Can I attempt Odisha Civil Services Prelims GS Mock Paper-I for OCS 2023?

Yes, you can attempt Odisha Civil Services Prelims GS Mock Paper-I.

Odisha Civil Services Prelims GS Mock Paper-I

The mock paper consists of a comprehensive set of questions that are framed in accordance with the syllabus prescribed by the OPSC. It aims to evaluate the candidates’ analytical and problem-solving abilities, as well as their familiarity with important concepts, events, and issues.

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Q1. Consider the following statements:

The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

S1.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Council of Ministers includes the three categories of ministers, that is, Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State, and Deputy Ministers. Its size and classification are, however, not mentioned in the Constitution. Its classification into a three-tier body is based on the conventions of parliamentary government as developed in Britain. It has, however, got a legislative sanction. The Salaries and Allowances Act of 1952 defines a ‘minister’ as a ‘member of the council of ministers, by whatever name called, and includes a deputy minister’. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 has made provisions to limit the size of Council of Ministers. The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister in the Central Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 per cent of the total strength of the Lok Sabha. So, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer

Q2 . With reference to Web 3-0, consider the following statements:

Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data.
In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain based social networks.
Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

S2.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Web 3.0 represents the next iteration or phase of the evolution of the web/internet and potentially could be as disruptive and represent as big a paradigm shift as Web 2.0 did. Web 3.0 is built upon the core concepts of decentralization, openness, and greater user utility. Features of Web3.0 are given below –
Decentralization is a core tenet of Web 3.0. In Web 2.0, computers use HTTP in the form of unique web addresses to find information, which is stored at a fixed location, generally on a single server. With Web 3.0, because information would be found based on its content, it could be stored in multiple locations simultaneously and hence be decentralized. This would break down the massive databases currently held by internet giants like Meta and Google and would hand greater control to users. With Web 3.0, the data generated by disparate and increasingly powerful computing resources, including mobile phones, desktops, appliances, vehicles, and sensors, will be sold by users through decentralized data networks, ensuring that users retain ownership control. So, statements 1 and 3 is correct.
In addition to decentralization and being based upon open-source software, Web 3.0 will allow participants to interact directly without going through a trusted intermediary and anyone can participate without authorization from a governing body. As a result, Web 3.0 applications will run on blockchains or decentralized peer-to-peer networks. So, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer

Q3. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee.
An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

S3.Ans.(a)

Sol.

NEER is a measure of the value of a currency against a weighted average of several foreign currencies. An increase in NEER indicates an appreciation of the local currency against the weighted basket of currencies of its trading partners.

The nominal exchange rate is the amount of domestic currency needed to purchase foreign currency.

REER is the real effective exchange rate (a measure of the value of a currency against a weighted average of several foreign currencies) divided by a price deflator or index of costs. The weights are determined by comparing the relative trade balance of a country’s currency against that of each country in the index. An increase in a nation’s REER is an indication that its exports are becoming more expensive and its imports are becoming cheaper. This results in losing its trade competitiveness

An increase in REER implies that exports become more expensive and imports become cheaper; therefore, an increase indicates a loss in trade competitiveness.

Q4. Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing”?

Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound
Non-inclusion of ecological/environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country
Ignoring the disastrous ecological consequences while undertaking infrastructure development
Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/programme

S4.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Greenwashing is the process of conveying a false impression or providing misleading information about how a company’s products are more environmentally sound. Greenwashing is considered an unsubstantiated claim to deceive consumers into believing that a company’s products are environmentally friendly. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q5.With reference to ENSO, consider the following statements:

La Nina is the “cool phase” of El Nino-Southern Oscillation (ENSO).
El Nino reduces the instances of hurricanes in the Atlantic.
With the Arctic becoming seasonally ice-free, the frequency of strong El Nino events increases significantly.

Which of the above statements is /arecorrect?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

S5.Ans.(d)

Sol.

El Niño is a complex weather pattern that occurs when surface water in the central and eastern Pacific Ocean becomes warmer than average and east winds blow weaker than normal. The events, which typically occur every few years, can produce unusual and, sometimes dangerous, weather conditions around the world including droughts, floods and severe storms.

