Odisha Civil Services Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | June 2nd Week 2023

The mock paper consists of a comprehensive set of questions that are framed in accordance with the syllabus prescribed by the OPSC. It aims to evaluate the candidates’ analytical and problem-solving abilities, as well as their familiarity with important concepts, events, and issues.

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Q1. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:

1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organization unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

 

S1.Ans.(c)

Sol.

• The Supreme Court in Binny Ltd. and Anr. v. V. Sadasivan and Ors held that writ of mandamus can be exercised against a private body but there must be a public law element and it cannot be exercised to enforce purely private contract entered into between the parties. The scope of mandamus is determined by the nature of the duty to be enforced, rather than the identity of the authority against whom it is sought. If the private body is discharging a public function and the denial of any right is in connection with the public duty imposed on such body, the public law remedy can be enforced. So, statement 1 is correct.
• Mandamus literally means ‘we command’. It is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform. It can be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal or government company for the same purpose. So statement 2 is not correct.
• Quo-Warranto writ can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved person. So, statement 3 is correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

 

 

Q2. Consider the following communication Technologies:

1. Closed- Circuit Television
2. Radio Frequency Identification
3. Wireless Local area Network

Which of the above are considered short-range devices/technologies?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S2.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Short Range Devices (SRD) are radio devices that offer a low risk of interference with other radio services, usually because their transmitted power, and hence their range, is low. The definition ‘Short Range Device’ may be applied to many different types of wireless equipment, including various forms of:

• Access control (including door and gate openers)
• Alarms and movement detectors
• Closed-circuit television (CCTV)
• Cordless audio devices, including wireless microphones
• Industrial control
• Local Area Networks
• Medical implants
• Metering devices
• Remote control
• Radio frequency identification (RFID)
• Road Transport Telematics
• Telemetry. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

 

Q3. Which one of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India?

(a) An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment

(b) A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment

(c) An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India

(d) A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India.

 

 

S3.Ans.(d)

Sol.

• Indirect transfers refer to situations where when foreign entities own shares or assets in India, the shares of such foreign entities are transferred instead of a direct transfer of the underlying assets in India.
• When shares of foreign company or interest in any entity incorporated or registered outside India is transferred and if such shares or interest derives its substantial value from assets located in India directly or indirectly, then such transfer is commonly referred to as ‘Indirect Transfer’. In case of such indirect transfer, the income shall be deemed to accrue or arise in India and would be taxable for all including not ordinarily residents as well as non-residents.

 

 

Q4. Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants?

1. Alfalfa
2. Amaranth
3. Chickpea
4. Clover
5. Purslane (Kulfa)
6. Spinach

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 3 and 4 only
2. 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
3. 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
4. 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6

 

S4.Ans.(a)

Sol.

• Symbiotic nitrogen fixation by alfalfa provides substantial amounts of nitrogen (N) to livestock operations, subsequent crops, and soil organic matter. So, point 1 is correct.
• Chickpeas form root nodules that support biological N fixation (BNF) and host symbiotic Nfixing bacteria. So, point 3 is correct
• Nitrogen is “fixed” in clovers through a symbiotic relationship with Rhizobium bacteria that infects the plant’s roots. The plant provides energy for the bacteria, and bacteria provide the “machinery” necessary to convert atmospheric nitrogen into a form available to plants. So, point 4 is correct.
• Amaranth, Purslane (Kulfa), Spinach are not are nitrogen-fixing plants. So, points 2, 5 and 6 are not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

 

Q5.Consider the following pairs:

Waterways Region

1. The Danube WaterwayWest Europe
2. The VolgaWaterwayRussia
3. The Mississippi WaterwayU.S.A.
4. The RhineWaterwayGermany andNetherlands

How many pairs given above are correct?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d) All four pairs

S5.Ans.(c)

Sol.

• Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: The Danube Waterway: This important inland waterway serves Eastern Europe. The Danube River rises in the Black Forest and flows eastwards through many countries. It is navigable up to Taurna Severin. The chief export items are wheat, maize, timber, and machinery.
• Pair 2 is correctly matched: The Volga Waterway: Russia has a large number of developed waterways, of which the Volga is one of the most important. It provides a navigable waterway of 11,200 km and drains into the Caspian Sea. The Volga-Moscow Canal connects it with the Moscow region and the Volga-Don Canal with the Black Sea.
• Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Mississippi Waterways: The Mississippi- Ohio waterway connects the interior part of U.S.A. with the Gulf of Mexico in the south. Large steamers can go through this route up to Minneapolis.
• Pair 4 is correctly matched: The Rhine Waterways: The Rhine flows through Germany and the Netherlands. It is navigable for 700 km from Rotterdam, at its mouth in the Netherlands to Basel in Switzerland. Ocean-going vessels can reach up to Cologne. The Ruhr river joins the Rhine from the east. It flows through a rich coalfield and the whole basin has become a prosperous manufacturing area. Dusseldorf is the Rhine port for this region.

