ଓଡିଶା ସିଭିଲ ସର୍ଭିସ୍ 2024 Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | January 4th Week

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Q1. With reference to the Swiss Challenge method of bidding, consider the following statements:

1. It offers the features of both open auction and closed tender to discover the best price for an asset.
2. It can help banks to maximize the value realized from auction of stressed assets.
3. It can lead to more innovative project proposals and quicker execution for public projects.
4. It is the best method to avoid the allegations of favouritism and corruption in the award of public projects.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1, 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

S1.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Under the Swiss Challenge method of procurement, a candidate makes a proposal for a project, which the government puts before the public to seek more proposals. Once these are received, the original candidate is allowed to match the best bid. The method was upheld by the Supreme Court of India for awarding public projects and the Government of India has tried out this method in road and railway projects. Statement 1 is correct: The Swiss Challenge allows a seller to mix-and-match the features of both an open auction and a closed tender to discover the best price for an asset.

Statement 2 is correct: If Swiss Challenge is applied to bankruptcy cases, banks may get to maximize more from the auction of stressed assets.

Statement 3 is correct: If applied to public projects, it may lead to more innovative project proposals and quicker execution, as a bidder with a good idea needn’t wait for the government to set the ball rolling. Statement 4 is incorrect: But on the flip side, by allowing a bidder to initiate an idea and giving him the first right of refusal, the Swiss Challenge can promote favouritism in the award of public projects, opening the doors to corruption. To guard against this, legal experts suggest an open list of public projects that allow Swiss Challenge and full public disclosure of bid details when the government receives a proposal.

 

Q2. Consider the following statements with reference to the voting in either house of the Parliament of India:

1. The opinion of speaker as to the decision of a question raised in a debate cannot be challenged. 2. Division is a type of voting which records how each member of parliament voted on a motion. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S2.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option b is the correct answer. Most matters, except certain matters as given in constitution, at any sitting of either House or joint sitting of both the Houses are decided by a majority of votes of the members present and voting, excluding the presiding officer. Statement 1 is incorrect: On the conclusion of a debate, the Speaker shall put the question and invite those who are in favour of the motion to say ‘Aye’ and those against the motion to say ‘No’. The Speaker shall then say: ‘I think the Ayes (or the Noes, as the case may be) have it.’ The opinion of the speaker as to the decision of the question can be challenged. If the opinion of the Speaker as to the decision of a question is not challenged, he shall say twice: The Ayes (or the Noes, as the case may be) have it’ and the question before the House shall be determined accordingly. Statement 2 is correct: Voice voting is the preferred method of decision making by Indian Parliament. MPs in favour of a decision call out “Ayes” and those opposed say “Noes” That is not, however, the only way voting takes place. MPs also have the right to ask for the vote of every MP to be recorded. This is called a division. MPs can vote in favour, oppose or abstain from the vote. Recording of votes is also mandated when there is a constitutional requirement for a special majority of Parliament (for example a constitutional amendment), or after a no-confidence motion.

 

 

Q3. ‘The Thiruvananthapuram Declaration’ recently seen in the news is related to?

(a) 33 percent reservation for women in Lok Sabha and State legislatures.

(b) Achieving lower rates of maternal mortality in the country.

(c) Encourage women centric entrepreneurship platforms.

(d) Empowerment of women through education, skilling & micro- financing.

 

 

S3.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option (a) is correct: The President of India inaugurated the National Women Legislators’ Conference- 2022 in Thiruvananthapuram. The Conference was hosted by the Kerala Legislative Assembly as part of ‘Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav’. The first National Women Legislators’ Conference demanded immediate steps to ensure the passage of the long-pending Women’s Reservation Bill which envisages 33% reservation for women in the Lok Sabha and State legislatures

The Thiruvananthapuram Declaration, adopted at the valedictory session, lamented the trajectory of the Bill, which has been pending for 26 years, as a sullied blot on the democratic values and

 

 

Q4. In the context of Municipal Personnel System in India, consider the following statements:

1. In separate personnel system, municipal personnel are not transferrable to other local bodies.
2. In Integrated personnel system, municipal personnel are members of state services.
3. In unified personnel system, the state government appoints, administers, and controls the municipal personnel.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S4.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option d is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct. Under separate personnel system, each local body appoints, administers, and controls its own personnel. Municipal personnel are not transferrable to other local bodies. Hence this system upholds the principle of local autonomy and promotes undivided loyalty.

