Odisha Civil Services Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | July 1st Week 2023

The mock paper consists of a comprehensive set of questions that are framed in accordance with the syllabus prescribed by the OPSC. It aims to evaluate the candidates’ analytical and problem-solving abilities, as well as their familiarity with important concepts, events, and issues.

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Q1. In the context of the Chola and Pandya kingdoms, the word ‘vallalas’ was used for

1. The ruling caste
2. The peasants
3. Mercenaries in the armies
4. The seafarers

 

S1.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option a is incorrect. The ruling caste was called as arasar. Tolkappiyam refers to four castes namely arasar (Ruling Class), anthanar, vanigar (carried on trade and commerce), and vellalar (Agriculturists) Option b is correct. Under the Cholas and Pandyas, the peasants were called as vallalas. They constituted the fourth caste. They owned most of the land and were again divided into rich and poor. Civil and military offices were held by rich vallalas. Option c is incorrect. The people in charge of border security were generally called Nagar. The captains in the army were given the title of enadi.

Option d is incorrect. The seafarers were called Thiraiyars. They played an important role in increasing contact of southern India with the outside world.

The lowest caste was called kadaisiyar. Thus, the social inequalities were sharp in the age of Sangam. But the acute caste distinctions which were there in the later period were absent in the early Sangam age

 

 

 

 

Q2. Arrange The following Core Industries in decreasing order of their weightage

1. Petroleum
2. Electricity
3. Cement
4. Coal

Select the correct code from below:

1. 1>2>4>3
2. 2>1>4>3
3. 1>2>3>4
4. 2>1>3>4

S2.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Eight core industries’ weightage

The eight Core Industries in decreasing order of their weightage: Refinery Products> Electricity> Steel> Coal> Crude Oil> Natural Gas> Cement> Fertilizers.

 

 

Q3. Participants in the call/notice money market currently include

1. Primary Dealers (PDs)
2. development finance institutions
3. insurance companies
4. mutual fund companies

Select correct code:

1. 1 and 3
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 4
4. 1,2,3 and 4

 

 

S3.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Participants in the call/notice money market currently include banks, Primary Dealers (PDs), development finance institutions, insurance companies, and select mutual funds (Annex I). Of these, banks and PDs can operate both as borrowers and lenders in the market. Non-bank institutions, which have been given specific permission to operate in the call/notice money market can, however, operate as lenders only (Table 1).

 

 

Q4. With reference to predation, consider the following statements:

1. Predators act as conduits for energy transfer across trophic levels.
2. Phytophagous are animals eating predators.
3. Predator helps in phenomenon of Trophic cascades.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

 

 

S4.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct: Predation is considered as nature’s way of transferring to higher trophic levels the energy fixed by plants. Although animals eating plants are categorised separately as herbivores, they are, in a broad ecological context, not very different from predators. Besides acting as ‘conduits’ for energy transfer across trophic levels, predators play other important roles. They keep prey populations under control. But for predators, prey species could achieve very high population densities and cause ecosystem instability.

Statement 3 is correct: Trophic cascades are powerful indirect interactions that can control entire ecosystems. Trophic cascades occur when predators limit the density and/or behavior of their prey and thereby enhance survival of the next lower trophic level.

Statements 2 is incorrect: Nearly 25 per cent of all insects are known to be phytophagous (feeding on plant sap and other parts of plants). The problem is particularly severe for plants because, unlike animals, they cannot run away from their predators. Plants therefore have evolved an astonishing variety of morphological and chemical defences against herbivores. Thorns (Acacia, Cactus) are the most common morphological means of defence. Many plants produce and store chemicals that make the herbivore sick when they are eaten, inhibit feeding or digestion, disrupt its reproduction or even kill it.

 

 

Q5. Which of the following statement regarding Kyoto Protocol is incorrect?

(a) It entered into force in February 2005.

(b) It recognized the principle of Nationally determined contributions.

(c) It sets binding emission reduction targets.

(d) It aims to establish flexible market mechanisms based on the trade of emissions permits.