El Nino and La Nina are the warm and cool phases of a recurring climate pattern across the tropical Pacific—the El Nino-Southern Oscillation, or “ENSO”.
El Niño favours stronger hurricane activity in the central and eastern Pacific basins, and suppresses it in the Atlantic basin on the other hand La Niña suppresses hurricane activity in the central and eastern Pacific basins, and enhances it in the Atlantic basin.
The Atlantic basin, the amplified trough is associated with stronger upper-level westerly winds and stronger lower-level easterly trade winds, both of which increase the vertical wind shear and suppress hurricane activity. To enhanced vertical wind shear, El Nino suppresses Atlantic hurricane activity by increasing the amount of sinking motion and increasing the atmospheric stability.
This rapid melting of Artic ice is not just disruptive to surrounding coastal cities and small island nations; it also may have a lasting impact on global weather patterns. Researchers have found out that if Arctic becomes seasonally ice-free, the frequency of strong El Niño events increases significantly.

Q6.With reference to the Inter-State Water Disputes Act, consider the following statements:

It empowers the Central government to set up an ad hoc tribunal for the adjudication of a dispute between two or more states in relation to the inter- state river.
The decision of the tribunal would be final and binding on the parties to the dispute.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

S6.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option (b) is correct:

Article 262 of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of inter-state water disputes. It makes two provisions:

Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution and control of waters of any inter-state river and river valley.
Parliament may also provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court is to exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint.

Under this provision, the Parliament has enacted two laws [the River Boards Act (1956) and the Inter-State Water Disputes Act (1956)]. The River Boards Act provides for the establishment of river boards for the regulation and development of inter-state river and river valleys. A river board is established by the Central government on the request of the state governments concerned to advise them. The Inter-State Water Disputes Act empowers the Central government to set up an ad hoc tribunal for the adjudication of a dispute between two or more states in relation to the waters of an inter-state river or river valley. The decision of the tribunal would be final and binding on the parties to the dispute. Neither the Supreme Court nor any other court is to have jurisdiction in respect of any water dispute which may be referred to such a tribunal under this Act.

Q7.Consider the following statements regarding hydrogen fuel:

It has zero tailpipe emissions.
It provides a lower drive range to the vehicles.
Hydrogen can be produced from water through electrolysis.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

S7.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct: Hydrogen is known to be the cleanest fuel used for powering vehicles as it has zero tailpipe emissions. Hydrogen is abundant in our environment. It’s stored in water (H2O), hydrocarbons (such as methane, CH4), and other organic matter. One challenge of using hydrogen as a fuel is efficiently extracting it from these compounds.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Hydrogen can be a practical option for long-distance vehicles because of its light weight and high energy. Hydrogen-powered vehicles have a higher drive range. They consume 50 percent less fuel than conventional fuels.

Statement 3 is correct: Hydrogen can be produced from water through electrolysis. There are other ways of making hydrogen — by splitting water (electrolysis), reforming methanol and ammonia, and using microbes to convert biomass into the gas but these technologies are neither mature nor cheap.

Q8. With reference to the military exercises across the nations, consider the following statements:

Exercise Pitch Black is a biennial exercise hosted by Britain’s Royal Air Force.
Malabar exercise started as a trilateral exercise between the navies of US, India and Japan.

Which of the above statements is/are not correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) None of the above

S8.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Statement 1 is not Correct: Exercise Pitch Black is hosted by Australian Air Force at its Darwin Air Base. The 2022 version of the exercise saw the participation of 17 Air Forces including that of India and over 2500 military personnel.

Statement 2 is not Correct: Malabar is a multilateral war-gaming naval exercise that was started in 1992. It began as a bilateral exercise between the navies of India and the United States.

Q9. Consider the following statements:

In controlled entry debris footprint cannot be positioned over an uninhabited region.
Space debris encompasses only artificial (human-made) orbital debris.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

S9.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Statement 1 is not correct

Controlled entry normally is achieved by using more propellant with a larger propulsion system to cause the spacecraft to enter the atmosphere at a steeper flight path angle. The vehicle will then enter the atmosphere at a more precise latitude and longitude, and the debris footprint can be positioned over an uninhabited region, generally located in the ocean.