Statement 2 is correct. In Integrated personnel system, municipal personnel are members of state services. They are transferable not only between the local bodies but also between local bodies and department of state government.

Statement 3 is correct. In unified personnel system, the state government appoints, administers, and controls the municipal personnel. State wide services are created for all urban bodies in the state and they are transferable between the local bodies in the state.

 

Q5.  Consider the following statements regarding Just Energy Transition Partnership (JETP)

1. The JETP was launched at the COP26 in Glasgow
2. It aims to reduce emissions in the energy sector and accelerate the coal phase-out process.
3. It was launched G-20 countries.
4. India has ratified the JETP

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 3 and 4
3. 1,2 and 3
4. 1,2,3 and 4

 

S5.Ans.(a)

Sol.

JETP is an initiative of the rich nations to accelerate phasing out of coal and reducing emissions. It aims to reduce emissions in the energy sector and accelerate the coal phase-out process. JETP makes various funding options available for this purpose in identified developing countries. The JETP was launched at the COP26 in Glasgow with the support of the United Kingdom (UK), the United States (US), France, Germany, and the European Union (EU) Following South Africa and Indonesia, G7 has announced a similar partnership for India, Senegal, and Vietnam. But Union Ministry of Power in India has opposed the G7 nations’ plan of persuading India to start negotiations on a Just Energy Transition Partnership (JETP).

 

Q6. NASA is developing bimodal nuclear propulsion to–

1. observe surface of Sun
2. To make manned mission to reach Mars in 45 days
3. Load a probe on asteroid
4. Search for exoplanets

 

S6.Ans.(b)

Sol.

NASA relaunched its program to develop bimodal nuclear propulsion a few years ago. Bimodal nuclear propulsion is a two-part system that includes an NTP and NEP element. This system is expected to enable transits to Mars in 45 days.

A crewed mission to Mars based on conventional propulsion technology may last up to three years. However, A transit time of 45 days will reduce the overall mission time to months instead of years. This will drastically reduce the major risks associated with missions to Mars which include — radiation exposure, the time spent in microgravity and related health concerns.

 

Q7. Consider the following statements:

1. Under the Forest Rights Act, 2006 ‘Gram Sabha’ is an important entity to achieve its objective.
2. Under the Forest Conservation Rules 2022, the Union Government will make sure that the claims of forest dwellers are settled.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S7.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct: As per the rules under the Forest Rights Act, 2006 ‘Gram Sabha’ is an important entity within the act’s tools to achieve its objective.

Statement 2 is not correct: The FC Rules, 2022 do not require the collector to obtain the consent of Gram Sabhas before the In-principle approval.  This means, the Central Government can give its final approval and will, thereafter, leave it to the state government to pass an order for de-reservation or diversion or assignment. It is then left to the state government now to make sure that the claims of forest dwellers are settled.

 

Q8. Consider the following with reference to the mode of formation of sedimentary rocks: Mode of formation Example

1. Mechanically formed sedimentary rocks Sandstone
2. Organically formed sedimentary rock: Chalk
3. Chemically formed sedimentary rocks: Coal

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) One pair only

(b) Two pairs only

(c) All the three pairs

(d) None of the pairs

 

S8.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Sedimentary rocks: The word ‘sedimentary’ is derived from the Latin word sedimentum, which means settling. Rocks (igneous, sedimentary and metamorphic) of the earth’s surface are exposed to denudational agents, and are broken up into various sizes of fragments. Such fragments are transported by different exogenous agencies and deposited. These deposits through compaction turn into rocks. This process is called lithification.

Depending upon the mode of formation, sedimentary rocks are classified into three major groups:

(i) Mechanically formed — sandstone, conglomerate, limestone, shale, loess etc. are examples.

(ii) Organically formed— geyserite, chalk, limestone, coal etc. are some examples.

(iii) Chemically formed — chert, limestone, halite, potash etc. are some example.

 

 

Q9. With reference to Megasthenes account of the Mauryan empire, which of the following statements

are correct?

