Odisha Civil Services Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | June 3rd Week 2023

The mock paper consists of a comprehensive set of questions that are framed in accordance with the syllabus prescribed by the OPSC. It aims to evaluate the candidates’ analytical and problem-solving abilities, as well as their familiarity with important concepts, events, and issues.

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Q1. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Monazite is a source of rare earths.
2. Monazite contains thorium.
3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India.
4. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

S1.Ans.(b)

Sol.

• Monazite is one of the beach sand minerals that contains rare earths like, lanthanum, cerium, praseodymium, neodymium etc. Monazite in general, contains about 55 – 60% total Rare Earth Oxide. Thorium is also found in monazite. So, statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
• Atomic Minerals Directorate for Exploration and Research (AMD), a constitute unit of Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) has estimated the presence of 11.93 million tonnes of monazite resources in the beach sand mineral placer deposits along the coastal tracts of India. The state-wise resources of in situ monazite is given here. Thus, it is not naturally found in the entire Indian coastal sands. So, statement 3 is not correct.
• A licence from the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) under the Atomic Energy (Working of the Mines. Minerals and Handling of Prescribed Substances) Rules 1984 promulgated under the Atomic Energy Act 1962 is necessary for exporting monazite. DAE has not issued any licence to any private entity either for production of monazite, or for its downstream processing for extracting thorium, or the export of either monazite or thorium. Only state-run IREL in India has the licence to produce and export monazite. So, statement 4 is correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer

 

Q2. Consider the following statements regarding Tanjavur paintings

1. The theme of most of the paintings revolves around Hindu gods, goddesses, and saints
2. This art form is believed to have originated during the 16th century, under the reign of the Vijyanagar empire.
3. Semi-precious stones, pearls, glass pieces, and even gold are added to the paintings

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1,2 and 3

 

S2.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Tanjore paintings are a great way to beautify the interiors of your homes and are presented as gifts on special occasions. They are an indigenous art form of Thanjavur. They employ relief work and intense compositions involving religious figures and motifs.

Semi-precious stones, pearls, and glass pieces further add to their beauty. They are one of the most popular forms of South Indian paintings, which are known for their surface richness and vibrant colors. This art form is believed to have originated during the 16th century, under the reign of the Vijayanagara Empire (1336 A.D. to 1646 A.D.) The VijayanagaraRayasRayas administered their vast kingdom in southern India through the Nayaka Governors. The Nayakas were great patrons of art and literature..

Locally, Tanjore Paintings are also called ‘PalagaiPadam,’ which means picture on a wooden plank as these paintings are crafted on wooden planks.

 

Q3. Consider the following statements with respect to the Indian National Army (INA) trials:

1. Congress adopted a resolution in the Bombay session in support of the Indian National Army’s cause.
2. Prem Kumar Sehgal, Shah Nawaz khan and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon were the first INA prisoners to face

the trial.

3. Following the public protest, British reduced the death sentence of INA prisoners to deportation for life.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

 

S3.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option a is the correct answer. The Indian National Army trials also known as the INA trials and the Red Fort trials was the British Indian trial of a number of officers of the Indian National Army (INA) between 1945 and 1946, on various charges of treason, torture, murder and abetment to murder. The INA prisoners were the ones who fought with Japanese troops during World War II in Burma.

Statement 1 is correct: At the first post-War Congress session in September 1945 at Bombay, a strong resolution was adopted declaring Congress support for the INA cause. Those who supported the INA cause in varying degrees, apart from the Congress, included the Muslim League, Communist Party, Unionists, Akalis, Justice Party, Ahrars in Rawalpindi, Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh, Hindu Mahasabha and the Sikh League.

Statement 2 is correct: British held the first trial at the Red Fort in Delhi in November 1945 and putting on dock together a Hindu, Prem Kumar Sehgal, a Muslim, Shah Nawaz Khan, and a Sikh, Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon. These three prisoners were the first to face the trials.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The British never sentenced any prisoners to death. The actual punishment for

Shah Nawaz Khan, Gurubaksh Singh Dhillon and Prem Sahgal were to be dismissed from service and

handed transportation for life. However, this punishment too was remitted later.

 

Q4.In the context of tribunals in India, consider the following statements:

1. The original Constitution empowered the parliament for the establishment of tribunals.
2. The need for a tribunal is based on the principle that experts would bring in special knowledge in justice delivery.
3. An administrative tribunal is not bound by the rules of evidence and procedure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S4.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option d is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct. The original Constitution did not contain provisions with respect to tribunals. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added a new Part XIV-A and consists of only two Articles–Article 323 A dealing with administrative tribunals and Article 323 B dealing with tribunals for other matters. Tribunal is a quasi-judicial institution that is set up to deal with problems such as resolving administrative or tax- related disputes.

Statement 2 is correct. The ‘tribunalisation’ of justice is driven by the recognition that it would be cost- effective, accessible and give scope for utilising expertise in the respective fields. Central to this scheme is the principle that the ‘experts’ appointed to these tribunals should bring in special knowledge and experience.

