ଓଡିଶା ସିଭିଲ ସର୍ଭିସ୍ 2024 Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | November 1st Week

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Q1. Consider the following statements with reference to the ecosystem productivity:

1. Net primary productivity of an ecosystem is always less than its gross primary productivity.
2. Primary productivity depends on the photosynthetic capacity of plants.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S1.Ans.(c)

Sol.

• A constant input of solar energy is the basic requirement for any ecosystem to function and sustain. Primary production is defined as the amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a time period by plants during photosynthesis.
• The rate of biomass production is called productivity. o It can be divided into gross primary productivity (GPP) and net primary productivity (NPP). o Gross primary productivity of an ecosystem is the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis. o A considerable amount of GPP is utilised by plants in respiration. Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses (R), is the net primary productivity (NPP). o GPP – R = NPP o Net primary productivity is the available biomass for the consumption to heterotrophs (herbiviores and decomposers). Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Secondary productivity is defined as the rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers.
• Primary productivity depends on the plant species inhabiting a particular area. It also depends on a variety of environmental factors, availability of nutrients and photosynthetic capacity of plants. Therefore, it varies in different types of ecosystems. Hence statement 2 is correct.

 

Q2. Consider the following statements about the term ‘Astrobee’ recently in news:

1. It is a drone built by NASA for exploring asteroids outside solar system.
2. They can be remote controlled from ground station on earth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S2.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Astrobee is NASA’s new free-flying robotic system. They will work as teammates alongside astronauts on the International Space Station and will help astronauts reduce time they spend on routine duties, leaving them to focus more on the things that only humans can do. The robots are designed to complete tasks such as taking inventory, documenting experiments conducted by astronauts with their built-in cameras or working together to move cargo throughout the station. In addition, the system serves as a research platform that can be outfitted and programmed to carry out experiments in microgravity – helping us to learn more about how robotics can benefit astronauts in space.

Statement 2 is correct. They can work autonomously or via remote control by astronauts, flight controllers or researchers on the ground.

 

Q3. Consider the following statements about the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle Mark II (GSLV Mk II) rocket developed by ISRO:

1. It has the capability to deploy payloads upto 5 tonnes in Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit.
2. It uses Vikas Engine developed by ISRO.
3. The third stage is a cryogenic stage using liquid Oxygen and liquid Hydrogen as fuel.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

 

 

S3.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle Mark II (GSLV Mk II) is a launch vehicle developed by India, which is currently in operation. This fourth generation launch vehicle is a three-stage vehicle with four liquid strap-ons. The vehicle can deploy payloads of up to 2,500 Kilograms to a Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit and 5000 kg in low earth orbit. Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The first stage is a solid-fueled stage that is also used on PSLV. Around the core, four strap-on liquid-fueled boosters are mounted each featuring a Vikas engine (developed by ISRO) using storable propellants. The second stage is also a storable propellant stage using a single modified Vikas engine while the third stage is a cryogenic stage using liquid Oxygen and liquid Hydrogen that is consumed by an ICE engine.

 

Q4. The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions?

(a) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores

(b) Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco

(c) Region along Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa

(d) The entire coastal areas of Mediterranean Se

 

 

S4.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Levant, (from the French lever, “to rise,” as in sunrise, meaning the east), historically, the region along the eastern Mediterranean shores, roughly corresponding to modern-day Israel, Jordan, Lebanon, Syria, and certain adjacent areas. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

 

Q5. With reference to carbon nanotubes, consider the following statements:

1. They can be used as carriers of drugs and antigens in the human body.
2. They can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of human body.
3. They can be used in biochemical sensors.
4. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d)1,2,3 and 4

 

S5.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Carbon nanotubes (CNTs) are allotropes of carbon, made of graphite and constructed in cylindrical tubes with nanometer in diameter and several millimeters in length. Their impressive structural, mechanical, and electronic properties are due to their small size and mass, their strong mechanical potency, and their high electrical and thermal conductivity. CNTs have been successfully applied in pharmacy and medicine due to their high surface area that is capable of adsorbing or conjugating with a wide variety of therapeutic and diagnostic agents (drugs, genes, vaccines, antibodies, biosensors, etc.). They have been first proven to be an excellent vehicle for drug delivery directly into cells without metabolism by the body. Then other applications of CNTs have been extensively performed not only for drug and gene therapies but also for tissue regeneration, biosensor diagnosis, enantiomer separation of chiral drugs, extraction and analysis of drugs and pollutants. Hence, statements 1 and 3 are true.