 

 

Q6.Which of the following statements are true?

1. The Indian National Congress officially demanded a Constituent Assembly to frame the Constitution of India in 1935.
2. Cripps Proposals were accepted by the Muslim Leagues.
3. M.N. Roy was the first to propose the idea of a Constituent Assembly.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

S6.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option (c) is correct:

M.N. Roy was the first to propose the idea of a Constituent Assembly in 1934. In 1935, the Indian National Congress (INC), for the first time, officially demanded a Constituent Assembly to frame the Constitution of India. In 1938, Jawaharlal Nehru, on behalf the INC declared that ‘the Constitution of free India must be framed, without outside interference, by a Constituent Assembly elected on the basis of adult franchise’. The demand was finally accepted in principle by the British Government in what is known as the ‘August Offer’ of 1940. In 1942, Sir Stafford Cripps, a member of the cabinet, came to India with a draft proposal of the British Government on the framing of an independent Constitution to be adopted after the World War II. The Cripps Proposals were rejected by the Muslim League which wanted India to be divided into two autonomous states with two separate Constituent Assemblies. Finally, a Cabinet Mission was sent to India. While it rejected the idea of two Constituent Assemblies, it put forth a scheme for the Constituent Assembly which more or less satisfied the Muslim League.

 

 

Q7. Consider the following pairs:

Process Description

1. Fragmentation Break down of detritus into smaller particles by detritivores
2. Leaching Percolation of water-soluble inorganic nutrients down into the soil.
3. Catabolism Degradation of detritus into simpler inorganic substances by bacterial and fungal enzymes

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) All three pairs

(d) None of the pairs

 

S7.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Pair 1 is correctly matched: Detritivores (e.g., earthworm) break down detritus into smaller particles. This process is called fragmentation.

Pair 2 is correctly matched: By the process of leaching, water-soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon and get precipitated as unavailable salts.

Pair 3 is correctly matched: Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade detritus into simpler inorganic substances. This process is called as catabolism. It is important to note that all the above steps in decomposition operate simultaneously on the detritus. Humification and mineralization occur during decomposition in the soil. Humification leads to accumulation of a dark colored amorphous substance called humus that is highly resistant to microbial action and undergoes decomposition at an extremely slow rate. Being colloidal in nature it serves as a reservoir of nutrients. The humus is further degraded by some microbes and release of inorganic nutrients occur by the process known as mineralisation.

 

Q8. With reference to the supply of oil and control of oil prices across the world, consider the following statements:

1. The OPEC+ nations regulate the prices of crude oil in market by adjusting the global supply of crude oil.
2. All oil production function of OPEC+ nations are performed by their respective National Oil Companies.
3. The output pact is an agreement among the OPEC+ nations to deal with sharp fall in global prices of oil.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1 and 3 only

 

S8.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option d is the correct answer. OPEC stands for the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries, was formed in Baghdad in 1960 by Iraq, Iran, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, and Venezuela. it has 13 members apart from the founding members it include-Algeria, Angola, Congo, Equatorial Guinea, Gabon, Libya, Nigeria and the United Arab Emirates. Its headquarters is in the Austrian capital Vienna. In 2016, OPEC formed an alliance with other oil-producing nations to create OPEC+. The 10 countries now in OPEC+ include Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Brunei, Kazakhstan, Malaysia, Mexico, Oman, Russia, South Sudan, and Sudan.

Statement 1 is correct. OPEC+ nations hold the power to control the supply and demand of crude oil to balance the market. As Oil and gas stocks are influenced by the cost of oil. OPEC directly influences the value of these stocks. OPEC+ regulates the supply of oil in order to influence the price of the commodity on the world market. The group can achieve this by coordinating supply cuts when the price is deemed too low and supply increases when its members believe prices are too high. They keep prices high by lowering supplies when the demand for oil slumps.