Statement 3 is correct. An Administrative Tribunal is not bound by rules of evidence and procedure as in the case of court of law. They are bound by the principles of Natural justice.

 

 

 

Q5.Which of the following can be the potential applications of Inflatable Aerodynamic Decelerator (IAD), successfully tested by ISRO recently?

1. Recovery of spent stages of rocket
2. For landing payloads on to Mars
3. Making space habitat for human space flight missions

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1 only

 

S5.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option (a) is correct. An Inflatable Aerodynamic Decelerator (IAD), designed and developed by Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre was successfully test flown in a Rohini sounding rocket. The IAD was initially folded and kept inside the payload bay of the rocket. At around 84 km altitude, the IAD was inflated and it descended through the atmosphere with the payload part of a sounding rocket. The IAD has huge potential in a variety of space applications like recovery of spent stages of rocket, for landing payloads on to Mars or Venus and in making space habitat for human space flight missions.

Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC), Thiruvananthapuram, is the lead centre of ISRO responsible for the design and development of launch vehicle technology.

The major programmes at VSSC include Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV), Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) and Rohini Sounding Rockets as well as the development of Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) Mk Ill, Reusable Launch Vehicles, advanced technology vehicles, air- breathing propulsion and critical technologies towards human spaceflight.

 

Q6.In the context of Atmospheric Circulation, the terms “Roaring Forties”, “Furious Fifties” Screaming or Shrieking Sixties related to?

(a) North East Trade Winds towards Equator.

(b) South East Trade Winds blowing towards Equator.

(c) Westerlies wind blowing in southern Hemisphere

(d) Westerlies wind blowing in northern Hemisphere

 

S6.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option(c) is correct: Ocean is dominant in the southern hemisphere between the latitudes 40oS and 60oS. Hence the westerlies are so powerful and persistent that the sailors used such expressions as “Roaring Forties”, “Furious Fifties” and “Screaming or Shrieking Sixties” for these high velocity winds in the latitudes of 40o, 50o and 60o respectively. Westerlies flow towards the pole from sub tropics and turn towards right and left in the northern hemisphere and southern hemisphere respectively.

 

Q7. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Bar Council of India (BCI)?

1. It is a statutory body established under the section 4 of Advocates Act 1961.
2. The Attorney General of India and the Solicitor General of India are the ex officio members.
3. It cannot recognise foreign qualifications in law obtained outside India for admission as an advocate. Choose the correct answer from options given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S7.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Statements 1 is correct: The BCI is a statutory body established under the section 4 of Advocates Act 1961 that regulates the legal practice and legal education in India.

Statement 2 is correct: It consists of members elected from each state bar council, and the Attorney General of India and the Solicitor General of India who are ex officio members.

Statement 3 is not correct: One of its functions is to recognise foreign qualifications in law obtained outside India for admission as an advocate

 

Q8.With reference to social structure during the rule of Satavahana Dynasty, consider the following

statements:

1. Satavahana rulers were the supporters of four-fold varna division of society.
2. Only the kings, and not the Queens were allowed to perform the Vedic sacrifices.
3. Satavahana rulers gave tax free land grants only to brahmanas, and not to Buddhist monks.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S8.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option b is the correct answer. Early Satavahanas were identified with Andhras, they were probably a local Deccan tribe who were gradually Brahamnised.

Statement 1 is correct: The Satavahana kings (such as GautamiputraSatkarni) claimed to be Brahmans. They considered it their primary duty to uphold the varna system, that is, the four-fold division of social structure determined by varnas.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Kings and queens both performed the Vedic sacrifices. Nanaghat inscription of Queen Nayanika, the widowed queen of Satakarni, mentions that queen performed Vedic sacrifices. They worshipped Vaishnava gods such as Krishna and Vasudeva. Statement 3 is incorrect: They made liberal sacrificial fees to the Brahmanas, they also promoted Buddhism by granting land to Buddhist monks, especially to Mahayana Buddhists.

 

Q9. Consider the following statements with respect to Phosphorus cycle:

1. There is no respiratory release of phosphorus into atmosphere.
2. Atmospheric inputs of phosphorus through rainfall are larger than carbon inputs.
3. Gaseous exchanges of phosphorus between organism and environment are negligible.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

 

S9.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Phosphorus is a major constituent of biological membranes, nucleic acids and cellular energy transfer systems. Many animals also need large quantities of this element to make shells, bones and teeth. The natural reservoir of phosphorus is rock, which contains phosphorus in the form of phosphates. When rocks are weathered, minute amounts of these phosphates dissolve in soil solution and are absorbed by the roots of the plants. Herbivores and other animals obtain this element from plants. The waste products and the dead organisms are decomposed by phosphate-solubilizing bacteria releasing phosphorus

Statement 1 is correct: Unlike carbon cycle, there is no respiratory release of phosphorus into atmosphere.

Statement 2 is incorrect and statement 3 is correct: The other two major and important differences between carbon and phosphorus cycle are firstly, atmospheric inputs of phosphorus through rainfall are much smaller than carbon inputs, and, secondly, gaseous exchanges of phosphorus between organism and environment are negligible.