S5.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option (a) is correct: The Kyoto Protocol was adopted on 11 December 1997 Owing to a complex ratification process, it entered into force on 16 February 2005. Currently, there are 192 Parties to the Kyoto Protocol. Option (b) is incorrect: The Paris Agreement and NDCs: Nationally determined contributions (NDCs) are at the heart of the Paris Agreement and the achievement of these long-term goals. NDCs embody efforts by each country to reduce national emissions and adapt to the impacts of climate change.

Option (c) is correct: The Kyoto Protocol sets binding emission reduction targets for 37 industrialized countries and economies in transition and the European Union. Overall, these targets add up to an average 5 per cent emission reduction compared to 1990 levels over the five-year period 2008–2012 (the first commitment period).

Option (d) is correct: One important element of the Kyoto Protocol was the establishment of flexible market mechanisms, which are based on the trade of emissions permits. Under the Protocol, countries must meet their targets primarily through national measures. However, the Protocol also offers them an additional means to meet their targets by

way of three market-based mechanisms.

Q6. Consider the following statements :

1. It is located on the bank of the Pushpavati river
2. It was built during the reign of Chalukya King Bhima I
3. It has been constructed in accordance with the shilpasastra

The above statements are about which of the below temple ?

(a) Konark Sun Temple

(b) Mahakaleshwar Temple

(c) Virupaksha Temple

(d) Modhera Sun Temple

S6.Ans.(d)

Sol.

The temple at Modhera is the most important of all sun temples built in the whole of Gujarat. It enjoys the same significance as other two well-known sun temples in Kashmir (Martand) and Orissa (Konark). Modhera stands 24 km south of Anahitapataka (Patan) on the left bank of the Pushpavati river. It was constructed during the reign of Chalukya King Bhima I (1022-1063 A.D.) It has been constructed following the shilpasastra. (Shilpa Shastras literally means the Science of Shilpa. It is an ancient umbrella term for numerous Hindu texts that describe arts, crafts, and their design rules, principles, and standards). The whole structure standing on a kharasila (basement) consisted of the garbhagrha (shrines) and Guha- mandapa (a hall), a Sabha-mandapa or ranga-mandapa (assembly hall or outer hall/theatre hall), locally known as Sita Chavadi. In front of the temple is the kunda (sacred pond) now called the Ramakunda. So, Option (d) is correct.

 

Q7. With reference to the history of modern India, the Chatfield Committee was associated with:

1. British policy towards Princely states.
2. modernising and streamlining Indian defence.
3. reforming Civil Services.
4. regulating rupee- sterling exchange ratio.

 

 

S7.Ans.(b)

Sol.

The period of the 1930s was a period of severe financial crisis for Indian defence. The continued

Financial stringency over the years had made India’s position extremely vulnerable and general war reserves were running dangerously low. Also, new equipment was not easy to come by, the coastal defence remained neglected and the deficiency of officers was more than serious. It was in these conditions that the Chatfield Committee was set up to suggest a plan for modernising and streamlining Indian defence.

         

   Q8. Consider the following pairs regarding the Indian defence exercises and participating countries: Exercise Country

1. Ex-Dharma Guardian Nepal
2. Ex-Sampriti Thailand
3. Mitra Shakti Sri Lanka 4. Maitree Japan

How many of the pairs given about is/are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d) All four pairs

 

 

S8.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Pair one is incorrectly matched: Ex DHARMA GUARDIAN-2022, an annual exercise between Indian Army and Japanese Ground Self Defence Force culminated after intense joint military training, providing a unique opportunity of achieving synergy between Armed Forces of both the Nations.

Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Exercise SAMPRITI is an important bilateral defence cooperation endeavour conducted alternately by India and Bangladesh.

Pair 3 is correctly matched: The 8th Edition of India Sri Lanka bilateral joint Exercise Mitra Shakti was conducted in Sri Lanka. Indian Army has participated in the exercise along with a battalion of the Sri Lankan Army.