Statement 2 is incorrect. In OPEC countries most of the oil production functions are performed by the National oil companies (NOC). Whereas the oil production function in non-OPEC countries (Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Brunei, Kazakhstan, Malaysia, Mexico, Oman, Russia, South Sudan, and Sudan) which export crude oil and together with OPEC nations form the OPEC+ group, is performed by International or Investor- owned oil companies (IOC). S

tatement 3 is correct. The OPEC+ group of countries enter into a two-year agreement with each other known as output pact proposal which entailed to steep cuts in crude production to deal with any sharp fall in the price of oil if economic activity around the world crashes. The OPEC+ cannot enter into such output pact proposal with non-OPEC+ countries individually, as it will defeat the purpose of OPEC+ as a group to control over the production or prices of crude oil.

 

Q9.The society ‘X’ was formed in 1864 by K Sridharalu Naidu to fight for the causes of Brahmo Samaj in South India. It worked to abolish caste distinctions and promote widow remarriage. The members of the society believed in one God and condemned the superstitions and rituals of orthodox Hinduism. Identify society ‘X’ from the options given below:

(a) Arya Samaj

(b) Prarthana Samaj

(c) Dev Samaj

(d) Veda Samaj

 

S9.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option a is incorrect. Arya Samaj was founded by Dayananda Saraswati in 1875. Its social ideals comprise the fatherhood of God and brotherhood of Man, equality of the sexes, absolute justice and fair play between man and man and nation and nation. Inter-caste marriages and widow remarriages were also encouraged.

Option b is incorrect. In 1867, Keshab Chandra Sen helped Atmaram Pandurang in founding the Prarthana Samaj in Bombay. The samaj had a four-point social agenda:

1) disapproval of caste system

2) women’s education

3) widow remarriage

4) raising the age of marriage for both males and females

Option c is incorrect. Dev Samaj was founded in 1887 at Lahore by Shiv Narayan Agnihotri. The society emphasised on the eternity of the soul, the supremacy of the guru, and the need for good action.

Option d is correct. Veda Samaj was formed in 1864 by K Sridharalu Naidu. The movement was inspired to fight the causes of Brahmo Samaj in South India. It worked to abolish caste distinctions and promote widow remarriage and women’s education. The members of the society believed in one God and condemned the superstitions and rituals of orthodox Hinduism.

 

Q10.In the context of Atmospheric Circulation, the terms “Roaring Forties”, “Furious Fifties” Screaming or Shrieking Sixties related to?

(a) North East Trade Winds towards Equator.

(b) South East Trade Winds blowing towards Equator.

(c) Westerlies wind blowing in southern Hemisphere

(d) Westerlies wind blowing in northern Hemisphere

 

S10.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option(c) is correct: Ocean is dominant in the southern hemisphere between the latitudes 40oS and 60oS. Hence the westerlies are so powerful and persistent that the sailors used such expressions as “Roaring Forties”, “Furious Fifties” and “Screaming or Shrieking Sixties” for these high velocity winds in the latitudes of 40o, 50o and 60o respectively. Westerlies flow towards the pole from sub tropics and turn towards right and left in the northern hemisphere and southern hemisphere respectively.

 

Q11.Consider the following statements:

1. Bacteria increase soil fertility by fixing the nitrogen.
2. Lactobacillus promotes the formation of curd.
3. Tetracycline is an anti-viral drug.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S11.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct: Microorganisms are used in cleaning up of the environment. For example, the organic wastes (vegetable peels, remains of animals, faeces, etc.) are broken down into harmless and usable substances by bacteria. Bacteria are also used in the preparation of medicines. In agriculture they are used to increase soil fertility by fixing nitrogen. Curd contains several microorganisms.

Statement 2 is correct: Of these, the bacterium, Lactobacillus promotes the formation of curd. It multiplies in milk and converts it into curd. Bacteria are also involved in the making of cheese, pickles and many other food items.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The source of antibiotic tablets, capsules or injections such as of penicillin is microorganisms. These medicines kill or stop the growth of the disease-causing microorganisms. Such medicines are called antibiotics. These days a number of antibiotics are being produced from bacteria and fungi. Streptomycin, tetracycline and erythromycin are some of the commonly known antibiotics which are made from fungi and bacteria. Microorganisms are used for the large scale(vinegar). Yeast is used for commercial

production of alcohol and wine.

