ଓଡିଶା ସିଭିଲ ସର୍ଭିସ୍ 2024 Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | November 3rd Week

With Adda 247 Odia’s General Awareness quizzes, you can build a solid foundation in General Awareness for the OPSC OCS Exam. Our quizzes are designed to enhance your knowledge, improve your retention and boost your confidence. Join us in your journey to success and excel in your OPSC OCS Exam!

 

Q1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha derives its power from which of the following?

1. The Constitution of India
2. The Parliamentary conventions
3. The Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S1.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option (d) is correct: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha derives his powers and duties from three sources, that is, the Constitution of India, the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha, and Parliamentary Conventions (residuary powers that are unwritten or unspecified in the Rules). The Speaker is the head of the Lok Sabha, and its representative. He is the guardian of powers and privileges of the members, the House as a whole and its committees. He is the principal spokesman of the House, and his decision in all Parliamentary matters is final. He is thus much more than merely the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha. In these capacities, he is vested with vast, varied and vital responsibilities and enjoys great honour, high dignity and supreme authority within the House.

 

Q2. The Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules of 2000 have been notified under which of the following Acts?

(a) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

(b) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981

(c) Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972

(d) The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974

S2.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option a is the correct answer. Noise is any unwanted sound that causes annoyance, irritation and pain to the human ear is termed ‘noise’. Noise pollution and its sources are regulated under The Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000 under The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The Act has defined ambient acceptable noise levels, silence zones, restrictions on the use of loudspeakers, horns, sound-emitting construction equipment, and bursting of crackers.

 

 Q3.Consider the following statements regarding Wholesale Price Index (WPI)

1. The present WPI base is 2004-05.
2. It excludes consumer durables and precious metals.
3. Highest weightage has been accorded to manufactured products in the index.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b)2 and 3

(c) 3 only

(d)1,2 and 3

 

S3.Ans.(c)

Sol.

There are three major groups in WPI – Primary Articles, Fuel & Power and Manufacture Products. Highest weightage has been accorded to the manufactured products. Consumer durables are a part of the manufactured products category. The WPI series base year, article composition and weightage has been revised to 2011-12 recently. The Office of the Economic Adviser takes the work relating to revision of the existing series of WPI.

 

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding Project Greensand

1. It will be the world’s first cross-border carbon storage project.
2. The project aims to capture vast amounts of carbon dioxide gas beneath the North Sea floor

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S4.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Project Greensand is a carbon storage project in Denmark’s North Sea. Project Greensand will be the world’s first cross-border carbon storage project. The project aims to bury vast amounts of planet-heating carbon dioxide gas beneath the North Sea floor. It hopes that it can help the Nordic nation and others meet climate targets. It reverses the traffic in the pipes by pumping CO2 into the depleted reservoir of the Nini West oil field in Denmark.

 

Q5. With reference to the Sulu Sea sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements:

1. It is the part of the Northern Atlantic Ocean.
2. It includes a group of volcanic islands.
3. The Tubbataha Reefs of Sulu Sea is a designated UNESCO World Heritage site.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3.

 

S5.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The mesosphere lies above the stratosphere, which extends up to a height of 80 km. In this layer, once again, temperature starts decreasing with the increase in altitude and reaches up to minus 100° C at the height of 80 km. The upper limit of mesosphere is known as the mesopause. The Ionosphere is part of Earth’s upper atmosphere, between 80 and about 600 km where Extreme UltraViolet (EUV) and x-ray solar radiation ionizes the atoms and molecules thus creating a layer of electrons. The ionosphere is important because it reflects and modifies radio waves used for communication and navigation.

Statement 1 is correct: Radio waves transmitted from the earth are reflected back to the earth by ionosphere.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Temperature here starts increasing with height.

 

Q6. With reference to Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements:

1. As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest.
2. The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S6.Ans.(c)

Sol.