Pair 4 is incorrectly matched: Exercise MAITREE is an annual training event which is being conducted alternatively in Thailand and India since 2006.

 

Q9. With reference to the Election Commission of India, which of the following statements are correct?

1. The two posts of election commissioners were abolished in 1990.
2. The chief election commissioner and the two other election commissioners have equal powers and receive an equal salary.
3. The Constitution has debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S9.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option b is the correct answer.

The Election Commission is a permanent and an independent body established by the Constitution of India directly to ensure free and fair elections in the country. Article 324 of the Constitution provides that the power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to parliament, state legislatures, the office of president of India and the office of vice-president of India shall be vested in the election commission.

Statement 1 is correct. Since its inception in 1950 and till 15 October 1989, the election commission functioned as a single member body consisting of the Chief Election Commissioner. In 1989, the president appointed two more election commissioners to cope with the increased work of the election commission on account of lowering of the voting age from 21 to 18 years. However, the two posts of election were abolished in January 1990 and the Election Commission was reverted to the earlier position. Again, in October 1993, the president appointed two more election commissioners. Since then and till today, the Election Commission has been functioning as a multi-member body consisting of three election commissioners.

Statement 2 is correct. The chief election commissioner and the two other election commissioners have equal powers and receive equal salary, allowances and other perquisites, which are similar to those of a judge of the Supreme Court.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government.

 

Q10. Which of the following is the correct description of the terms ‘Kshaharatas’ and ‘Kardamakas’?

1. Coins of Satavahana rulers
2. Dynasties of Saka-Kshatrapa rulers
3. Taxes levied by Gupta Rulers
4. Titles of Mayuran Rulers

 

S10.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option b is the correct answer. The Kshaharatas and Kardamakas are two important dynasties/lines of Kshatrapa rulers who were Indo- Scythian (Saka) rulers of the western and central part of India.

Kshaharatas dynasty- The prominent rulers of this dynasty are-Bhumaka and Nahapana. Another name, Aghudaka or Abhedaka is also known from coins, who also bears the family name Kshaharata on his coins. Bhumaka seems to have originally owed allegiance to Kanishka. His coins with legends in Brahmi and Kharosthi have been found in coastal Gujarat; some also could be traced in Malwa and Ajmer area. Bhumaka was immediately succeeded by Nahapana as his copper coins were of the same type as issued by Bhumaka. Kardamaka dynasty- The Kardamakas dynasty rulers are another line of the Shaka kshatrapas who ruled western India after the Kshaharatas dynasty came to an end. The prominent rulers of this dynasty are- Chashtana, Founder of the Kardamaka dynasty and Rudradaman I, the most important ruler of the Kardamaka family. During his reign the Saka power experienced a major expansion.

 

 

Q11. Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to the Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) technology ?

(a) It is a technology to distribute sets of instructions to quantum computers to execute tasks

(b) It mitigates correction in the quantum errors to improve the performance, size, and reliability of a quantum computer.

(c) It ensures secure communication between two parties using a cryptographic protocol involving components of quantum mechanics

(d) It explains and predicts the behaviour of atoms and molecules in a way that redefines our understanding of nature.

S11.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) is primarily a mechanism to undertake secure communication, which utilizes a cryptographic protocol involving various components of quantum mechanics. The Quantum Key Distribution technology enables two communicating sides to come up with random secret keys shared by both of them and known exclusively to them, so only they can use it to encrypt and decrypt messages, thus achieving a very highly-secure communication. So, Option (c) is correct.

Q12. Peninsular Hills are of the relict type, being remnants of the originally higher hills but some typical horsts are also seen. In this context, consider the following statements:

1. Bharner and Kaimur hills form the eastern part of the Satpura Range.
2. Dhupgarh near Panchmarhi on Mahadev Hills is the highest peak of the Vindhyan range.
3. Tapti originates from the Amarkantak plateau.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) None of the above

S12.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Kaimur hills form the eastern part of the Vindhyan Range. Statement 2 is incorrect: Dhupgarh (1,350 m) near Pachmarhi on Mahadev Hills is the highest peak of Satpura. Statement 3 is incorrect: Tapti River originates in the Betul plateau.