CNTs are used in various biomedical applications like biosensors, diagnostic agents to visualize cancer cells. A multiwalled carbon nanotube–polyurethane nanocomposite (MWCNT-PU) can be used as vascular graft or blood capillaries. The disruption of red blood cells by PU and MWCNT-PU has been studied by measuring the absorbance of free hemoglobin. It has been found that the MWCNTs with an oxygen-containing functional group are well dispersed in polyurethane matrix. The number of platelets adhered to the MWCNTPU nanocomposite surface was remarkably reduced in comparison to that of the PU surface. Investigation of platelet activation was done by the analysis of conformational changes in glycoprotein measured via flow cytometry. It is expected that this enabling technology would facilitate the making of nanodevices using these blood-compatible nanomaterials as building blocks for biomedical application such as artificial implants, including structural tissue replacements, that is, artificial blood vessels, or functional devices such as drug delivery matrixes. Hence, statement 2 is true.

Multiple types of microbes including bacteria and fungi have the ability to degrade carbon nanotubes (CNTs), graphene (GRA), and their derivatives and in the future more species with this ability will be found. Hence, CNTs are biodegradable. Therefore, statement 4 is true. Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

 

 

Q6. With reference to the Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ), consider the following statements: 1. It is a broad trough of high pressure in equatorial latitudes.

2. The shift of the position of ITCZ in summer affects monsoon.
3. It moves north or south with the apparent movement of the sun.

Which of the above statements is /are correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

 

 

S6.Ans.(d)

Sol.

The Intertropical Convergence Zone, or ITCZ, is the region that circles the Earth, near the equator, where the trade winds of the Northern and Southern Hemispheres come together. x The intense sun and warm water of the equator heats the air in the ITCZ, raising its humidity and making it buoyant. Aided by the convergence of the trade winds, the buoyant air rises. As the air rises it expands and cools, releasing the accumulated moisture in an almost perpetual series of thunderstorms.

Seasonal shifts in the location of the ITCZ drastically affects rainfall in many equatorial nations, resulting in the wet and dry seasons of the tropics rather than the cold and warm seasons of higher latitudes. Longer term changes in the ITCZ can result in severe droughts or flooding in nearby areas.

The Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ,) is a broad trough of low pressure in equatorial latitudes. This is where the northeast and the southeast trade winds converge

This convergence zone lies more or less parallel to the equator but moves north or south with the apparent movement of the sun The shift of the position of Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) in summer, over the Ganga plain (this is the equatorial trough normally positioned about 5°N of the equator effects monsoon. It is also known as the monsoon trough during the monsoon season.

 

Q7. The localised thunderstorms, associated with violent winds, torrential downpours, often accompanied by hail, in West Bengal are referred to as:

(a) Bardoli Chheerha

(b) Blossom Shower

(c) Kalbaisakhi

(d) None of the above

 

S7.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option (c) is correct

Violent thunderstorms in the Gangetic plains of India are locally known as Kal Baisakhi or Nor’westers. These localised events are generally associated with thunderstorms accompanied by strong squally winds and torrential rainfall.

• Kal Baisakhi originates in the Chhotanagpur Plateau, in and around the cities of Ranchi and Jamshedpur. In times of incursion of moist air in these elevated regions, amidst high temperatures, these extremely destructive thunderstorms occur. Kal Baisakhi originates over Bihar and Jharkhand area, moves eastwards and strikes West Bengal and Odisha, takes Chhattisgarh under its purview as well.
• Kal Baisakhi definitely brings destruction in terms of lightning, thunderstorm, hailstorm and rainfall. At the same time, it is extremely helpful for the pre-Kharif crops like jute, paddy and a large number of vegetables and fruits. It gives the much-desired relief after mid-day heat and pours well on the thirsty soil for development of crops.
• Kal Baisakhi is a common occurrence during April and May and few events of Kal Baisakhi are seen in March too. Bardoli Chheerha: The localised thunderstorms, associated with violent winds, torrential downpours, often accompanied by hail are referred to as Bardoli in Assam Blossom Shower: The pre -monsoon storms are refer to as Blossom Shower in Kerala.