Statement 2 is not correct

Space debris encompasses both natural meteoroid and artificial (human-made) orbital debris. Meteoroids are in orbit about the sun, while most artificial debris is in orbit about the Earth (hence the term “orbital” debris).

Orbital debris is any human-made object in orbit about the Earth that no longer serves a useful function. Such debris includes nonfunctional spacecraft, abandoned launch vehicle stages, missionrelated debris, and fragmentation debri

Q10. Consider the following pairs in the context of Biosphere reserves: Region Degree of human Interference

Core zone Banned completely
Transition zone Only few very essential activities allowed
Buffer zone Free to perform all of their activities

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(d) None of the pairs

S10.Ans.(a)

Sol.

A specified area in which multiple use of land is allowed by dividing it into different zones and each zone, of which remains specified for a particular activity, is called as Biosphere Reserve. A number of biosphere reserves have been established by United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural organization (UNESCO) under its Man and Biosphere Programmed (MAB)-1986 in different countries. The biosphere reserves have international networks. Each of the biosphere reserve has been divided into three zones-

Pair 1 is correct: Core Zone, where human interference is banned completely.

Pair 2 is incorrect: Buffer Zones, where human interference is allowed up to limited extent. Pair 3 is incorrect: Transition Zones (Manipulated Zone) where humans are free to perform their activities. The biosphere reserves are planned, managed and protected through joint efforts of the government, non- governmental organizations and the local people.

Q11. With reference to the initiatives taken by the multilateral organizations, consider the following pairs: Initiative Description

Contingent Reserve Arrangement of BRICS It provides short term liquidity support to the members to help mitigate the Balance of Payments crisis.
Creating Investable Cities Initiative It provides advisory support to help cities across Asia and the Pacific to meet their climate resilience goals.
Asian Development Fund It provides grants to Asian Development Bank’s most vulnerable developing member countries.

How many of the pairs give above are matched correctly?

Only One pair
Only Two pairs
All the Three pairs
None

S11.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option c is the correct answer.

Pair 1 is correct: The BRICS Contingent Reserve Arrangement proposes to provide short-term liquidity support to the members through currency swaps to help mitigating BOP crisis situation, in case such a situation arises. The BRICS CRA will help India and other signatory countries to forestall short-term liquidity pressures, provide mutual support and further strengthen financial stability. It would also contribute to strengthening the global financial safety net and complement existing international arrangements (from IMF) as an additional line of defence.

Pair 2 is correct: The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has launched a new initiative known as Creating Investable Cities initiative. It aims to provide direct advisory support to help cities across Asia and the Pacific to meet their climate resilience goals while improving their infrastructure and urban services. The Creating Investable Cities initiative, unveiled at the World Cities Summit in Singapore, will support these partner cities in mainstreaming climate resilience into their policies and projects, developing local resources mobilization strategies, and improve their access to private sector finance.

Pair 3 is correct: The Asian Development Fund (ADF) provides grants to Asian Development Bank’s poorest and most vulnerable developing member countries. Established in 1974, the ADF initially provided loans on concessional terms. Grants were introduced in 2005, and beginning 2017, with ADB’s concessional lending financed from its ordinary capital resources (OCR), the ADF has become a grant-only facility.

Q12.With reference to Maratha Navy, consider the following statements:

Ghurabs and Galbats were respectively the officers and warriors of the Maratha navy.
The Manuscript Adnyapatra gives account of naval policies followed by Martha emperor Shivaji.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

S12.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option b is the correct answer.

Maratha King Chhatrapati Shivaji felt the need of organisation of a strong naval power after he conquered the Konkan conquest in 1611, in order to check the power of the Siddhis of Janjira , who often used to raid the coast of Marathas.

Statement 1 is incorrect: In Maratha navy Ghurabs and Galbats were gunboats and row boats respectively, thus the terms does not mean officers nor warriors. The Maratha ships were smaller and divided into three main categories called galbats, ghurabs and paals. The galbat was a ship with two masts (pole that rises vertically from a ship and supports the sails) and it was a rowboat and often used to tow the bigger ships out of the harbour to the sea. The ghurabs had bigger guns that could fire ahead as well as deliver a broadside to enemy ships.