Q13. Consider the following statements with reference to the Quantum Dot Organic Light-Emitting Diode(QD-OLED)displays :

1. It uses quantum dots which are tiny semiconductor nanocrystals
2. It has a high contrast ratio compared to a traditional display

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

S13.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Quantum Dot Organic Light-Emitting Diode display QD-OLED, a self-luminous display that uses Quantum Dots (QD), the tiny semiconductor Nanocrystals. These Nano crystals glow a specific color and are activated by light. These are brighter, more realistic and more accurate images in color reproduction and provide a comfortable viewing experience by controlling blue light exposure. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Quantum dots can attain higher levels of brightness and has high contrast ratio. A Contrast ratio refers to the difference between a monitor’s minimum brightness and maximum brightness. A Traditional Display has a contrast ratio of 1,00,000:1, and the Quantum Display has the high contrast ratio of 10,00,000:1. Thus, the Quantum Display has high contrast ratio because of the Darker black color expression. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Q14.Consider the following statements

1. As of April 2022, India is the world’s second-largest producer of crude steel.
2. Steel Authority of India Limited is the largest steel-making company in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

S14.Ans.(c)

Sol.

India has emerged as the second-largest producer of crude steel, with an output of 10.14 MT, as of April 2022. In Financial Year 2022, the production of crude steel and finished steel stood at 133.596 MT and 120.01 MT, respectively. The growth in the Indian steel sector has been driven by the domestic availability of raw materials such as iron ore and cost-effective labour. Consequently, the steel sector has been a major contributor to India’s manufacturing output. So, Statement 1 is correct. Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) is the largest steel-making company in India and one of the seven Maharatnas of the country’s Central Public Sector Enterprises. The company produces iron and steel at five integrated plants and three special steel plants, located principally in the eastern and central regions of India and situated close to domestic sources of raw materials. SAIL manufactures and sells a broad range of steel products. So, Statement 2 is correct.

 

 

Q15. Sparrows Point, Morisville, Scun Thorpe and Port Talbot, are the important industrial centres in different parts of the world. These centres are best known for

(a) Iron & Steel Industry

(b) Cotton Textile Industry

(c) Information and Technological Parks

(d) pharmaceutical Industry

 

 

S15.Ans.(a)

Sol.

• Sparrows Point, Morisville, Scun Thorpe and Port Talbot are important industrial centres best known for the Iron and Steel Industry. In the U.S.A, most of the production comes from the northern Appalachian region (Pittsburgh), Great Lake region (Chicago-Gary, Erie, Cleveland, Lorain, Buffalo and Duluth) and the Atlantic Coast (Sparrows Point and Morisville).
• In Europe, the U.K., Germany, France, Belgium, Luxembourgh, the Netherlands and Russia are the leading producers. The important steel centres are Scun Thorpe, Port Talbot, Birmingham and Sheffield in the U.K.; Duisburg, Dortmund, Dusseldorf and Essen in Germany; Le Creusot and St. Ettienne in France; and Moscow, St. Petersburgh, Lipetsk, Tula, in Russia and Krivoi Rog, and Donetsk in Ukraine.
• In Asia, the important centres include Nagasaki and Tokyo-Yokohama in Japan; Shanghai, Tienstin and Wuhan in China; and Jamshedpur, Kulti-Burnpur, Durgapur, Rourkela, Bhilai, Bokaro, Salem, Visakhapatnam and Bhadravati in India.

       

Q16.Consider the following statements regarding the Peninsular Plateau of India:

1. The plateau region lying to the north of the Narmada River is known Central Highlands which is wider in the west and narrower in the east.
2. The Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats mark the western and eastern edges of the Deccan Plateau respectively.
3. The eastern extension of peninsular plateau includes Mahadev, the Kaimur hills and the Maikal range

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S16.Ans.(d)

Sol.

All statements are correct.