 

Q12.Consider the following statements regarding National Centre of Excellence in Green Port & Shipping (NCoEGPS)

1. It is the Nodal entity for the shipping industry, to make India as the ‘Global hub for building Green Ships’ by 2030.
2. It developing a regulatory framework for the usage of wind energy for marine applications, and identifying a suitable biofuel for blending with conventional marine fuels
3. It is recently inaugurated at Guru gram, Haryana

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1,2 and 3

 

 

S12.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Union Minister of Ports, Shipping & Waterways (MoPSW) while launching the Green Tug Transition Programme(GTTP). Inaugurated India’s first National Centre of Excellence in Green Port & Shipping (NCoEGPS) in Gurugram,Haryana

With the NCoEGPS acting as the Nodal entity for the industry, the plan is afoot to make India as the ‘Global hub for building Green Ships’ by 2030.

The NCoEGPS aims at empowering ‘Make in India’ in Port, Coastal and Inland water transport, and Engineering by developing state of art technologies and application p

 

Q13.RBI has set a target of keeping inflation at the target of 4+/- 2 per cent range. Which of the following is considered a breach of the inflation target in this context

1. The average inflation is more than the upper tolerance level of the inflation target for any three consecutive quarters;
2. The average inflation is less than the lower tolerance level for any three consecutive quarters

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S13.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Breach of this inflation target is construed only when:

(a) the average inflation is more than the upper tolerance level of the inflation target for any three consecutive quarters; or

(b) the average inflation is less than the lower tolerance level for any three consecutive quarters,”

roducts. The NCoEGPS will work on 10 crucial projects, including ones on developing a regulatory framework for the usage of wind energy for marine applications, and identifying a suitable biofuel for blending with conventional marine fuels. It will also work towards identifying a fuel cell technology for long haul shipping as well as developing a regulatory framework for the transportation of hydrogen upto 700 bar pressure.

 

 

Q14.With reference to REDD+, consider the following statements:

1. It is a climate change mitigation solution adopted at COP 19, UNFCC in Warsaw.
2. The implementation of REDD+ is mandatory to the member countries.
3. It is recognized in Article 5 of the Paris Agreement.

Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S14.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct: REDD+ is a climate change mitigation solution developed by Parties to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). The framework is commonly referred to as the Warsaw Framework for REDD+ (WFR) adopted at COP 19 in Warsaw, December 2013 and provides the complete methodological and financing guidance for the implementation of REDD+ activities.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The implementation of REDD+ activities is voluntary and depends on the national circumstances, capacities and capabilities of each developing country and the level of support received.To date, 118 countries have included forest and land use in their Nationally Determined Contributions pledges. This represents 162 million hectares of restored, reforested and afforested land.

Statement 3 is correct: REDD+ is also recognized in Article 5 of the Paris Agreement, where Parties re-iterated the encouragement to implement REDD+ activities, and that these should be an integral element of the Paris Agreement. Therefore, the WFR is a foundation for Parties engaged in REDD+ to fulfill the highest level of commitment to climate actions in the forest sector.

 

 

Q15.Consider the following statements regarding Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) 2021

1. It is released by World Bank
2. it measures poverty across three equally weighted dimensions: health, education and standard of living
3. According to Global MPI 2021, India’s rank is 66 out of 109 countries

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 2 and 3
2. 1 and 2
3. 1 and 3
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

 

S15.Ans. (b)

Sol.

Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) 2021 was released by United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI)

First developed in 2010, it measures poverty across three equally weighted dimensions: health, education and standard of living, comprising 10 indicators. The MPI value ranges from 0 to 1.

If a person is deprived in at least 1/3rdof the indicators, they are identified as ‘MPI poor’

Middle-income countries home 2/3rd of MPI poor.

According to Global MPI 2021, India’s rank is 66 out of 109 countries

India ranked 62 out of 107 countries in the latest 2020 report.

 

Q16. Wetland ecosystems are important because-

1. They filter wastes and purify water
2. They absorb the harmful chemicals
3. They Control floods

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1,2 and 3

 

S16.Ans. (d)

Sol.

Wetland ecosystems also act as water-treatment facilities. The plants, fungi, and algae of a wetland filter wastes and purify water.

Nitrates and other runoff chemicals often wash into wetlands from urban areas and farms. Organisms there absorb the harmful chemicals. Pollutants not absorbed by plants slowly sink to the bottom, where they are buried in sand and other sediment.

Wetlands function as natural sponges that trap and slowly release surface water, rain, snowmelt, groundwater, and floodwaters. Trees, root mats, and other wetland vegetation also slow the speed of floodwaters and distribute them more slowly over the floodplain. This combined water storage and braking action lowers flood heights and reduces erosion.