Statement 2 is correct: It is true that Manuscript Adnyapatra gives account of naval policies followed by Martha emperor Shivaji. The manuscript was written by Ramachandra Pant Amatya in 1715, it lays down the norms followed in Chhatrapati Shivaji’s times..

Q13.Consider the following pairs:

Tribe Associated region

Lepcha Darjeeling
Bhotia Sikkim
Mishmi Arunachal Pradesh
Sumi Uttarakhand

How many pairs given above is /are correctly matched?

(a) One pair only

(b) Two pairs only

(d) All the four pairs

S13.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option (b) is correct

Pair 1 is correct Lepcha: Lepcha is a tribe of Himalayan range live at the North-East corner of India. They largely reside at Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Bhutan, Sikkim and Darjeeling. They have also migrated in other North-Eastern States for economic reason.

Pair 2 is incorrect: Bhotia Tribe is one of the predominating tribes of Uttarakhand. They reside in the Almora, Chamoli, Pithoragarh and Uttarkashi districts of Uttarakhand. They are also found in Sikkim area.

Pair 3 is correct Mishmi: The Mishmi or Deng people of Tibet and Arunachal Pradesh are an ethnic group comprising mainly three tribes:

Idu Mishmi (IduLhoba); Digaro tribe (Taraon, Darang Deng), and Miju Mishmi (Kaman Deng). The Mishmis occupy the northeastern tip of the central Arunachal Pradesh in Upper and Lower Dibang Valley, Lohit and Anjaw Districts.

Pair 4 is incorrect Sumi: The Sumi Naga also known as Sema Naga are a major Naga ethnic group in the Indian state of Nagaland. The Sumis mainly inhabit Zunheboto District, parts of Niuland District and Kiphire District although many have spread and are now living in a few more districts within Nagaland.

Q14.With reference to role of ArtificialIntelligence (AI) in agriculture,consider the following statement:

It can detect weed affected areas to precisely spray herbicidespreventing over use of herbicides.
It can monitor soil defects on a real time basis but not the soil nutrient deficiency.
Its predictive insights can help farmers reduce impact by weather.

Which of the statements given aboveis/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

S14.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Role of AI in Agriculture in India:
Output yield estimates and price forecasts will help farmers obtain maximum profits.
Al sensors can detect weed affected areas to precisely spray herbicides preventing over or under-use of herbicides.
Al and Machine learning can help monitor crop health, diagnose pest/soil defects and nutrient deficiency on a real time and predictive basis aiding farmers obtain higher yields.
AI based solutions trained on prior info & classification of plant diseases can help control diseases.
Predictive insights such as timing for sowing for maximum productivity can help farmers reduce impact by weather thus aid goal of doubling farmer’s income.
Al-driven robots can be used to harvest huge volumes faster, can be trained on data for specific crop variety, weather condition and location in order to reduce the wastage.

Q15.Consider the following statements regarding Extended Fund Facility (EFF)

It is the credit facility provided by IMF to help countries implement medium-term structural reforms that causes weak balance-of-payments position.
It is most often used by advanced and emerging market countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

S15.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The Extended Fund Facility (EFF) provided by IMF is the financial assistance to countries facing serious medium-term balance of payments problems because of structural weaknesses that require time to address. To help countries implement medium-term structural reforms, the EFF offers longer program engagement and a longer repayment period.

It provides support comprehensive programs with a focus on policies needed to correct structural imbalances over an extended period.

Eligibility

All member countries facing actual or potential external financing needs. Most often used by advanced and emerging market countries, but low-income countries sometimes use the EFF together with the Extended Credit Facility (ECF).

Q16. The principle of Common but Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities (CBDRRC) is associated with-

Clearing the space debris in satellite orbits for the sustainable use of Space
Reducing income disparity in order to reduce poverty
Protection of the global environment
Promoting Sustainable urban cities

S16.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The principle of Common But Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities (CBDR-RC) outlined in the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), recognises that countries (known as Parties) have different duties and abilities to address the negative impacts of climate change, but all countries have an obligation to address climate change. At the 1992 United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) in Rio de Janeiro, the CBDR-RC was officially enshrined in the UNFCCC treaty on Climate Change.