Peninsular Plateau of India

The Peninsular plateau has broad and shallow valleys and rounded hills. This plateau consists of two broad divisions, namely, the Central Highlands and the Deccan Plateau. The part of the peninsular plateau lying to the north of the Narmada River, covering a major area of the Malwa plateau, is known as the Central Highlands. The Vindhyan range is bounded by the Satpura range on the south and the Aravallis on the northwest. The Central Highlands are wider in the west but narrower in the east. The Deccan Plateau is a triangular landmass that lies to the south of the river Narmada. The Satpura range flanks its broad base in the north, while the Mahadev, the Kaimur hills and the Maikal range forms its eastern extensions. The Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats mark the western and the eastern edges of the Deccan Plateau respectively. Western Ghats lie parallel to the western coast. They are continuous and can be crossed through passes only.

 

 

  Q17. Consider the following statements regarding Non-profit organisation (NPO) guidelines for India’s social stock exchange (SSE):

5. NPOs are allowed to raise money through SSE using private placement or public issue, or donations from mutual funds.
6. NPOs are not allowed to raise money through instruments in the nature of zero coupon bonds (ZCBs)

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

 

S17.Ans.(a)

Sol.

NPOs can raise money either through issuance of Zero Coupon Zero Principal (ZCZP) Instruments from private placement or public issue, or donations from mutual funds. It is mandatory that the NPO is registered with the SSE for facilitating the issuance of ZCBs. The instrument must have a specific tenure and can only be issued for a specific project or activity that is to be completed within a specified duration as mentioned in the fund-raising document (to be submitted to the SSE). The minimum issue size is presently prescribed as Rs 1 crore and minimum application size for subscription at Rs 2 lakhs for ZCZP issuance. The NPO may choose to register on the SSE and not raise funds through it but via other means. However, they would have to make necessary disclosures about the same.

 

Q18. Consider the following statements regarding ports:

1. Ports of Call are collection centers where goods are brought from different countries for export.
2. Packet stations are exclusively concerned with the transportation of passengers and mail across water bodies covering short distances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

S18.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Types of port on the basis of specialized functions:

o Oil Ports: These ports deal in the processing and shipping of oil. Some of these are tanker ports and some are refinery ports. Maracaibo in Venezuela, Esskhira in Tunisia, and Tripoli in Lebanon are tanker ports. Abadan on the Gulf of Persia is a refinery port.

o Ports of Call: These are the ports that originally developed as calling points on main sea routes where ships used to anchor for refueling, watering, and taking food items. Later on, they developed into commercial ports. Aden, Honolulu, and Singapore are good examples. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

o Packet Station: These are also known as ferry ports. These packet stations are exclusively concerned with the transportation of passengers and mail across water bodies covering short distances. These stations occur in pairs located in such a way that they face each other across the water body, e.g. Dover in England and Calais in France across the English Channel. Hence statement 2 is correct.

o Entrepot Ports: These are collection centers where the goods are brought from different countries for export. Singapore is an entrepot for Asia. Rotterdam for Europe, and Copenhagen for the Baltic region.

o Naval Ports: These are ports that have only strategic importance. These ports serve warships and have repair workshops for them. Kochi and Karwar are examples of such ports in India.

Q19. Consider the following statements with respect to Spices Board India

1. The Board was constituted in 1987 under the Spices Board Act 1986.
2. It functions under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
3. Tobacco and Rubber were also brought under the purview of Spices Board.
4. The Board has set targets to achieve $10 billion in spice exports by 2030.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 4 only
3. 1, 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

S19.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Spices Board India Spices Board India has recently celebrated its 36th Anniversary.

• Spices Board India is the flagship organization for the development and worldwide promotion of Indian spices.
• It functions under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
• India produces a wide range of spices and holds a prominent position in world spice production.
• In reality almost all the states and union territories of India grow one or the other spices.
• Under the act of Parliament, a total of 52 spices are brought under the purview of Spices Board.
• Spices Board has been strategizing to achieve 10 Billion US Dollar in the exports of Spices by 2030.
• There are five statutory Commodity Boards under the Department of Commerce. 1. Tea Board 2. Coffee Board 3. Spices Board 4. Rubber Board 5. Tobacco Board

 

Q20. Consider the following statements:

1. Retroviruses have double-stranded DNA genomes instead of RNA.
2. Human endogenous retroviruses make up more than fifty percent of human DNA.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

 

S20.Ans.(d)

Sol.