• A convertible bond gives the holder the option to convert or exchange it for a predetermined number of shares in the issuing company. When issued, they act just like regular corporate bonds, albeit with a slightly lower interest rate. Because convertibles can be changed into stock and, thus, benefit from a rise in the price of the underlying stock, companies offer lower yields on convertibles. So, statement 1 is correct.
• One of the advantages of convertible bonds is that the option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices. So, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

 

Q7. Which of the following is part of the cryosphere?

1. Solid precipitation
2. Lake and river ice
3. Icebergs

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1,2 and 3

 

S7.Ans.(d)

Sol.

The term “cryosphere” traces its origins to the Greek word ‘kryos’ for frost or ice cold. The cryosphere is the part of the Earth‘s climate system that includes solid precipitation, snow, sea ice, lake and river ice, icebergs, glaciers and ice caps, ice sheets, ice shelves, permafrost, and seasonally frozen ground.

 

Q8. What is common to Red Vanda, Blue Vanda, Pitcher plant and Slipper Orchids?

(a) They all are extinct in wild as per IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.

(b) They are underwater plants found in the Gulf of Mannar.

(c) They all are part of Schedule VI of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

(d) They all are carnivorous plants found in North Eastern India.

 

S8.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Schedule VI of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 consists of plants prohibited for cultivation, collection, extraction and trade.

• They cover only Beddome’s Cycad, Blue vanda, Kuth, Ladies slipper orchids, Pitcher plant and Red vanda.

 

 Q9. Consider the following pairs:

Sl. No. Wetland/Lake Location

1. Hokera Wetland : Punjab
2. Renuka Wetland : Himachal Pradesh
3. Rudrasagar Lake : Tripura
4. Sasthamkotta Lake : Tamil Nadu

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d) All four pairs

 

S9.Ans.(b)

Sol.

• Hokera wetland is located in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir. It is located at the northwest Himalayan biogeopgraphic province of Kashmir, back of the snow-draped Pir Panchal. So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• Renuka Wetand is located in Himachal Pradesh. It is a natural wetland with freshwater springs and inland subterranean karst formations, fed by a small stream flowing from the lower Himalayan out to the Giri river. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
• Rudrasagar lake is located in Tripura. It is a lowland sedimentation reservoir in the northeast hills, fed by three perennial streams discharging to the River Gomti. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
• Sasthamkotta lake is located in Kerala. It is the largest freshwater lake in Kerala state in the southwest of the country, spring-fed and the source of drinking water for half a million people in the Kollam district. So, pair 4 is not correctly matched.

 

Q10. Consider the following:

1. Carbon monoxide
2. Nitrogen oxide
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide

Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4

 

S10.Ans.(b)

Sol.

• Acid rain refers to the ways in which acid from the atmosphere is deposited on the earth’s surface. Oxides of nitrogen and sulphur which are acidic in nature can be blown by wind along with solid particles in the atmosphere and finally settle down either on the ground as dry deposition or in water, fog and snow as wet deposition.
• Burning of fossil fuels (which contain sulphur and nitrogenous matter) such as coal and oil in power stations and furnaces or petrol and diesel in motor engines produce sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides. SO2 and NO2 after oxidation and reaction with water are major contributors to acid rain, because polluted air usually contains particulate matter that catalyse the oxidation. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

 

Q11. With reference to the Article 30 of Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1. The right to establish and administer educational institutions is not absolute.
2. The right conferred under Article 30 is intended to place the minorities in a more advantageous position vis-a-vis the majority.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None

 

S11.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option a is correct.

Statement 1 is correct: The right to establish and administer educational institutions is not absolute. Nor does it include the right to maladminister. There can be regulatory measures for ensuring educational character and standards and maintaining academic excellence. There can be checks on administration as are necessary to ensure that the administration is efficient and sound, so as to serve the academic needs of the institution.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The right conferred on minorities under Article 30 is only to ensure equality with the majority and not intended to place the minorities in a more advantageous position vis-a-vis the majority. There is no reverse discrimination in favour of minorities.

 

Q12. Consider the following statements with reference to Sea of Marmara sometimes seen in news:

1. It is part of the Russia.
2. It connects the Black Sea to the Aegean Sea.
3. Snake island lies in the sea of Marmara.

Which of the following statements

given above is/are correct:

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3.