1. Inter-caste marriages were common.
2. Bulk of the population was engaged in agriculture.
3. Indians used to borrow and lend money on interest.
4. There was no concept of slavery in India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1 and 4 only

 

S9.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Megasthenes was a Seleukidian envoy who visited the Mauryan capital Pataliputra during the reign of Chandragupta Maurya. His account, Indica, presents the picture of India (especially northern India) under Chandragupta Maurya.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Megasthenes noted that the occupations were hereditary in nature and intermarriage between groups was not allowed – two features crucial to the functioning of the caste system.

Statement 2 is correct: Megasthenes noted that cultivators were the most numerous of all groups. Clearly, the bulk of the population was engaged in agriculture. He noted soldiers as the second largest group in terms of numbers. Statement 3 is incorrect: Megasthenes noted that Indians did not borrow or lend money on interest. However, many historians dispute this claim since money-lending was known and practiced from early times.

Statement 4 is correct: Megasthenes stated that there is no concept of slavery in India. However, evidence suggests that there are some situations that led to enslavement – a person could be a slave either by birth, by voluntary selling themselves, by being captured in war, or as a result of judicial punishment.

 

Q10. Which of the following is incorrect regarding Cubic boron arsenide, recently seen in the news:

(a) It has potential to overcome the limitation of Silicon and Gallium arsenide.

(b) It provides high mobility to both electrons and holes.

(c) It has excellent thermal conductivity.

(d) None of these.

 

S10.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option (d) is correct: The silicon chip, sourced from silica (and by extension sand) is the foundation of the semiconductor industry and constitute the sinews of the information technology infrastructure. While silicon’s structure is extremely conducive to electrons, it is much less accommodating to “holes” — electrons’ positively charged counterparts — and harnessing both is important for some kinds of chips. Silicon is not very good at conducting heat, which is why overheating issues and expensive cooling systems are common in computers. Silicon has good electron mobility but poor hole mobility, and other materials such as gallium arsenide, widely used for lasers, similarly have good mobility for electrons but not for holes. Emerging research shows that a material known as cubic boron arsenide overcomes both of these limitations. It provides high mobility to both electrons and holes, and has excellent thermal conductivity.

 

Q11. With reference to Jain councils, consider the following statements:

1. The first Jain council was held at Pataliputra.
2. The second Jain council was held during the lifetime of Mauryan emperor Chandragupta Maurya. 3. Jainism was divided into two major sects called Svetambaras and Digambaras following the third Jain council. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S11.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Jainism came to prominence in the 6th century BCE when Lord Mahavira propagated the religion. Mahavira was the last Tirthankara (great teacher) of Jainism. There were over 24 Tiratankaras, first one was Rishabnatha and 23rd one was Parsavanantha. Mahavira accepted most of the religious doctrines laid down by Parsvanantha.

Statement 1 is correct: It is true that the first Jain council was held at Pataliputra at about 300 BCE. In that council the sacred teachings of Mahavira were divided into twelve angas.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The second Jain council was held at Vallabhi (Gujarat) in 512 CE whereas Chandragupta lived during 350-295 BCE. The second council was presided over by Devardhi Kshemasarmana. The purpose of this Council was to collect the Sacred texts and write them down systematically.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Split occurred following the first Jain council held at about 300 BCE as Bhadrabahu did not agree with the compilation of Jain texts during the first council. Thus Jains divided into two main groups, Svetambaras and Digambaras. Svetambara monks wore white clothes. Digambara monks did not wore any clothes at all. While Svetambaras believe women can achieve liberation, Digambaras believe that women cannot achieve liberation without first being reborn as a man.

 

Q12. Which of the following criteria are mentioned by Election Commission to recognise a political party as National Party. Consider the following statements in this context

1. It its candidates polled at least 6% of total valid votes in any four or more states in the last Lok Sabha or Assembly elections and has at least four MPs in the last Lok Sabha polls
2. It is ‘recognised’ as state party in four or more state
3. It has won at least 2% of the total seats in the Lok Sabha from three states or more states

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2
2. 1 and 3
3. 1,2 and 3
4. 2 and 3

 

S12.Ans.(c)

Sol.