Some names for pre monsoon in different states:

o Tea showers in Assam as they are good for tea, jute and rice.

o Mango showers in Kerala and coastal areas of Karnataka, they help in the early ripening of mangoes.

o Cherry Blossoms/ Coffee showers in Kerala and nearby areas .They for good for coffee plantations)

 

 Q8. ’Rapid Financing Instrument’’ and ‘’Rapid Credit Facility’’ are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following?

1. Asian Development Bank
2. International Monetary Fund
3. United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative
4. World Bank

 

S8.Ans.(b)

Sol.

• The Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI): It is a lending facility of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) which provides rapid financial assistance. It is available to all member countries facing an urgent balance of payments need. The RFI was created as part of a broader reform to make the IMF’s financial support more flexible to address the diverse needs of member countries. The RFI replaced the IMF’s previous emergency assistance policy and can be used in a wide range of circumstances.
• IMF’s Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) provides rapid concessional financial assistance to low-income countries (LICs) facing an urgent balance of payments (BoP) need with no ex-post conditionality where a full-fledged economic program is neither necessary nor feasible. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

 

Q9. Consider the following statements:

1. Tight monetary policy of US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight.
2. Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs). 3. Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S9.Ans.(a)

Sol.

• Tight monetary policy is a course of action undertaken by a central bank to slow down overheated economic growth. It aims to constrict spending in an economy that is seen to be accelerating too quickly or to curb inflation when it is rising too fast. When the US Federal Reserve adopts a tight monetary policy, India may see foreign capital flowing out. This is due to higher interest rates offered in the US which could attract investors. So, statement 1 is correct. ● Capital flight destabilizes interest rates and exchange rates and also reduces monetary control. It drives up the marginal costs of foreign borrowing. Thus, capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing external commercial borrowings. So, statement 2 is correct.
• The devaluation of currency increases the cost of borrowing of the firms that denominate debt in foreign currency and thus adversely affect the investment and net worth of the firms. Thus, devaluation of domestic currency increases the currency risk associated with External commercial borrowings. So, statement 3 is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

  

Q10. Consider the following freedom fighters:

1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh
2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee
3. Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party?

1. l and 2
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 3 only

 

S10.Ans.(d)

Sol.

• Barindra Kumar Ghosh was jailed after Swadeshi years and was in jail during the first world war, so he didn’t participate in Ghadar.
• Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee was a part of Anushilan samiti and then became one of the founding members of HRA/HSRA.
• It was only Rash Behari Bose who was active during Ghadar years. When Ghadar members started to come to India, the local revolutionary leader was Rash Behari Bose who assisted them in the plan to trigger rebellion in the army which ultimately failed. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

 

 

Q11. With reference to the Royal Indian Navy (RIN) revolt, consider the following statements:

1. Only the members of the armed forces participated in the revolt.
2. It demanded withdrawal of Indian troops from Indonesia.
3. Congress gave its official support to the revolt.
4. Communists and socialist played a major role in guiding the mutiny.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 4 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 2 and 4 only
4. 2, 3 and 4 only

 

S11.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option c is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Royal Indian Navy revolt is not limited to armed forces alone. Students had boycotted classes, strikes and processions were organised to express sympathy with the students and the ratings and to condemn official repression.

Statement 2 is correct: The demands of RIN revolt included the release of INA (Indian National Army) personnel and other political prisoners; withdrawal of Indian troops from Indonesia; and the acceptance of Indian officers only as superiors. Statement 3 is incorrect: While the congress lauded the spirit of the people it did not officially support these struggles as it felt their tactics and timing were wrong. It was evident for congress that the Government would be able to repress. Statement 4 is correct: Royal Indian Navy agitation was led majorly by the communists, socialist and forward blocists. The congress role was majorly diffusing the revolutionary situation prompted by the fear that the situation would go out of its control or by the concern that disciplined armed forces were vital in free India that the party would soon rule.