 

S12.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Sea of Marmara lies between Thrace and Anatolia parts of Turkey, covering an area of over 11 thousand square kilometers (4247 square miles). It is approximately 280 kilometers (174 miles) long from northeast to southwest and about 80 kilometers (50 miles) wide at its greatest width. Its maximum depth reaches 1355 meters (4445 feet) near the center. Statement 2 is correct: Sea of Marmara is an inland sea within the Marmara region connecting to the Black Sea with the Bosphorus Strait in the northeast, and to the Aegean Sea with the Dardanelles Strait in the southwest.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Zmiinyi Island, also known as Snake or Serpent Island, is a small piece of rock less than 700 metres from end to end, that has been described as being “X-shaped”. It is located 35 km from the coast in the Black Sea, to the east of the mouth of the Danube and roughly southwest of the port city of Odessa.

 

 Q13. Which of the following statements about Fungi is/are incorrect?

1. They are prokaryotes having complex cellular organization.
2. Their cell wall is made of chitin which provides structure.
3. They digest their food externally.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S13.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Fungi are eukaryotes, and as such, have a complex cellular organisation. Being eukaryotes, a typical fungal cell contains a true nucleus, mitochondria, and a complex system of internal membranes, including the endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus.

Statements 2 and 3 are correct. While fungi can be multicellular or unicellular, all fungi have two things in common:

1. cell walls made of a tough polysaccharide, called chitin, which provides structure and
2. external digestion of food.

 

Q14. Consider the following statements about Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) NavIC:

1. It is a global navigation satellite system developed by India.
2. It is a part of the World-Wide Radio Navigation System for operation in the Indian Ocean Region. 3. NavIC satellites are placed at a higher orbit than the GPS of the United States.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S14.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) is a regional navigational satellite system using a combination of GEO and GSO spacecrafts and state-of-the-art ground systems. Statement 1 is incorrect. IRNSS is an independent regional navigation satellite system (not global) being developed by India. It is designed to provide accurate position information service to users in India as well as the region extending up to 1500 km from its boundary, which is its primary service area.

Statement 2 is correct. The Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) has been accepted as a component of the World-Wide Radio Navigation System (WWRNS) for operation in the Indian Ocean Region by the International Maritime Organisation(IMO). This will enable merchant vessels to use IRNSS for obtaining position information similar to GPS and GLONASS to assist in the navigation of ships in ocean waters within the area covered by 50°N latitude, 55°E longitude, 5°S latitude and 110°E longitude (approximately up to 1500 km from Indian boundary).

Statement 3 is correct. NavIC satellites are placed at a higher orbit than the GPS of the United States. NavIC satellites are placed in geostationary orbit (GEO) & geosynchronous orbit (GSO) with an altitude of about 36,000 km; GPS satellites are placed in medium earth orbit (MEO) with an altitude of about 20,000 km.

 

Q15. Which of the following is/are major components of the Deep Ocean Mission?

1. Development of Technologies for Deep Sea Mining, and Manned Submersible
2. Development of Ocean Climate Change Advisory Services
3. Energy and freshwater from the Ocean
4. Advanced Marine Station for Ocean Biology

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

S15.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option (d) is correct. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has approved the Deep Ocean Mission with a view to explore the deep ocean for resources and develop deep sea technologies for sustainable use of ocean resources. The Deep Ocean Mission consists of the following six major components:

•  Development of Technologies for Deep Sea Mining, and Manned Submersible
• Development of Ocean Climate Change Advisory Services
• Technological innovations for exploration and conservation of deep-sea biodiversity
• Deep Ocean Survey and Exploration x Energy and freshwater from the Ocean
• Advanced Marine Station for Ocean Biology

 

Q16. Aggregate Demand in an economy usually increases with an increase in

1. National Income
2. Investment
3. Government spending

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(a) 2 and 3

(a) 3 only

(a) 1,2 and 3

 

S16.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Under the effective demand principle, the equilibrium output of the final goods is equal to ex-ante aggregate demand. Thus, a basic equation used for determining aggregate demand is AD = Y = C I G, where C is usually an increasing function of national income. Y is the total output. Based on the above, if any of the factors are increased, it increases the AD.