According to new research, remnants of ancient viral pandemics in the form of viral DNA sequences embedded in our genomes are still active in healthy people.

• Retrovirus is a type of virus that has RNA instead of DNA as its genetic material. RNA viruses have genes encoded in RNA instead of DNA. Many retroviruses have been identified that infect non-human animals. Only a few retroviruses are known to cause illness in human beings, however. The most well- known of these is HIV. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• HERVs, or human endogenous retroviruses, make up around 8% of the human genome. They represent footprints of previous retroviral infections and have been termed “fossil viruses”. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Like modern HIV, these ancient retroviruses had to insert their genetic material into their host’s genome to replicate. Usually, this kind of viral genetic material isn’t passed down from generation to generation.
• But some ancient retroviruses gained the ability to infect germ cells, such as egg or sperm, that do pass their DNA down to future generations. By targeting germ cells, these retroviruses became incorporated into human ancestral genomes over the course of millions of years.

Q21. Consider the following pairs : Fossil Parks Location

1. Marine Gondwana Fossil Park – Chattisgarh
2. Akal Fossil Wood Park – Gujarat
3. Siwalik Fossil Park – Uttarakhand
4. Bhojunda Stromatolite Park – Rajasthan How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs . 48

(d) All four pairs

S21.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Marine Gondwana Fossil Park is located at Manendragarh, Sarguja district in Chattisgarh is a unique exposure of fossiliferous marine Permian rocks of the Talchir Formation belonging to the Gondwana Supergroup. So, Pair 1 is correct. Akal Fossil Wood Park is located in the Jaisalmer District of Rajasthan. The area is located near Akal, 18 km South East from Jaisalmer on the NH-15. So, Pair 2 is not correct. Siwalik Fossil Park is located at Saketi, Sirmur District in Himachal Pradesh contains a rich collection of 2.5 million years old vertebrate fossils from Siwaliks. It covers an area of about 1.5 sq. km at Saketi, in the Markanda valley of Sirmur district, H.P., and was built to check indiscriminate destruction of fossil bones. So, Pair 3 is not correct. Stromatolite Park, Bhojunda, is located in the Chittaurgarh District of Rajasthan, and it is an exposure to the massive Bhagwanpura Limestone of the Lower Vindhyan age. Stromatolites are structures produced by blue-green algae, which through their filaments, attract and bond carbonate particles forming a mat. So, Pair 4 is correct.

 

Q22. With reference to budget of Union Government of India, which of the following are considered as the components of capital expenditure?

1. Investment in equities by the Government
2. Grants given to state governments for creation of assets
3. Loans given to the foreign nations
4. Investment on building of roads and ports

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

S22.Ans.(b)

Sol.

option b is the correct answer.

Option 1 is correct. Capital expenditure is the money spent on the acquisition of assets like land, buildings, machinery, equipment, as well as investment in shares or equities.

Option 2 is incorrect. All those expenditures that are incurred by the government for purposes other than the creation of physical or financial assets are called revenue expenditures. Grants given to states including for creation of assets is considered as revenue expenditure by the Union government as it doesn’t result in creating any assets for the Union government. Other revenue expenditures are Salaries, wages, pensions, subsidies, interest payments.

Option 3 is correct. Loans given to foreign nations, or any entity are treated as assets of the government because they accrue income in the form of interest. Additionally, the recipient of loan (unlike grants) are bound to repay the amount hence it is considered as assets. Hence the loans are capital expenditure.

Option 4 is correct. Government by spending on infrastructure creates an asset for the country. For example, government’s investment on building roads and ports creates financial assets and supports economic activity in the country. So, they are components of capital expenditure.