 

Q17. Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) Functions under which Ministry?

1. Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
2. The Ministry of Finance.
3. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
4. Ministry of Home Affairs

 

S17.Ans. (a)

Sol.

The Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) is a fraud investigating agency. It is under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Government of India. The SFIO is involved in major fraud probes and is the coordinating agency with the Income Tax and CBI.

The Government approved the setting up of this organization in 2003 on the basis of the recommendations made by the Naresh Chandra Committee which was set up by the Government in 2002 on corporate governance.

 

Q18.Consider the following pairs:

1. Sonapani Glacier: Pir Panjal range
2. Rimo Glacier: Eastern Himalaya
3. Zemu Glacier: Karakoram range
4. Milam Glacier: Kumaon Himalaya

How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) One pair only

(b) Two pairs only

(c) Three pairs only

(d) All four pairs

 

 

S18.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Rimo Glacier: Karakoram range

Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Zemu Glacier: Eastern Himalaya Himalayan glaciers Sonapani Glacier is in the Chandra Valley of Lahul and Spiti region in the Pir Panjal range.

Milam Glacier is a major glacier of the Kumaon Himalaya. It is located in the tehsil of Munsiyari, part of the Pithoragarh district of Uttarakhand.

Zemu Glacier is the largest glacier in the Eastern Himalaya. It is about 26 kilometres (16 mi) in length and is located at the base of Kangchenjunga in the Himalayan region of Sikkim. Rimo rests in the northern part of the Rimo Muztagh which is a sub range of the Karakoram Range and is located about 20 km northeast of the snout of the Siachen Glacier.

 

 

Q19.Consider the following statements with reference to Global Methane Initiative(GMI) :

1. GMI was created in 2004 to achieve a global reduction in anthropogenic methane emissions.
2. India has been one of the members since its inception.
3. It is a voluntary Government and an informal international partnership among developing countries having economies in transition and underdeveloped countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

 

S19.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The Global Methane Initiative (GMI) which was formed in 2004, is an international public-private partnership focused on reducing barriers to the recovery and use of methane as a valuable energy source. The main aim of the forum is to achieve a global reduction in anthropogenic methane emissions. GMI provides technical support to deploy methane-to-energy projects around the world that enable Partner Countries to launch methane recovery and use projects. GMI focuses on three key sectors: Oil and Gas, Biogas, and Coal Mines. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Since the creation of the forum in 2004, India is one of the members and recently it has taken up Vice- Chairmanship for the first time in the Steering Leadership along with the USA of GMI. The Chairperson of the Steering Leadership is from Canada. This forum is a voluntary Government and an informal international partnership having members from 45 countries including the United States and Canada. But the forum has a partnership among developed and developing countries having economies in transition but not with underdeveloped countries. So, Statement 2 is correct and Statement 3 is not correct.

 

Q20.“Poverty reduction and growth facility” is related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following?

(a) International Development Association

(b) World bank

(c) The Brooks World poverty institute

(d) International Monetary Fund

 

S20.Ans.(d)

Sol.

In September 1999, the International Monetary Fund (IMF), a global organisation, embraced a new anti- poverty focus for its work in low-income countries. As part of this move, the IMF terminated its Enhanced Structural Adjustment Facility (ESAF) and replaced it with a new lending facility for low-income countries, the Poverty Reduction and Growth Facility (PRGF). The core aim of the PRGF is to arrive at policies that are more clearly focused on economic growth and poverty reduction and, as a result of better national ownership, more consistently implemented. So, Option (d) is correct.

 

Q21.Consider the following statements regarding Jain’s tirthankara, Vardhaman Mahavira

1. He was the 24th tirthankara of Jainism
2. He attained Kaivalya (Enlightenment) at Jimbhikagrama, on the banks of Rijupalika river.
3. Bimbisara was the contemporary of Vardhamana Mahavira

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1,2 and 3

 

 

 

S21.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Mahavira also known as Vardhaman, was the 24th tirthankara (supreme preacher) of Jainism. He was the spiritual successor of the 23rd tirthankara Parshvanatha. Mahavira Jain left his home at the age of 30 and wandered for 12 years before finally attaining Kaivalya (Enlightenment) at Jimbhikagrama, on the banks of Rijupalika river in Bihar.  Bimbisara was contemporary of both Mahavira and Buddha.

