ଓଡିଶା ସିଭିଲ ସର୍ଭିସ୍ 2024 Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | November 2nd Week

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Q1. With reference to ionosphere, Consider the following statements:

1. This layer reflects back radio waves transmitted from the earth.
2. Temperature in ionosphere starts decreasing with height.

Which of the following statements is /are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S1.Ans.(c)

Sol.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Sulu Sea, portion of the western North Pacific Ocean. It is bounded by northeastern Borneo on the southwest, the southwestern islands of the Philippines, including Palawan, on the west and northwest, Busuanga and Mindoro on the north, Panay and Negros on the east, and Mindanao and the Sulu Archipelago on the southeast.
• Statement 2 is correct: A fracture line, bisecting the sea from northeast to southwest, is evidenced by the coral atolls surrounding Mapun (Cagayan Sulu) island, the Tubbataha Reefs, and the volcanic Mapun island group itself.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Tubbataha Reefs were designated a UNESCO World Heritage site in 1993 in recognition of their abundance and diversity of marine life; in 2009 the boundaries of the site were extended to triple its original size.

 

Q2. In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the:

(a) First half of the month of June

(b) Second half of the month of June

(c) First half of the month of July

(d) Second half of the month of July

 

S2.Ans.(b)

Sol.

• The longest day of 2021 for those living north of the Equator is June 21. In technical terms, this day is referred to as the summer solstice, the longest day of the summer season. It occurs when the sun is directly over the Tropic of Cancer, or more specifically right over 23.5-degree north latitude. This will happen around 9:02 am on Monday (Indian Standard Time).
• During the solstice, the Earth’s axis — around which the planet spins, completing one turn each day — is tilted in a way that the North Pole is tipped towards the sun and the South Pole is away from it. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

 

Q3. Which one of the following is the context in which the term “Qubit” is mentioned?

(a) Cloud Services

(b) Quantum computing

(c)Visible light communication technologies

(d) Wireless Communication Technologies

 

S3.Ans.(b)

Sol.

• A qubit (or quantum bit) is the quantum mechanical analogue of a classical bit. In classical computing the information is encoded in bits, where each bit can have the value zero or one. In quantum computing the information is encoded in qubits. Qubits can be in a state of 0 or 1 or (unlike a classical bit) in a linear combination of both states. The name of this phenomenon is superposition. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer

 

Q4. With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements :

1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.
2. It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q5.Consider the following statements regarding

1. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company.
2. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S4.Ans.(c)

Sol.

• The Common Framework for debt treatment beyond the Debt Service Suspension Initiative (DSSI) is an initiative endorsed by the G20, together with the Paris Club, to support, in a structural manner, Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt. The Common Framework represents a step change for official creditors, bringing together the Paris Club and G20 official bilateral creditors in a coordinated process. So, statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
• To date, three countries have requested a Common Framework treatment and in April 2021 there has been the launch of the first Creditor Committee for a debt treatment for Chad.

 

S5.Ans.(c)

Sol. A credit rating agency is an entity which assesses the ability and willingness of the issuer company for timely payment of interest and principal on a debt instrument. Credit rating agencies are regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)..

• ICRA Limited (formerly Investment Information and Credit Rating Agency of India Limited) was set up in 1991 by leading financial/investment institutions, commercial banks and financial services companies as an independent and professional investment Information and Credit Rating Agency. ICRA is a Public Limited Company, with its shares listed on the Bombay Stock Exchange and the National Stock Exchange. So, statement 1 is correct.
• Brickwork Ratings (BWR) is an Indian Credit Rating Agency that offers rating services on Bank Loans, NCD, Commercial Paper, Fixed deposits, Securitised paper, Security receipts etc. Brickwork Ratings founded by bankers, credit rating professionals, former regulators as well as professors, is committed to promoting Financial Literacy. BWR has its corporate office in Bengaluru. So, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer

 

Q6. Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?

1. Central Water Commission
2. Central Ground Water Board
3. Central Ground Water Authority
4. National Water Development Agency

 

S6.Ans.(c)

Sol.

• Central Ground Water Authority has been constituted under Section 3 (3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to regulate and control development and management of ground water resources in the country. It issues necessary regulatory directions for the purpose. It exercises powers under the Act for the appointment of officers. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

 

Q7 . Which of the following is not a bird?