Q17.Consider the following statements regarding Global Entrepreneurship Monitor (GEM)

It is an international project which seeks to provide information on the entrepreneurial landscape of countries.
It is released by NITI Ayog

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

S17.Ans.(a)

Sol.

What is Global Entrepreneurship Monitor?

The Global Entrepreneurship Monitor (GEM) is an international project which seeks to provide information on the entrepreneurial landscape of countries. GEM carries out survey-based research on entrepreneurship and entrepreneurship ecosystems around the world and is being led by the Entrepreneurship Development Institute of India, Ahmedabad.

Q18.Consider the following statements regarding Clean plant centres program

It aims to promote planting of trees that aims to curb air pollution by absorbing harmful pollutants from the atmosphere and fine particulate matter
It is a central sector scheme.
The implementing agency for this scheme is Ministry of environment and forest and climate change

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 and 3
2 only
1,2 and 3

S18.Ans.(c)

Sol.

With the demand for foreign planting materials of fruits like apples, avocados and blueberries rising over the years, the Central government plans to set up 10 ‘Clean Plant Centres’ Objective: To boost domestic production of the selected fruit crops Services offered: disease diagnostic, therapeutics, multiplying of plants and generation of mother plants

Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare Implementing agency: National Horticulture Board (NHB) Funding: 100% be Central government It will be set up under the ‘Atmanirbhar Clean Plant Program’ (announced in Budget 2023-24)

Q19.The Pallavas who rose to power after the Satavahanas had an extensiveadministrative system. In this context consider the following statements:

The Pallava State was divided into Kottams.
Taxes on manufacturing or industries were the key sources of the State’s revenue.
The Village Assemblies provided irrigation facilities to the agricultural lands

Select the correct code from below:

1 only
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only

S19.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The Pallava dynasty ruled in southern India whose members originated as indigenous subordinates of the Satavahanas in the Deccan, moved into Andhra, and then to Kanchi(Kanchipuram in modern Tamil Nadu state, India), where they became rulers. Their genealogy and chronology both are highly disputed.

Statement 1 is correct. The Pallava State was divided into kottams which were administered by officers appointed by the king.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Land tax formed the key source of the State’s revenue although Brahmadeya and Devadana lands were exempted from taxation. Manufacturing and industrial taxes did exist, but the land tax was higher.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Central government provided irrigation facilities to the agricultural lands. The Pallava kings constructed a large number of irrigation tanks for this purpose.

Q20. Which of the following are the components of the Human Capital Index?

Survival
Expected years of quality-adjusted school
Standard of living

Select the correct code from below:

2 and 3
1 and 2
1 and 3
1, 2 and 3

S20.Ans. (b)

Sol.

The Human Capital Index (HCI) seeks to measure the amount of human capital that a child born today can expect to attain by the age of 18. The HCI index values are intended to convey the productivity of the next generation of workers.

It has 3 components –

Survival: Measured by under-5 mortalities.
Expected years of quality-adjusted school: Measured by the quality and quantity of education. (Quality is measured by harmonizing the test scores from major international student achievement testing programs and quantity from the number of years of the school that a child can expect to obtain by the age of 18, given the prevailing pattern of enrolment rates across grades in respective countries).
Health environment: Measured by (a) adult survival rate and (b) rate of stunting for children under 5. The Human Capital Index is measured by the World Bank.

Q21.Consider the following statements regarding Bogs

Bogs develop in areas where the water table, or the upper surface of underground water, is scarce.
They often begin in glacial depressions called kettle lakes

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

S21.Ans. (b)

Sol.

Like many wetlands, bogs develop in areas where the water table, or the upper surface of underground water, is high. They often begin in glacial depressions called kettle lakes, which are deeper than prairie potholes.