 

Q12. Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’?

1. It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.
2. It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region.
3. It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies in the North Pole and South Pole.
4. It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council.

 

S12.Ans.(a)

Sol.

• International Maritime Organization’s International Code for Ships Operating in Polar Waters (Polar Code) is mandatory under both the International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS) and the International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL). The Polar Code covers the full range of design, construction, equipment, operational, training, search and rescue and environmental protection matters relevant to ships operating in the inhospitable waters surrounding the two poles. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer

 

Q13. With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements:

1. Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties.
2. Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage.
3. Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products.
4. Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 3
2. 2 and 4
3. 1 and 4
4. 2 and 3

 

S13.Ans.(a)

Sol.

• Polyethylene terephthalate (PET) is the predominant polyester used for fibre production. They are often used in durable-press blends with other fibres such as rayon, wool, and cotton, reinforcing the inherent properties of those fibres while contributing to the ability of the fabric to recover from wrinkling. So, statement 1 is correct.
• Particularly for highly concentrated spirits in small PET bottles and high storage temperatures the water permeation is unfavourable. In fact, the leaching effects of plastic and plastic chemical substances (such as ethylene glycol) have the tendency to leach considerably into alcohol stored if the temperature goes up during storage. So, statement 2 is not correct.
• PET bottles can be recycled back into bottles, fibres, film, thermoformed packaging and strapping. So, statement 3 is correct.
• The burning of plastics releases toxic gases like dioxins, furans, mercury and polychlorinated biphenyls (better known as BCPs) into the atmosphere, and poses a threat to vegetation, and human and animal health. So, statement 4 is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

 

Q14. Consider the following statements with reference to ‘tenure of high court judges’:

1. The constitution has not fixed the tenure of a high court judge.
2. A high court judge can resign by writing to the chief justice of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S14.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option a is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct: The constitution has not fixed the tenure of a judge of a high court. However, it makes some provision in the regard. One of provisions says that High court judge holds office until he attains the age of 62 years.

Statement 2 is incorrect: A judge of high court can resign from his office by writing to the president.

Q15. Consider the following statements:

1. The Chief Justice of India (CJI) is a public authority under the Right to Information (RTI) Act.
2. The Supreme Court collegium’s meetings are open to public under the Right to Information (RTI) Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S15.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option a is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct. The Office of the Chief Justice of India (CJI) is declared as a ‘public authority’ under the Right to Information (RTI) Act by a five-judge Constitution Bench in a 2019 judgement. The Court also held that the personal information of judges should only be divulged under RTI if such disclosure served the larger public interest. The disclosure of personal information was discretionary under the RTI Act. The statute has given the discretion to the Public Information Officer (PIO).

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Supreme Court collegium’s meetings do not come under the Right to Information (RTI) Act. The Supreme Court has refused to divulge information under RTI about the collegium’s confidential communications to protect the independence of the judiciary.

 

Q16. The term ARHGAP11B is often mentioned in the news is related to:

(a) A supermassive black hole.

(b) A human’s gene.

(c) New missile developed by Russia

(d) India’s new Supercomputer

 

S16.Ans.(b)

Sol.

ARHGAP11B — this complex name is given to a gene that is unique to humans and plays an essential role in the development of the neocortex. The neocortex is the part of the brain to which we owe our high mental abilities. A team of researchers from the German Primate Center (DPZ) — Leibniz Institute for Primate Research in Göttingen, the Max Planck Institute for Molecular Cell Biology and Genetics (MPI-CBG) in Dresden, and the Hector Institute for Translational Brain Research (HITBR) in Mannheim has investigated the importance of ARHGAP11B in neocortex development during human evolution.