1. Golden Mahseer
2. Indian Nightjar
3. Spoonbill
4. White Ibis

 

S7.Ans.(a)

Sol.

• Golden Mahseer is a species of cyprinid fish. Mahseer roughly translates as mahi – fish and sher – tiger, and hence is also referred as tiger among fish. It is a large cyprinid and known to be the toughest among the fresh water sport fish. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

 

Q8. With reference to Article 32 of the Indian Constitution, consider the following:

1. Only the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution can be enforced under this Article. 2. Parliament can empower any court to issue writs of all kinds.
2. Article 32can be invoked to determine the constitutionality of any legislation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S8.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct. Only the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution can be enforced under Article 32 and not any other right like non-fundamental constitutional rights, statutory rights, customary rights and so on. In other words, the Supreme Court, under Article 32, cannot determine a question that does not involve Fundamental Rights.

Statement 2 is correct. Parliament can empower any other court to issue directions, orders and writs of all kinds. However, this can be done without prejudice to the above powers conferred on the Supreme Court. Any other court here does not include high courts because Article 226 has already conferred these powers on the high courts.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Article 32 cannot be invoked simply to determine the constitutionality of an executive order or a legislation unless it directly infringes any of the fundamental rights.

 

Q9. In the context of ‘Reasonable restriction’ on fundamental rights under the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

1. The constitution does not explicitly provide what all comprises the reasonable restrictions.
2. The reasonableness of a legislation is determined based only on substantive provisions and not the procedural provisions of it.
3. The reasonableness of a restriction has to be determined in an objective manner from the point of view of persons upon whom the restrictions are imposed.
4. The State may make laws in relation to protection of interests of any scheduled tribes with respect to freedom of residence. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1, 2 and 3 only
4. 2, 3 and 4 only

 

S9.Ans.(c)

Sol.

option c is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 19(2) imposes reasonable restrictions on the basis of sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality or in relation to contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence.

Statement 2 is incorrect: In determining the reasonableness of statute, the court should see both to the nature of the restriction and procedure prescribed by the statue for enforcing the restrictions on the individual freedom. Not only substantive but also procedural provisions of a statute also enter into the verdict of its reasonableness.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The reasonableness of a restriction has to be determined in an objective manner and from the standpoint of the interests of the general public and not from the point of view of persons upon whom the restrictions are imposed or upon abstract considerations.

Statement 4 is correct: Every citizen has the right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of the country. The State can impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of freedom of residence on two grounds- (a) the interests of the general public and (b) the protection of interests of any scheduled tribes.

 

Q10. Consider the following statements:

1. Geostrophic wind is one whose direction and speed are determined by a balance of the pressure-gradient force and Coriolis.
2. Jet stream is the example of geostrophic wind.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S10.Ans.(c)

Sol.

When in geostrophic balance, wind in the atmosphere has a balance between the pressure gradient force (PGF) and the Coriolis force (CF). In geostrophic balance, PGF = CF. The resulting wind is called a geostrophic wind. Jet streams are some of the geostrophic winds, flowing in the atmosphere. Their speeds usually range from 129 to 225 kilometers per hour (80 to 140 miles per hour), but they can reach more than 443 kilometers per hour (275 miles per hour). They are faster in winter when the temperature differences between tropical, temperate, and polar air currents are greater. High speed of wind at upper atmosphere due to lack of friction increase coriolos is which balances the PGF and flow as Geostropic wind.

 

Q11. Consider the following Rivers:

1. Subarnarekha
2. Vamsadhara
3. Sharavati
4. Mandovi

Which of the above rivers flowing towards the East?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 3 and 4 only

 

S11.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Eastern Ghats:

The Eastern Ghats, once covered by luxuriant forests, are becoming barren because of the greed and endless quest of mankind in the name of development. The series of broken hills run from the Mahanadi in Odisha to the Vaigai in Tamil Nadu, with an average elevation of 1,000 metres in peninsular India. Small Rivers Flowing towards the East: There are a large number of rivers flowing towards the east along with their tributaries. There are small rivers which join the Bay of Bengal, though small, these are important in their own right.