As per the ECI’s Political Parties and Election Symbols, 2019 handbook, a political party would be considered a national party if: it is ‘recognised’ in four or more states; or if its candidates polled at least 6% of total valid votes in any four or more states in the last Lok Sabha or Assembly elections and has at least four MPs in the last Lok Sabha polls; if it has won at least 2% of the total seats in the Lok Sabha from not less than three states. To be recognised as a state party, a party needs: at least 6% vote-share in the last Assembly election and have at least 2 MLAs; or have 6% vote-share in the last Lok Sabha elections from that state and at least one MP from that state; or at least 3% of the total number of seats or three seats, whichever is more, in the last Assembly elections; or at least one MP for every 25 members or any fraction allotted to the state in the Lok Sabha; or have at least 8% of the total valid votes in the last Assembly election or Lok Sabha election from the state.

 

Q13. Which one of the following statements most appropriately defines the meaning of ‘Rights’?

1. They are moral demands of a society for its own self-development.
2. They are incentives given by the State to the people in return for their obedience towards the rule of law.
3. They are reasonable claims of persons recognised by society and sanctioned by law.
4. They are obligations mandated on the State in order to promote social welfare.

 

 

S13.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option c is the correct answer.

Rights are reasonable claims of persons recognised by society and sanctioned by law.

1) Rights are claims of a person over other fellow beings, over the society and over the government. A right is possible when you make a claim that is equally possible for others. You cannot have a right that harms or hurts others. You cannot have a right to play a game in such a way that it breaks the neighbour’s window

2) Rights acquire meaning only in society. Every society makes certain rules to regulate our conduct. They tell us what is right and what is wrong. What is recognised by the society as rightful becomes the basis of rights. That is why the notion of rights changes from time to time and society to society.

3) When the socially recognised claims are written into law, they acquire real force. Otherwise, they remain merely as natural or moral rights. When law recognises some claims, they become enforceable. We can then demand their application. When fellow citizens or the government do not respect these rights, we call it violation or infringement of our rights. In such circumstances citizens can approach courts to protect their rights.

 

Q14. Recently, Asian Giant Tortoises were soft- released into Nagaland protected areas for rewilding. In this context, consider the following statements:

1. A soft release is a technique by which an animal is released into a new location without it being accustomed to the new environment.
2. The Asian Giant Tortoise is listed as ‘critically endangered’ under the IUCN List of Threatened Species.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S14.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Soft release is a process of gradually releasing captive-raised species into the wild. It is a technique often included in reintroductions to try and improve success by providing animals with an easier or more gradual transition to the wild. Measures include e.g. training animals to recognise predators, providing supplementary food after release, or temporarily containing individuals in a protective enclosure at the release site, so they can gradually adjust to new conditions before release. The method helps the species to develop site fidelity among released individuals and eventually develop the habit to live in the vicinity of the release closure. o A hard release is a means by which an animal is released into a new location without its being accustomed to the new environment. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

The Asian Giant Tortoise is listed as ‘critically endangered’ under the International Union for Conservation of Nature Red List of Threatened Species. The Asian Giant Tortoise inhabits evergreen forests, including bamboo forests, dry evergreen forests mixed with bamboo, dry evergreen forest, stream courses and swampy stream edges. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q15. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Limited Liability Partnership’ (LLP):

1. In LLP, the partners are not responsible or liable for another partner’s misconduct or negligence.
2. In India they are governed under the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013.
3. They can issue an Initial Public Offering only after the prior approval of SEBI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1 and 3 only

 

S15.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option a is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct: Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) is an alternative corporate business form in which some or all partners (depending on the jurisdiction) have limited liabilities. Under this, partners are not responsible or liable for another partner’s misconduct or negligence. This is an important difference from the traditional unlimited partnership in which each partner has joint liability.

Statement 2 is incorrect: All limited liability partnership in India is governed under the Limited Liability Partnership Act of 2008. The Ministry of Corporate Affairs implements the Act. Statement 3 is incorrect: The LLP is same as ordinary partnership and the only difference between LLP and ordinary partnership is the liability of LLP partners is limited. LLP cannot issue IPO and cannot use public money as a company does.