A bog forms as a kettle lake gradually fill with plant debris. Leaves, roots, and stems of large plants accumulate on the bed of the lake. As the lake becomes shallower, mosses and other plants growing along the edges of the lake extend into the water. They form a loose, floating layer of tangled vegetation on the water’s surface. Eventually, these plants are followed by water-loving grasses and sedges. Soon, the water is choked with vegetation. The oldest, partially decayed vegetation at the bottom of the bog forms a thick, spongy mat called peat.

Q22. With reference to the Consumer Disputes Redressal in India, which one of the following statements is not correct?

Consumer Disputes Redressal Commissions (CDRCs) will be set up at the district, state, and national levels.
The State CDRC will entertain complaints when the value is more than Rs one crore but does not exceed Rs 10 crore.
Complaints with the value of goods and services over Rs 10 crore will be entertained by the National CDRC.
The District CDRC will entertain complaints where the value of goods or services does not exceed rupees fifty lakhs.

S22.Ans. (d)

Sol.

Jurisdiction of CDRCs: The District CDRC will entertain complaints where the value of goods

and services does not exceed Rs one crore. The State CDRC will entertain complaints when the value is more than Rs one crore but does not exceed Rs 10 crore. Complaints with the value

of goods and services over Rs 10 crore will be entertained by the National CDRC.

Q23.Consider the following statements with respect to the geological structure of India:

North-eastern parts of the peninsular bocks are separated by the Malda fault in West Bengal from the Chotanagpur plateau.
Buldelkhand plateau is between Vindhyan ranges and Malwa plateau and south of Yamuna.
The Aravallis are the oldest fault mountains of India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

S23.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Statement 3 is incorrect:

Aravallis are the oldest fold mountains. Geological Structure of Peninsular India Thenortheastern parts of the peninsular plateau separated by the Madla fault in west Bengal from the Chotanagapur plateau. In Rajastan the desert and other desert like features overlay this block. The Bunndelkhand plateau is between Vindhyan ranges and Malwa plateau and south of Yamuna. Its average height is 300- 600 m above the sea level. Aravallis are the oldest fold mountains. They are between Palanpur and Delhi. The general elevation is between 400 – 600 mts

Q24.Consider the following statements with reference to the Eastern Economic Forum :

The primary objective of the forum is to increase Foreign Direct Investments in Russia’s Far East. 2. The forum was established in the year 2015.
Recently, Russia hosted the Fourth Eastern Economic Forum in Vladivostok.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

S24.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The Eastern Economic Forum,is a key international platform for establishing and strengthening ties within the Russian and global investment communities and forthe comprehensive expert evaluation of the economic potential (i.e., to increase the Foreign Direct Investments) of the Russian Far East, the investment opportunities it offers, and business conditions within advanced special economic zones. So, Statement 1 is correct. The Eastern Economic Forum was established in 2015 to support the economic development of Russia’s Far East andto expand international cooperation in the Asia-Pacific region. So, Statement 2 is correct. Russia hosted the seventh Eastern Economic Forum (EEF) Vladivostok from September 5 to 8of 2022. The four-day forum is a platform for entrepreneurs to expand their businesses into Russia’s Far East (RFE). So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Q25.Consider the following statements

World Health Organization’s (WHO) recommended daily intake of lesser than 5g of salt for adults.
Global Report on Sodium Intake Reduction was recently released by FAO
WHO aims to reduce population sodium intake by 30% by 2025
Pre-hypertensive risks associated with salt intake is higher in Central Indian states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 3
2 and 4
2 and 3
1,2,3 and 4

S25.Ans.(a)

Sol.

An average Indian’s sodium consumption is more than double the physiological need and dramatically exceeds the World Health Organization’s (WHO) recommended daily intake of below 5 g of salt for adults. The WHO recently published the ‘Global Report on Sodium Intake Reduction,’ which sheds light on the progress of its 194 member states towards reducing population sodium intake by 30% by 2025. Regrettably, progress has been lethargic, with only a few countries making considerable headway towards the objective. Consequently, there is a proposal to extend the deadline to 2030.

Reduced sodium intake will decrease blood pressure in individuals. Pre-hypertensive risks associated with salt intake is higher in Southern Indian states as per the recent report.