The Subarnrekha, the Baitarni, the Brahmani, the Vamsadhara, the Penner, the Palar and the Vaigai are important rivers. West flowing rivers: The Mandovi River is one of the main West Flowing Rivers of Goa State. The river runs in the North- East direction for about 5 km and then follows in the West ward direction. The Mandovi River rises in the Jamboti Ghats in Karnataka State. At the origin, near the village Mabulyesheir, it is known as Bhaburnal, which is at an elevation of 600m above M.S.L. The total length of this West Flowing River from its origin to its out fall into the Arabian Sea is 62 km. The Vaitarna rises from the Trimbak hills in Nasik district at an elevation of 670 m. The Kalinadi rises from Belgaum district and falls in the Karwar Bay. The source of Bedti river lies in Hubli Dharwar and traverses a course of 161 km. The Sharavati is another important river in Karnataka flowing towards the west. The Sharavati originates in Shimoga district of Karnataka and drains a catchment area of 2,209 sq. km

 

Q12. UDARASHAKTI, is a bilateral air exercise between:

(a) Sri Lanka and Thailand

(b) India and Indonesia

(c) Singapore and Bangladesh

(d) India and Malaysia

 

S12.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option (d) is correct. Udarshakti is an air force exercise between India and Malaysia. The Indian Air Force participated in the air exercise with Su-30 MKI and C-17 aircraft while the RMAF participated with Su 30 MKM aircraft. The exercise took place at the RMAF base of Kuantan. The exercise will give an opportunity to IAF contingent members to share and learn best practices with some of the best professionals from RMAF, while also discussing mutual combat capabilities.

 

Q13. Which among the following sources of energy can be adopted for the Electrolysis of water to produce Green Hydrogen?

1. Thermal power plants.
2. Solar power plants
3. Energy produced from Natural Gas

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S13.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option (a) is correct. Green hydrogen is defined as hydrogen produced by splitting water into hydrogen and oxygen using renewable electricity including Renewable Energy which has been produced from biomass. Nuclear energy is usually considered another non-renewable energy source. Although nuclear energy itself is a renewable energy source, the material used in nuclear power plants is not. Nuclear energy harvests the powerful energy in the nucleus, or core, of an atom. The material most often used in nuclear power plants is the element uranium which is a non-renewable resource. Thermal power plants generates energy using coal or natural oil (fossil fuels) which are non renewable sources of enrgy.

 

 

Q14. Which of the following best define the term ‘Biomagnification’?

(a) Increase in number of aquatic organism’s due to nutrient enrichment in a lake.

(b) Increase in biological hazard in water bodies.

(c) Increase in concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic levels.

(d) Increasing biodiversity in an ecosystem as a result of better availability of Sun light.

 

S14.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Biomagnification refers to increase in concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic levels. This happens because a toxic substance accumulated by an organism cannot be metabolized or excreted, and is thus passed on to the next higher trophic level. This phenomenon is well known for mercury and DDT.

 

Q15. Which of the following activities constitute real sector in the economy?

1. Farmers harvesting their crops
2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics
3. A commercial bank lending money to a trading company
4. A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

S15.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option a is the correct answer.

There are three sectors of any domestic economy: 1) General government sector 2) Real sector 3) Financial sector

Options 1 and 2 are correct: The real sector of the economy consists of enterprises (non-financial corporations), households and non-profit institutions serving households. Non-financial organizations comprise all resident units involved in production of market goods and non-financial services. Market goods and services are those goods and services that are sold at market prices (economically significant prices).

Options 3 and 4 are incorrect: The financial sector consists of corporations principally engaged in financial intermediation or in auxiliary financial activities that contribute to financial intermediation.

 

Q16. Consider the following pair: Landform Characteristic

1. Gour Rock pedestals formed by sand blasting effect of wind.
2. Zeugen Tabular masses having a layer of soft rocks lying beneath resistant rocks.

3.Dreikanter Three wind faceted surfaces

4.Inselberg Isolated residual hill

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

S16.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Pair 1 is correct: Gour or Mushroom rock are formed by sand blasting effect of wind due to which grooves and hollows are cut in the rock surfaces, carving them into rock pedestals, which are further eroded near their bases where the friction is greatest.

Pair 2 is correct: Zeugen are tabular masses which have a layer of soft rocks lying beneath resistant rocks, formed into weird -looking ‘ridge and furrow landscape’ due to wind abrasion. Pair 3 is correct: Dreikanter are the type of ventifacts with three wind-faceted surfaces. Ventifacts have flat facets with sharp edges formed by sand blasting.