 

 

Q16. With reference to ‘The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955’, consider the following statements: Under the act-

1. a husband cannot claim alimony from his wife in case of divorce.
2. remedy for restitution of conjugal rights is provided to both husband and wife.
3. irretrievable breakdown of marriage is not recognized as a valid ground for divorce.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1 and 3 only

 

S16.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option c is the correct answer. Recently, the Supreme Court (SC) has decided to begin hearing a fresh challenge to the provision allowing restitution of conjugal rights under The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, either the husband or the wife can claim alimony or maintenance from the other party in case of divorce. There is no provision in the Act that prohibits a husband from claiming alimony from his wife. The law on alimony and maintenance varies from personal law to personal law. Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, both the husband and wife are legally entitled to claim permanent alimony and maintenance. However, if the couple marries under the Special Marriage Act, 1954, only the wife is entitled to claim permanent alimony and maintenance.

Statement 2 is correct: The rights that are created by marriage are called Conjugal Rights. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, provides remedy for the restitution of conjugal rights to both the husband and the wife. If either spouse has withdrawn from the other without any reasonable excuse, the aggrieved party may approach the court for restitution of conjugal rights.

Statement 3 is correct: Hindu Marriage Act 1955 does not recognize “irretrievable breakdown of marriage” as a valid ground for divorce. In India, divorce laws are governed under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the Special Marriage Act, 1954, the Indian Divorce Act (Christian Marriages), and Muslim personal law. All of these acts recognize divorce on two grounds: contested and consensual. Contested divorce refers to divorce petitions filed by one partner on grounds of cruelty, adultery, conversion, desertion, or unsoundness of mind exhibited by the other; consensual divorce on the other hand is filed by both partners through mutual consent. The law commission made recommendations in 1978, and again in 2010 to add irretrievable breakdown of marriage as a new ground for divorce in both the Hindu Marriage Act and the Special Marriage Act. In the absence of any formal legislation that recognizes “irretrievable breakdown of marriage” as a valid ground for divorce, the Supreme Court, under Article 142 of the Constitution has observed that the consent of the parties is not necessary to order the dissolution of marriage on the ground of “irretrievable breakdown”.

 

Q17. Which the following statement regarding Pluto is incorrect?

1. Pluto is the Solar System’s largest dwarf planet
2. New horizons is the space mission of NASA the primary mission of which is to perform a flyby study of the Pluto system
3. Wright Mons is a volcano on Pluto
4. The Kuiper belt is a band of small celestial bodies beyond the orbit of pluto

 

S17.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Pluto, the Solar System’s largest dwarf planet,

Recently a newsfrom NASA’s New Horizons probe which made its spectacular flyby of Pluto on July 14, 2015, revealed that Wright Mons is a volcano, and cite this to be older than 1-2 billion years

New Horizons is an interplanetary space probe that was launched as a part of NASA’s New Frontiers program. The  spacecraft was launched in 2006 with the primary mission to perform a flyby study of the Pluto system in 2015, and a secondary mission to fly by and study one or more other Kuiper belt objects (KBOs) in the decade to follow.

The Kuiper belt is a band of small celestial bodies beyond the orbit of Neptune from which many short-period comets are believed to originate.

 

Q18. Which of the following provides that no person shall be liable to any civil or criminal proceedings in any court in respect of the publication in a newspaper (or by radio or television) of a substantially true report of any proceedings of either House of Parliament or either House of the Legislature of a State.

1. Article 123
2. Article 361A
3. Article 301A
4. Article 146

 

S18.Ans. (b)

Sol.

Under article 361 No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the President or the Governor in any court during his term of office. Further Article 361-A  provides that no person shall be liable to any civil or criminal proceedings in any court in respect of the publication in a newspaper (or by radio or television) of a substantially true report of any proceedings of either House of Parliament or either House of the Legislature of a State. Hence Statement (b) is incorrect

 

Q19. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect with reference to relative humidity:

1. Sub-tropical regions are characterized by highest relative humidity.
2. The zones of high and low relative humidity shift northward and southward with northward and southward migration of the sun respectively.
3. There is maximum relative humidity in the morning whereas lowest value is recorded in the evening.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S19.Ans.(b)

Sol.

The ability of the air to hold water vapour depends entirely on its temperature. The percentage of moisture present in the atmosphere as compared to its full capacity at a given temperature is known as the relative humidity. With the change of air temperature, the capacity to retain moisture increases or decreases and the relative humidity is also affected. It is greater over the oceans and least over the continents

Distribution of relative humidity:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The horizontal distribution of relative humidity on earth’s surface is zonal in character. Equatorial regions are characterized by highest relative humidity. It gradually decreases towards subtropical high-pressure belts, where it becomes minimum (between 25 degrees to 35-degree latitudes). It further increases poleward.