 

 

Q17.Consider the following statements regarding Asiatic dhole

1.The Asiatic dhole is the only large carnivore in India that is under the International Union for Conservation of Nature’s ‘critically endangered category

2.It is protected under Schedule 2 of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972

3.Dholes play an important role as apex predators in forest ecosystems.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(a) 2 and 3

(a) 1 and 3

(a) 1,2 and 3

 

S17.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Dholes play an important role as apex predators in forest ecosystems. Besides tiger, the dhole is the only large carnivore in India that is under the International Union for Conservation of Nature’s ‘endangered’ category.

In India, the dhole is protected under Schedule 2 of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 and Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES): under Appendix II.

Historically, dholes purportedly occurred throughout southern Russia, all across central Asia, South Asia, and Southeast Asia. Dholes play an important role as apex predators in forest ecosystems.

Additional info:

The creation of reserves under Project Tiger provided some protection for dhole populations sympatric with tigers. In 2014, the Indian government sanctioned its first dhole conservation breeding centre at the Indira Gandhi Zoological Park (IGZP) in Visakhapatnam

 

Q18. Consider the following statements with respect to Marine heatwaves

1. It is a period of abnormally high temperatures relative to the average seasonal temperature in a particular region of a sea or ocean.
2. It lasts much longer than heatwaves at the surface.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(a) 2 only

(a) Both 1 and 2

(a) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S18.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Marine heatwaves

• Marine heat waves (MHW) are the heatwaves that form on oceans.
• It lasts much longer than heatwaves at the surface.
• These are periods of extremely high temperatures overseas and oceans.
• Such heat waves are caused by an increase in the heat content of oceans, especially in the upper lay ers.
• [Around 90% of the warming caused by greenhouse gas emissions is absorbed by the oceans.]
• During an MHW, the average temperatures of the ocean surface (up to a depth of 300 feet) go 5-7 degrees Celsius above normal.
• Impacts – Worldwide, they are one of the major results of human-induced global warming. · These MHW events cause habitat destruction due to coral bleaching, seagrass destruction, and loss of kelp forests, affecting the fisheries sector adversely.

 

Q19.Consider the following statements regarding Maize

1.It is predominantly a Kharif crop

2.India is the net exporter of Maize.

3.India is the largest producer of Maize in the world.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1,2 and 3

 

S19.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Maize, which is globally known as the queen of cereals,

In India, maize is grown throughout the year and it is predominantly a Kharif crop with 85 percent of the area under cultivation in the season.

The United States is the largest producer & exporter of maize in the world.

Maize is the third most important cereal crop in India after rice and wheat. The cereal crop is primarily cultivated in the states of Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Kerala, Bihar, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Maharashtra, and Andhra Pradesh.

Recently The export of maize has touched USD 816.31 million in the first ten months of the current fiscal 2021-22 (April-January), already exceeding the USD 634.85 million achieved during the last financial year which has made India a net exporter of maize.

 

Q20. Consider the following statements:

1. In proportional representation system all sections of the people get representation in proportion to their number.
2. In India the proportional representation system is adopted for the election of president and vice-president only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S20.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct: Under system of proportional representation, all sections of the people get representation in proportion to their number. Even the smallest section of the population gets its due share of representation in the legislature.

Statement 2 is incorrect: There are two kinds of proportional representation, namely, single transferable vote system and list system. In India, the first kind is adopted for the election of members to the Rajya Sabha and state legislative council and for electing the President and the Vice-President. Constitution has adopted the system of proportional representation in the case of Rajya Sabha, it has not preferred the same system in the case of Lok Sabha. Instead, it has adopted the system of territorial representation for the election of members to the Lok Sabha. Under territorial representation, every member of the legislature represents a geographical area known as a constituency. From each constituency, only one representative is elected. Hence such a constituency is known as single member constituency. In this system, a candidate who secures majority of votes is declared elected. This simple majority system of representation does not represent the whole electorate. In other words, it does not secure due representation to minorities (small groups).