Pair 4 is correct: Inselberg are isolated residual hills rising abruptly from the level ground, characterised by their very steep slopes and rather rounded tops.

 

Q17. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?

1. The Finance Commission recommendations.
2. The Public Accounts Committee report.
3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General.
4. The Report of the National Commission for the Scheduled Castes.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

S17.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The Public Accounts Committee scrutinizes the report of CAG in detail and then submits its report to the House of the People. It is the duty of the President to lay before the Parliament:

1. The Annual Financial Statement (Budget)
2. The report of the Comptroller and Auditor-General (CAG) relating to the accounts of the Government of India.
3. The recommendations made by the Finance Commission.
4. The report of the Union Public Service Commission, explaining the reasons where any advice of the Commission has not been accepted;
5. The report of the National commission for Scheduled Castes and Tribes; 6. The report of the Commission on backward classes (OBC) .
6. The report of the Special Officer for linguistic minorities.

 

Q18.Which of the following statements regarding Virupaksha Temple is incorrect?

1. It is acknowledged as one of the World Heritage Sites of UNESCO and is made of white sandstone.
2. This temple was constructed by Queen Lokamahadevi in celebration of her husband King Vikramaditya’s victory
3. Virupaksha Temple is dedicated to Lord Vishnu
4. It is built of the Vesara style of architecture

 

S18.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Virupaksha Temple is the oldest known temple built by a queen in India. It was built in 740 AD by Queen Lokamahadevi in celebration of her husband King Vikramaditya’s victory over the Pallavas of Kanchipuram. Hers is the largest and the grandest of all 9 temples in Pattadakal. The temple is carved out of red sandstone .Virupaksha temples are famous for their Dravidian style.

Hampi is a temple town in South India and is acknowledged as one of the World Heritage Sites of UNESCO. Virupaksha Temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva

 

Q19. In the context of landscape evolution in deserts, which of the following statement best describes the landforms called ‘Pediplains’?

1. These are the gently inclined rocky floors formed at the foothills of mountains due to erosional process.
2. These are the fan-shaped deposits formed due to deposition of sediments at the base of a mountain.
3. These are the areas of shallow lakes where water is retained for a short duration before evaporation.
4. These are the low featureless plains formed due to the reduction of high relief structures due to the process of erosion.

 

S19.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option d is the correct answer. The desert areas undergo continuous but gradual changes due to various erosional and depositional processes.

Option a is incorrect: The gently inclined rocky floors formed close to the foothills of mountains are called pediments. They are formed due to erosion of mountain front due to streams and sheet flooding.

Option b is incorrect: The fan-shaped deposits in deserts formed due to deposition of sediments at the base of a mountains are called ‘bajadas. They are mostly found in semi-arid regions. Option c is incorrect: The formation of a shallow lake or water body for a short period (during the times of sufficient water availability) are called playas. Thereafter, the water gets evaporated. The playas contain good deposition of salts. The playa plains covered up by salt are called alkali flats.

Option d is correct: In desert areas, the slopes of mountains or mountain front get eroded over time due to streams or sheet flooding. This results in the formation of gently inclined rocky floors close to the mountain foot, which are called pediments. Once, pediments are formed with steep wash slope followed by cliff or free face above it, the steep wash slope and free face starts to retreat backwards. In other words, the pediments extend backwards with the continuing erosion of the mountain front. Gradually, the mountain gets reduced leaving an inselberg which is a remnant of the mountain. This is how the high relief in desert areas is reduced to low featureless plains, called pediplains.

 

Q20. Consider the following statements:

1. Strategic nuclear weapons are meant to carry out a limited strike in a smaller area.
2. Tactical nuclear weapons are capable of destroying whole cities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S20.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Tactical vs Strategic Nuclear Weapons

• Tactical nuclear weapons are small nuclear warheads and delivery systems meant to carry out a limited strike in a smaller area. On the other hand, strategic nuclear weapons are understood to mean those causing greater, large-scale damage. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
• Tactical nuclear weapons have a relatively short range and a much lower yield than strategic nuclear weapons which are capable of destroying whole cities. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.

Q21. Consider the following statements:

1. The constitution provides the equal representation to the states in Upper House.
2. The Parliament is empowered to legislate on any subject of the State List if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect in the national interest.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S21.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The states are given representation in the Rajya Sabha on the basis of population. Hence, the membership varies from 1 to 31. In US, on the other hand, the principle of equality of representation of states in the Upper House is fully recognised. Thus, the American Senate has 100 members, two from each state. This principle is regarded as a safeguard for smaller states.