 

Q17. Consider the following statements with reference to the effects of El Nino Phenomenon:

1. Walker circulation is dominant in the western part of the Pacific Ocean.
2. The West coast of South America receives less rainfall.
3. Southeast Asia and Australia experience heavy rainfall.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None of the above

 

 

S17.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Statements 1 is incorrect: El Nino is a phenomenon that occurs in the equatorial Pacific Ocean characterized by a positive sea surface temperature departure from normal (1971-2000 base period) in the region lying within the latitude 5°N to 5°S and longitudes 120° W to 170°W . This phenomenon occurs every two to seven years. Pacific Ocean in Normal situation: Near equator the water of the Pacific Ocean is warmer in the western side and cooler in the eastern side due to upwelling of the cold current. Pacific Ocean in el nino situation: Near equator the warm water in the Pacific Ocean extends from western side to eastern side suppressing the upwelling of the cold water. Air (Walker) circulation is dominant in the eastern part of the Pacific Ocean. The air ascends in the warm eastern Pacific Ocean.

Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect: During El nino South East Asia experiences severe drought and forest fire. Peru in South America receives heavy rainfall during El Nino.ie. The West coast of South America receives heavy rainfall. Australia experiences dry weather conditions.

 

Q18. Consider the following statements with reference to Duar formations:

1. They are used for the development of tea gardens
2. It is a characterstic feature of Northwestern Himalayas.
3. Valley of flowers is an example of duar formation.

Which of the above statements is /are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

 

S18.Ans.(b)

Sol.

The Darjileeng and Sikkim Himalaya:

Statement 1 is correct The British, taking advantage of the physical conditions such as moderate slope, thick soil cover with high organic content, well distributed rainfall throughout the year and mild winters, introduced tea plantations in this region. As compared to the other sections of the Himalayas, these along with the Arunachal Himalayas are conspicuous by the absence of the Shiwalik formations. In place of the Shiwaliks here, the ‘duar formations’ are important, which have also been used for the development of tea gardens.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Duar formations are characteristic feature of the Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas. In place of shasliks these hills have duar formations.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The two distinguishing features of The Himachal and Uttarakhand Himalayas region from the point of view of physiography are the ‘Shiwalik’ and ‘Dun formations. Some important duns located in this region are the Chandigarh-Kalka dun, Nalagarh dun, Dehra Dun, Harike dun and the Kota dun, etc. Dehra Dun is the largest of all the duns with an approximate length of 35-45 km and a width of 22-25 km. The famous ‘Valley of flowers’ is also situated in this region. Valley of flower is example of dun formation.

 

Q19. Consider the following statements about small satellite launch vehicle (SSLV) developed by the ISRO:

1. It can launch satellites to Geostationary orbit.
2. It is configured with three solid stages and a liquid stage.
3. It is capable of launching satellites weighing upto 500 kg.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S19.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Statement 1 is incorrect: ISRO developed a small satellite launch vehicle (SSLV) to cater the launch of up to 500 kg satellites to Low Earth Orbits on ‘launch-on-demand’ basis.

Statement 2 is incorrect and 3 is correct: SSLV is configured with three solid stages. The satellite insertion into the intended orbit is achieved through a liquid propulsion-based velocity trimming module. SSLV is capable of launching Mini, Micro, or Nanosatellites (10 to 500 kg mass). SSLV provides low-cost access to Space on demand basis. It offers low turn-around time, flexibility in accommodating multiple

 

Q20. ‘Igla-s’ as commonly heard in news refers to:

(a) man-portable air defence system (MANPADS)

(b) Inter Continental Ballistic Missile.

(c) Attack Helicopter

(d) Drone System

 

S20.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option (a) is correct: Igla-S is developed by Russia

• It is a man-portable air defence system (MANPADS)
• It has won bid for the Indian Army’s Very Short Range Air Defence deal.
• It is designed for use against visible aerial targets at short range such as tactical aircraft, helicopters, unmanned aerial vehicle (UAVs), cruise missile, head-on or receding, in presence of natural (background) clutter and countermeasures.

 

Q21. Indian Navy’s recently commissioned INS ANDROTH belongs to which of the following categories?

(a) Guided Missile Cruiser

(b) Frigate

(c) Anti submarine Warfare Craft

(d) Amphibious Assault Ship

 

S21.Ans.(c)

Sol.

