly

1. They have good waste-to-biomass conversion efficiency.
2. They are deficient in calcium and phosphorus.
3. They have low carbon footprint.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1,2 and 3

 

 

S23.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Black Soldier Fly are insects that have high waste-to-biomass conversion efficiency. They are rich in calcium and phosphorus. Black Soldier Fly larvae are a low-cost, low-footprint, eco-friendly as well as natural feed companion to poultry farmers.

 

 

Q24. Consider the following statements with reference to the Micro insurance in India:

1. It is an insurance policy designed for the betterment of the economically vulnerable population of the country.
2. Under Microinsurance, only life insurance policies can be provided, not the general insurance policies.
3. District Co-operative Banks and Regional Rural Banks can be appointed as a micro-insurance agent in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S24.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct: Micro insurance is a type of insurance policies designed for the betterment of the economically vulnerable population of the country. The category of micro insurance has been created by the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI). Micro insurance can provide insurance cushioning for the economically vulnerable population. Such plans can provide a sense of security to low-income people that are unable to afford the popular form of insurance. Micro insurance is an insurance plan created for providing insurance solutions to individuals living in a rural area.

Statement 2 is incorrect: According to IRDAI, a micro-insurance policy is: A general or life insurance policy (not only the life insurance policy) with a sum assured of Rs 50,000 or less

Statement 3 is correct: In India, the first micro-insurance regulation was introduced by IRDA in 2005, with the IRDA (Micro-insurance) Regulations, 2005. The IRDA (Micro-insurance) Regulations, 2005 was amended in the year 2015 with the goal of increasing micro-insurance penetration in India. It allowed District Co-operative Banks, Regional Rural Banks, and Business Correspondents of Scheduled Commercial Banks to be appointed as micro-insurance agents.

 

Q25. Consider the following statements with reference to the Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs)in India:

1. The New Public Sector Enterprise Policy envisages privatizing or closing of all Public Sector Enterprises.
2. MahaRatna status can be granted to a company only if it has 100 percent government stake.
3. Insurance is considered a ‘Strategic sector’ as per the New Public Sector Enterprise Policy.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

1. 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S25.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) are an important constituent of the Indian industry. As on March, 2020 there were 256 CPSEs that were operational. Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the Union Budget 2021-22 announcement, the government has approved a policy of strategic disinvestment of public sector enterprises that will provide a clear roadmap for disinvestment in all non-strategic and strategic sectors. The New Public Sector Enterprise (PSE) Policy envisages the classification of CPSEs into Strategic and Non-Strategic Sectors. And as per the policy, the non-strategic CPSEs will be privatized or otherwise shall be closed.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Government of India categorizes Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) under three different categories – Maharatna, Navratna, and Miniratna. Maharatna status is granted to a company which has recorded more than Rs. 5,000 crores of net profit for three consecutive years, an average annual turnover of Rs. 25,000 crore for three years or should have an average annual net worth of Rs. 15,000 crore for three years. Statement 3 is correct: The strategic sectors as per the policy are as under: atomic energy; space and defense; transport and telecommunication; power; petroleum; coal and other minerals; banking, insurance, and financial services. Under the 4 broad baskets in which the strategic sectors are classified- i.e., national security, critical infrastructure, energy and minerals and financial services. As per the policy, only a bare minimum presence of CPSEs in the aforesaid strategic sectors is to be maintained.