Q23.  Consider the following statements regarding UN High Seas Treaty

1. It is also referred to as the ‘Paris Agreement for the Ocean’.
2. The treaty is legally binding and aims to protect marine life in international waters.

Select the correct answer using the code below

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S23.Ans.(c)

Sol.

About UN High Seas Treaty: • The UN High Seas Treaty is the first-ever treaty to protect the world’s oceans outside national boundaries. • It is also referred to as the ‘Paris Agreement for the Ocean’. • The treaty is legally binding and aims to protect marine life in international waters. • Its goal is to establish protected areas covering 30% of the seas by 2030, a pledge made by countries at the UN biodiversity conference in 2022. • The treaty provides a legal framework for creating marine protected areas (MPAs) to safeguard wildlife and share genetic resources of the high seas. • It covers environmental assessments to evaluate potential damage from commercial activities, like deep-sea mining. • The treaty establishes a conference of the parties (CoP) that meets periodically to hold member states accountable for governance and biodiversity issues. • Signatories of the treaty pledge to share ocean resources. • The UN High Seas Treaty is built on the legacy of the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), the last international agreement on ocean protection signed in 1982. UNCLOS established an area called the high seas.

 

Q24. Consider the following statements :

1. The Accelerating to Zero coalition (A2Z) was launched at COP27.
2. It amplifies the progress in ZEVs (Zero Emission Vehicles) and promotes zero air pollution all over the earth.
3. India is not a signatory to A2Z.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

S24.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Accelerating to Zero (A2Z) Coalition was launched at the conference of parties (COP27) as the next step to secure more ambitious commitments to zero-emission vehicles transition aligned with the Paris Agreement. The A2Z Coalition connects the world’s leading organizations on zero-emission transportation, creating a platform to support understanding, developing, and implementing ambitious zero-emission transportation policies and plans and showcasing leadership. So, Statement 1 is correct.

The A2Z Coalition will provide a platform to support coordination between leading initiatives, signpost to implementation support for signatories to access, amplify the progress being made as well as the continued urgency to advance the transition from polluting vehicles to ZEVs, whereby promotion of zero air pollution all over the earth is not the mandate of A2Z Coalition. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

India is a signatory to the Accelerating to Zero coalition (A2Z) under the category of Governments in Emerging Markets and Developing Economies. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

 

Q25. “Prunus dinabandhuana”, sometimes seen in the news recently is related to :

(a) A new species of Eel was discovered among specimens collected from fishing harbours in Kerala

and West Bengal

(b) A new species of Cherry Blossom discovered in Manipur

(c) The world’s smallest cetacean and the most endangered marine mammal

(d) A rare butterfly sighted for the first time in Tamil Nadu

 

S25.Ans.(b)

Sol.

The newly discovered eel belongs to the congrid eels group and has been named Ariosoma Maurostigma (Two-spot short-tail conger). The species name was derived from two Greek words – ‘Mauro’, which means . 27 dark, and ‘stigma’, which means mark, referring to the dark black mark on the posterodorsal margin of the eyes. So, Option (a) is not correct. In Manipur, a new species of Cherry Blossom has been found. Scientists have named it “Prunus Dinabandhuana” to honour scientist and to the contributions of scientist Dr Dinabandhu Sahoo. Cherry Blossom, or Sakura is the national flower of Japan. India became the 28th country in the world to be included in the Sakura map. So, Option (b) is correct. The vaquita is the most endangered cetacean in the world. With as few as around 10 left, the species will become extinct without a fully enforced gillnet ban throughout their entire habitat. The vaquita porpoise is the world’s smallest marine mammal and is believed to be on the brink of extinction, with 10 or fewer still living in Mexico’s Gulf of California, their sole habitat. So, Option (c) is not correct. The members of the Rhopalocera and Odonata Association of Rajapalayam (ROAR) sighted the rare butterfly Palmking at Coutrallam in Tenkasi district for the first time in Tamil Nadu. The unique woody species was earlier seen only in Kerala. So, Option (d) is not correct.