Statement 2 is correct: Even in the limited sphere of authority allotted to them, the states do not have exclusive control. The Parliament is empowered to legislate on any subject of the State List if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect in the national interest. This means that the legislative competence of the Parliament can be extended without amending the Constitution. Notably, this can be done when there is no emergency of any kind.

 

Q22. With reference to Public Interest Litigation (PIL), consider the following statements:

1. The concept of PIL originated and developed in the USA.
2. Under PIL only the affected parties have the locus standi to file a case for enforcement of rights.
3. Recently statutory provisions have been developed against frivolous PILs filed for personal gain, private profit or other oblique considerations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) None of the above

 

S22.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct: The concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) originated and developed in the USA in the 1960s. In the USA, it was designed to provide legal representation to previously unrepresented groups and interests.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The introduction of PIL in India was facilitated by the relaxation of the traditional rule of ‘locus standi’. According to this rule, only that person whose rights are infringed alone can move the court for the remedies, whereas, the PIL is an exception to this traditional rule. Under the PIL, any public-spirited citizen or a social organisation can move the court for the enforcement of the rights of any person or group of persons who because of their poverty or ignorance or socially or economically disadvantaged position are themselves unable to approach the court for the remedies.

Statement 3 is incorrect: There is no provision for legal action against frivolous PILs. However, the Supreme Court had also issued eight directions in its Balwant Singh Chaufal judgment to help constitutional courts separate genuine PIL petitions from the barmy ones. It had asked every High Court to frame its own rules to encourage bona fide PIL petitions and curb motivated ones.

 

Q23. What are the criteria that must be satisfied for identifying a particular tribal community as a Scheduled Tribes in India?

1. Ethnological traits.
2. Traditional Characteristics.
3. Distinctive Culture
4. Geographical isolation.
5. Backwardness.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

(c) 1, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

 

S23.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option(d) is correct: Recently, the communities approved for inclusion in the ST list are the Hatti tribe in the Trans-Giri area of Sirmour district in Himachal Pradesh, the hill tribes of Narikoravan and Kurivikkaran of Tamil Nadu, the Binjhia community in Chhattisgarh and the Gond community in certain districts of Uttar Pradesh. Criteria for identification: To establish whether a community is a Scheduled Tribe, the government looks at several criteria, including its ethnological traits, traditional characteristics, distinctive culture, geographical isolation and backwardness.

 

Q24. Consider the following statements:

1. Sundarban Bird Festival is the first-ever festival organized by the Sundarban Tiger Reserve (STR).
2. The Sunderban forest is the only mangrove forest in the world where tigers are found.

Select the correct statements using the codes given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S24.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Statement 1 and 2 are correct. Sundarban Bird Festival is the first-ever festival organized by the Sundarban Tiger Reserve (STR) division of the West Bengal Forest Department. The Sunderban forest is the only mangrove forest in the world where tigers are found.

 

Q25. Consider the following pairs of motions in the Indian parliament and their features:

Motion : Feature

1. Substantive Motion self-contained independent proposal dealing with important matter
2. Guillotine Closure motion both discussed and undiscussed parts of bills put to vote
3. Calling Attention Motion needs the support of 50 members to be admitted
4. Motion of Thanks the Prime Minister outlining the policies and programmes of the government at the start of first session each fiscal year

How many pairs have been matched correctly?

1. Only one pair
2. Only two pairs
3. Only three pairs
4. All the four pairs

 

S25.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option b is the correct answer.

Pair 1 is correctly matched: Substantive Motion is a self-contained independent proposal dealing with a very important matter like impeachment of the President or removal of Chief Election Commissioner.

Pair 2 is correctly matched: Guillotine Closure is one where the undiscussed clauses of a bill or a resolution are put to vote along with the discussed ones due to want of time.

Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Calling Attention Motion is introduced in the Parliament by a member (does not need 50 members support) to call the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance, and to seek an authoritative statement from him on that matter.

Pair 4 is incorrectly matched: The first session after each general election and the first session of every fiscal year is addressed by the president. In this address, the president (not Prime minister) outlines the policies and programmes of the government in the preceding year and ensuing year.

 

 

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