 

 

Q22. Consider the following pairs:

Ores Location

1. Bauxite :Maikal Hills
2. Copper :Balaghat
3. Mica : Nellore

How many pairs given above is/are correctly  matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) All the pairs

(d) None of the pairs

 

S22.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The Balaghat mines in Madhya Pradesh, the Khetri mines in Rajasthan and the Singhbhum district of Jharkhand are leading producers of copper. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.

India’s bauxite deposits are mainly found in the Amarkantak plateau, Maikal hills and the plateau region of Bilaspur-Katni. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.

Mica deposits are found on the northern edge of the Chota Nagpur plateau. Koderma Gaya – Hazaribagh belt of Jharkhand is the leading producer. In Rajasthan, the major mica-producing area is around Ajmer. Nellore mica belt of Andhra Pradesh is also an important producer in the country. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.

Q23. Considering the following statements with respect to India’s Forest Cover.

1. India map its forest cover through Forest Survey of India (FSI) by its biennial State of Forest reports.
2. The land areas with canopy density of 40% and above are considered as dense forests and those between 10-40% are open forests.
3. Very dense forest was assigned to land with 7 0% or more canopy density.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S23.Ans.(d)

Sol.

India’s Forest Cover

• India’s forest cover has increased from 19% in the early 1980s to 21% in 2021.
• The Forest Survey of India (FSI) has published its biennial State of Forest reports since 1987.
• The land areas with tree canopy density of 40% and above are considered as dense forests and those between 10-40% are open forests.
• A new category of Very dense forest was assigned to land with 7 0% or more canopy density .
• Forests are divided into Reserved, Protected and Unclassed forests, Recorded Forest Areas account for 23.58% of India.

 

Q24. Consider the following statements with refernece to Conference of Parties (COP) of UNFCC:

1. Conference of Parties-27, scheduled be convened in Sharm el-Sheikh, Egypt.
2. India has announced in COP-26 to cut emissions intensity of its GDP to 45%, by 2030, from 2005 level.
3. In COP-26, Indian government has committed to achieve net zero emission by 2070. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3 only

 

S24.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option (c) is correct:

• The COP 26 Presidency and the incoming-COP 27 Presidency are committed to ensuring a transparent and inclusive process in the lead-up to COP 27 to be convened in Sharm el-Sheikh, Egypt from 6 – 18 November 2022.
• Government has approved plans to cut emissions intensity of its GDP to 45%, by 2030, from 2005 levels, the government said in a statement. India will submit its updated nationally determined commitments or NDCs to the United Nations, becoming one of the last major emitters to fulfill this obligation under the Paris Climate Agreement. The updated plan also lays out propagating a healthy and sustainable way of living based on traditions and values of conservation and moderation.

Government announced a plan to achieve net zero by 2070 at the COP26 summit in Glasgow late last year. The country has followed up with series of policy measures since, including production-linked incentives for manufacturers of electric vehicles and batteries, amendments to energy use laws and introducing a national hydrogen plan.

 

Q25. With reference to the Indo-Greek rule in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Indo-Greeks coins used bilingual inscriptions.
2. They introduced Hellenistic art features that gave rise to Gandhara school of art.
3. The Indo-Greeks introduced the use of caps, helmets, and boots for the first time in India.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

 

 

S25.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option a is the correct answer. After the death of Alexander in 323 BCE, many Greeks came to settle on the north-western borders of India with Bactria (presently in the northern part of Afghanistan, the area lying to the south of the Oxus River and to the north-west of the Hindu Kush mountains).

Statement 1 is correct. The Indo-Greek coins circulated both to the north and south of Hindukush region with several unique features. One of the major features of Indo Greek coins was the use of bilingual inscription on their coins. The Indo-Greek Coins has bilingual inscriptions in Greek and Kharoshthi with the royal portraits on the obverse and images of Greek deities such as Zeus, Apollo, and Athena) on the reverse along with the name and title of the king. They may also include Indian religious symbols on one side of the coins. Statement 2 is correct. The Indo-Greeks introduced new features of Hellenistic art which gave rise to Gandhara school of art in the north-west frontier of India. It was not purely Greek, but rather it was the outcome of the intermingling and influence of both Indian and central Asian contacts. Example of such art is the Besnagar Pillar inscription of Heliodorus.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Shaka’s and Kushana’s who were well known for their military knowledge and equipment, introduced the use of caps, helmets and boots to the warrior classes in India. They also introduced the use of turbans, tunics, trousers, long heavy coats and long boots for all other sections of society also.

 

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