 

Q21. The capital during the Pushyamitra reign was-

(a) Patliputra

(b) Vidisha

(c) Mathura

(d) Kushinagar

 

S21.Ans.(a)

Sol.

After the death of Asoka, his successors were not able to keep the vast Mauryan Empire intact. The provinces started declaring their independence. Northwest India slipped out of the control of the Mauryas and a series of foreign invasions affected this region. Kalinga declared its independence and in the further south, the Satavahanas established their independent rule. As a result, the Mauryan rule was confined to the Gangetic valley and it was soon replaced by the Sunga dynasty.

 

Q22. With reference to vegetative propagation, which of the following statements is/are incorrect? 1. This method allows plants to bear the flowers earlier than those produced from seeds.

2. It cannot produce plants genetically similar to the parent plant.
3. It can propagate plants that have lost the capacity to produce seeds.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

 

S22.Ans.(b)

Sol.

There are many plants in which parts like the root, stem and leaves develop into new plants under appropriate conditions. Unlike in most animals, plants can indeed use such a mode for reproduction. This property of vegetative propagation is used in methods such as layering or grafting to grow many plants like sugarcane, roses, or grapes for agricultural purposes. Statement 1 is correct: Plants raised by vegetative propagation can bear flowers and fruits earlier than those produced from seeds.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Another advantage of vegetative propagation is that all plants produced are genetically similar enough to the parent plant to have all its characteristics.

Statement 3 is correct: Such methods also make possible the propagation of plants such as such as banana, orange, rose and jasmine that have lost the capacity to produce seeds.

 

Q23. In the Economic Survey 2021-22, the term ‘Refined Core Inflation’ has been mentioned. In this context, which of the following statements best describes the term ‘Refined Core Inflation’?

(a) It is calculated by excluding the volatile food and fuel prices from overall inflation.

(b) It is calculated separately for major fuel items such as ‘petrol and diesel and other fuels for vehicle’.

(c) It excludes main fuel items, ‘food and beverages’ and ‘fuel and light’ from the headline retail inflation.

(d) It is inflation-related to all the goods, and services of an economy

 

S23.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option a is incorrect: Core inflation – It is inflation related to all the commodities, goods, and services in the economy minus the volatile food prices and fuel prices. It is more stable than headline inflation due to the absence of volatile commodities like food and petroleum.

Option b is incorrect: There is no such inflation calculation separately for major fuel items.

Option c is correct: Refined Core Inflation excludes main fuel items like, ‘petrol and diesel for vehicle’ and ‘lubricants and other fuels for vehicles’, in addition to ‘food and beverages’ and ‘fuel and light’ from the headline retail inflation. Refined core inflation is much below core inflation which shows that the impact of fuel in conventional core inflation is quite substantial.

Option d is incorrect Headline inflation- It is inflation related to all the economy’s commodities, goods, and services. The headline inflation includes inflation in a basket of goods that includes commodities like food and energy

 

Q24. Supply of money remaining the same when there is an increase in demand for money, there will be:

(a) a fall in the level of prices

(b) an increase in the rate of interest

(c) a decrease in the rate of interest

(d) an increase in the level of income and employment

 

S24.Ans.(b)

Sol.

If the demand increase when the supply is same, there will be a shortage, it will lead to an increase in prices. Similarly, when supply of money remains the same but the demand for it increases then there will be an increase in interest to be charged.

 

Q25. Which river is also known as Dakshina Pinakini in Kannada?

(a) Kaveri River

(b) Tungabhadra

(c) Pennaiyar River

(d) Tapi River

 

S25.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Pennaiyar River originates in the Nandi Hills in the Chikkaballapura district of Karnataka and flows through Tamil Nadu before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.

• It is also known as the South Pennar River, Dakshina Pinakini in Kannada and Thenpennai or Ponnaiyar or Pennaiyar in Tamil.

 

Official Links
Adda247 Odia website	Click Here
Download ADDA247 Odia APP	Click Here