• INS Androth is the second in a series of eight Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft (ASW SWC) built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers in Kolkata.
• Its primary role is to conduct anti-submarine operations in coastal waters, low intensity maritime operations and mine laying operations.

 

Q22. Which of the following are the examples of areas where secondary succession occurs?

1. Newly cooled lava
2. Bare rock
3. Abandoned farm lands
4. Burned Forest

Select the correct answer using code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

 

S22.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option(c) is correct:

Succession is a process that starts in an area where no living organisms are there – these could be areas where no living organisms ever existed, say bare rock; or in areas that somehow, lost all the living organisms that existed there. The former is called primary succession, while the latter is termed secondary succession. Examples of areas where primary succession occurs are newly cooled lava, bare rock, newly created pond or reservoir. Secondary succession begins in areas where natural biotic communities have been destroyed such as in abandoned farm lands, burned or cut forests, lands that have been flooded. Since some soil or sediment is present, succession is faster than primary succession. Description of ecological succession usually focuses on changes in vegetation. However, these vegetational changes in turn affect food and shelter for various types of animals. Thus, as succession proceeds, the numbers and types of animals and decomposers also changes

 

Q23. Which among the following best describes the term ‘Extension Forestry’?

(a) Raising of trees on community land and not on private land.

(b) Planting trees on farmlands to meet the domestic needs of the family.

(c) The practice of growing crops between rows of trees.

(d) Planting of trees on the sides of roads, canals and railways, along with planting on wastelands.

 

S23.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option (d) is correct: Planting of trees on the sides of roads, canals and railways, along with planting on wastelands is known as ‘extension’ forestry. Under this project there has been creation of wood lots in the village common lands, government wastelands and panchayats lands. Schemes for afforesting degraded government forests that are close to villages are being carried out all over the country.

 

Q24. Consider the following statements regarding peatlands:

1. They are the largest natural terrestrial carbon store.
2. In peatlands, year-round waterlogged conditions increases the process of plant decomposition.
3. They are most common across the boreal and subarctic zones of the Northern Hemisphere. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

 

S24.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Peatlands are a type of wetlands that occur in almost every country on Earth, currently covering 3% of the global land surface. The term ‘peatland’ refers to the peat soil and the wetland habitat growing on its surface.

o In these areas, year-round waterlogged conditions slow the process of plant decomposition to such an extent that dead plants accumulate to form peat. Peatland landscapes are varied – from blanket bog landscapes with open, treeless vegetation. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

o Large amounts of carbon, fixed from the atmosphere into plant tissues through photosynthesis, are locked away in peat soils, representing a valuable global carbon store. At the same time, peatlands are the largest natural terrestrial carbon store. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• About 30% of the world’s terrestrial soil carbon is found in peatland ecosystems. Peatlands are most common across the boreal and subarctic zones of the Northern Hemisphere. Hence statement 3 is correct.

 

Q25. Consider the following statements with reference to the Layers of the Atmosphere:

1. Height of the troposphere decreases from the equator towards the poles.
2. Ozone gas is highly concentrated in the upper part of the stratosphere.
3. Exosphere is the coldest layer of the atmosphere.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

         

S25.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Statements 1 is correct: The troposphere is the lowermost layer of the atmosphere. It extends approximately to a height of 8 km from the poles and 18 km from the equator. The height of the troposphere changes seasonally also. It increases during summer and decreases during winter. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Stratosphere is the second layer of the atmosphere found above the troposphere. It approximately extends up to a height of 50 km from the earth’s surface. Temperature is constant up to a height of 20 km and increases gradually up to the stratopause where temperature is nearly -4°C. The lower part of this layer is highly concentrated with ozone gas which is called ‘ozonosphere’. It prevents the ultra- violet rays from the Sun from entering into the lower part of the atmosphere as the rays are highly harmful; it causes skin cancer and other ill effects to living organisms. But the ozone layer safeguards life on the earth.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The mesosphere is the third layer of the atmosphere found approximately up to a height of 85 km above the surface of the earth. It is the coldest layer of the atmosphere. The temperature decreases with increase of altitude due to the absence of ozone.

 

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