Statement 2 is correct: The zones of high and low relative humidity shift northward and southward with northward and southward migration of the sun respectively. Seasonal distribution of relative humidity is largely controlled by latitudes. Maximum relative humidity is found during summer season between 30-degree N and 30-degree S latitudes while high latitudes record relative humidity more than average value during winters.

Statement 3 is correct: There is maximum relative humidity in the morning whereas lowest value is recorded in the evening.

 

Q20. Consider the following statements with reference to temperature distribution of Ocean water: 1. Temperature of the ocean surface decreases from the equator towards the poles.

2. Oceans in the southern hemisphere receive more heat than the northern hemisphere due to their contact with larger extent of land.
3. The highest ocean surface temperature is observed at equator.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S20.Ans.(a)

Sol.

statements 1 is correct: The factors which affect the distribution of temperature of ocean water are: (i) Latitude: the temperature of surface water decreases from the equator towards the poles because the amount of insolation decreases poleward.

Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect: The factors which affect the distribution of temperature of ocean water are: (ii) Unequal distribution of land and water: the oceans in the northern hemisphere receive more heat due to their contact with larger extent of land than the oceans in the southern hemisphere. The oceans in the northern hemisphere record relatively higher temperature than in the southern hemisphere. The highest temperature is not recorded at the equator but slightly towards north of it. The average annual temperatures for the northern and southern hemisphere are around 19° C and 16° C respectively. This variation is due to the unequal distribution of land and water in the northern and southern hemispheres.

 

 

Q21. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Parliamentary system:

Types of Grants Purpose

1. Excess Grant It is granted for meeting an unexpected demand that cannot be stated with budget.
2. Supplementary Grant It is granted when the amount authorised by the Parliament is found to be insufficient
3. Additional Grant It is granted for additional expenditure upon some new service not contemplated in the budget
4. Token Grant It is granted for a special purpose and forms no part of the current service of any financial year

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 3 and 4 only

 

S21.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option b is the correct answer. In addition to the budget that contains the ordinary estimates of income and expenditure for one financial year, various other grants are made by the Parliament under extraordinary or special circumstances Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Excess Grant is granted when money has been spent on any service during a financial year in excess of the amount granted for that service in the budget for that year. It is voted by the Lok Sabha after the financial year. Before the demands for excess grants are submitted to the Lok Sabha for voting, they must be approved by the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament. Vote of Credit is granted for meeting an unexpected demand upon the resources of India, when on account of the magnitude or the indefinite character of the service, the demand cannot be stated with the details ordinarily given in a budget. Hence, it is like a blank cheque given to the Executive by the Lok Sabha. Pair 2 is correctly matched: Supplementary Grant is granted when the amount authorised by the Parliament through the appropriation act for a particular service for the current financial year is found to be insufficient for that year.

Pair 3 is correctly matched: Additional Grant is granted when a need has arisen during the current financial year for additional expenditure upon some new service not contemplated in the budget for that year. Pair 4 is incorrectly matched: Token Grant is granted when funds to meet the proposed expenditure on a new service can be made available by reappropriation. A demand for the grant of a token sum (of Re 1) is submitted to the vote of the Lok Sabha and if assented, funds are made available. Reappropriation involves transfer of funds from one head to another. It does not involve any additional expenditure. Exceptional Grant is granted for a special purpose and forms no part of the current service of any financial year.

 

Q22. Suppose the Parliament of India has made a law that seeks to implement the provisions of Article 39(b) and 39(c) of the Indian Constitution. Such a law cannot be declared void by the Courts even if it is in contravention to which of the following Fundamental Rights?

1. Article 14 and 15
2. Article 15 and 21
3. Article 14 and 19
4. Article 19 and 21

 

S22.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option c is correct: Article 31C states that no law which seeks to implement the socialistic Directive Principles specified in Article 39 (b) and (c) shall be void on the ground of contravention of the Fundamental Rights conferred by Article 14 (equality before law and equal protection of laws) and Article 19 (protection of six rights in respect of speech, assembly, movement, etc). Thsu, it gives primacy to the implementation of the Directive Principles specified in Article 39 (b) and (c) over Fundamental Rights under

 

Q23. Consider the following statements with reference to the Red Soils in India :

1. The texture of the soil varies from sand to clay and loam
2. In general, these soils are rich in lime, phosphate, magnesia, nitrogen, humus, and potash.
3. In Uplands, the soil is coarse and infertile, while in Plains, the soil is fine and fertile.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S23.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Red soils cover approximately 61 million hectares or 18.5% of the country’s total area. They are mostly found over the Peninsula, from Tamil Nadu in the south to Bundelkhand in the north and from Rajmahal in the east to Kathiawad and Kutch in the west. Crystalline and metamorphic rocks such as acid granites, gneisses, and quartzites are the primary parent rocks of the red soil. •Their colour is mainly red because of the presence of ferric oxides. Generally, the top layer is red, while the horizon below is yellowish in colour. •Soil Texture indicates the relative content of particles of various sizes, such as sand, silt and clay, in the soil. The Red soil texture of the soil varies from sand to clay and loam. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Red soils are acidic mostly due to the parent rocks’ composition. The alkali content is adequate. •They are deficient in calcium, magnesium, phosphates, nitrogen, and humus and high in potassium and potash. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

The coarse-grained red soils of the dry uplands areas are poor, gravelly, and porous—however; Fine- grained red soil in the lower areas is rich, black, and fertile. So, Statement 3 is correct.

 

 

Q24. With reference to Concept of Sea Floor Spreading, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The sediments on the ocean floor are very thick.
2. Rocks closer to the mid-oceanic ridges are the youngest in age.
3. The continental crust rocks are much younger than the oceanic crust rocks.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

 

 

S24.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option (a) is correct:

The post-drift studies provided considerable information that was not available at thetime Wegener put forth his concept of continental drift. Sea Floor Spreading is one the most prominent, which is based on the following facts: x It was realised that all along the mid oceanic ridges, volcanic eruptions are common and they bring huge amounts of lava to the surface in this area.

x The rocks equidistant on either side of the crest of mid-oceanic ridges show remarkable similarities in terms of period of formation, chemical compositions and magnetic properties. Rocks closer to the mid-oceanic ridges have normal polarity and are the youngest. The age of the rocks increases as one moves away from the crest.

x The ocean crust rocks are much younger than the continental rocks. The age of rocks in the oceanic crust is nowhere more than 200 million years old. Some of the continental rock formations are as old as 3,200 million years.

x The sediments on the ocean floor are unexpectedly very thin. Scientists were expecting, if the ocean floors were as old as the continent, to have a complete sequence of sediments for a period of much longer duration. However, nowhere was the sediment column found to be older than 200 million years.

x The deep trenches have deep-seated earthquake occurrences while in the mid- oceanic ridge areas, the quake foci have shallow depths.

 

Q25. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect with reference to relative humidity:

1. Sub-tropical regions are characterized by highest relative humidity.
2. The zones of high and low relative humidity shift northward and southward with northward and southward migration of the sun respectively.
3. There is maximum relative humidity in the morning whereas lowest value is recorded in the evening.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S25.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Explanation: The ability of the air to hold water vapour depends entirely on its temperature. The percentage of moisture present in the atmosphere as compared to its full capacity at a given temperature is known as the relative humidity. With the change of air temperature, the capacity to retain moisture increases or decreases and the relative humidity is also affected. It is greater over the oceans and least over the continents Distribution of relative humidity: Statement 1 is incorrect: The horizontal distribution of relative humidity on earth’s surface is zonal in character. Equatorial regions are characterized by highest relative humidity. It gradually decreases towards subtropical high-pressure belts, where it becomes minimum (between 25 degrees to 35-degree latitudes). It further increases poleward.

Statement 2 is correct: The zones of high and low relative humidity shift northward and southward with northward and southward migration of the sun respectively. Seasonal distribution of relative humidity is largely controlled by latitudes. Maximum relative humidity is found during summer season between 30-degree N and 30-degree S latitudes while high latitudes record relative humidity more than average value during winters. Statement 3 is correct: There is maximum relative humidity in the morning whereas lowest value is recorded in the evening.