 

Q10. With respect to the NHB Residex, consider the following statements:

1. It is India’s first-ever official residential price index.
2. It was prepared by National Housing Bank on behest of Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
3. The index can predict future trends of the housing market prices.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 3 only

 

 

S10.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option a is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct: NHB RESIDEX is India’s first-ever official residential price index. NHB Residex from the National Housing Bank, designed by a technical advisory committee comprising Government representatives, lenders and property market players, is a set of benchmarks that aims to track housing price indicators across Indian cities.

Statement 2 is incorrect: NHB RESIDEX, India’s first official housing price index, was an initiative of the National Housing Bank (NHB), undertaken at the behest of the Government of India, Ministry of Finance (not the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs). The index was formulated under the guidance of a Technical Advisory Committee (TAC) comprising of stakeholders from the housing market.

Statement 3 is correct: NHB RESIDEX will help recognize current trends in micro as well as macro markets, and predict future behaviour of the housing market. It will be of immediate use to banks, HFCs, developers, and home-buyers.

 

Q11.With reference to the art andarchaeological history of India, which oneamong the following was made the earliest?

1. Deogarh temple.
2. Sultanganj Buddha statue.
3. DidarganjYakshi statue.
4. Boar incarnation in Udayagiri caves.

 

S11.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option a is incorrect: Deogarh temple (also known as Dashavatara temple) is located in Deograh, Uttar Pradesh. This temple belongs to Gupta period and built during the 5th-6th century CE. This temple is the earliest known Panchayatan Temple in north India. Option b is incorrect: The Sultanganj Buddha belongs to 500 CE to 700 CE. It is one of the largest Buddha sculptures found in India. It is the finest example of Sarnath School of Sculpture and belongs to the Gupta – Pala transitional period (500 CE to 700 CE).

Option c is correct: DidarganjYakshi was dated between 3rd century BCE to 2nd Century CE. While some scholars date the sculpture as belonging to the 3rd century BCE based on the polish of the statue which is often placed in the Mauryan era art. whereas some date it to a later period of Kushanas and compare it with Mathura Yakshis of the 2nd century CE.

Option d is incorrect: Udayagiri caves is located in Vidisha, Madhya Pradesh and it was developed in early 5th century CE under the patronage of Gupta ruler Chandragupta II. This cave hosts the sculpture of Varaha or Boar incarnation of Vishnu.

 

Q12.Which of the following best explains the absence of Tropical cyclones near the equator:

(a) Insolation over the equator is too high.

(b) Great height of the troposphere in the equator.

(c) Absence of Coriolis force.

(d) Disturbance of North east and South east trade winds.

 

S12.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Coriolis Force: The rotation of the earth about its axis affects the direction of the wind. This force is called the Coriolis force after the French physicist who described it in 1844. It deflects the wind to the right direction in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere. The deflection is more when the wind velocity is high. The Coriolis force is directly proportional to the angle of latitude. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator. The Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the pressure gradient force. The pressure gradient force is perpendicular to an isobar. The higher the pressure gradient force, the more is the velocity of the wind and the larger is the deflection in the direction of wind. As a result of these two forces operating perpendicular to each other, in the low-pressure areas the wind blows around it. At the equator, the Coriolis force is zero and the wind blows perpendicular to theisobars. The low pressure gets filled instead of getting intensified. That is the reason why tropical cyclones are not formed near the equator.

 

Q13.The term ‘Alpha Fold’, sometimes seenin the news in the context of which ofthe following?

(a) AI based product created by the Google to have real time location sharing with street view mapping.

(b) Warp created in space and time due collision of two black holes.

(c) Dark area of Universe generating huge fluxes of Alpha rays.

(d) AI-based protein structureprediction tool.

 

 

S13.Ans.(d)

Sol.

AlphaFold is an AI-based protein structure prediction tool.  It is based on a computer system called deep neural network. Inspired by the human brain, neural networks use a large amount of input data and provides the desired output exactly like how a human brain would.  The real work is done by the black box between the input and the output layers, called the hidden networks. AlphaFold is fed with protein sequences as input. When protein sequences enter through one end, the predicted three- dimensional structures come out through the other.

 

 

Q14.Consider the following statements regarding Leaf Fall Disease

1. It is the disease of rubber tree that causes fall in latex yield
2. Copper oxychloride is mixed with spray oil is used to control abnormal leaf fall disease.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S14.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Abnormal leaf fall disease caused by Phytophthora spp. is the most destructive, annually recurring disease of rubber tree in India causing a loss of 38–56% in latex yield.

Recently The new leaf fall disease in rubber plantations in Thailand seems to have started ringing alarm bells among growers in India. Thailand is the largest natural rubber producer accounting for 36 per cent of world production. In India, the leaf fall illness in plantations was observed in small pockets of Kerala.The copper oxychloride, used to control abnormal leaf fall disease of rubber trees, is mixed with spray oil and sprayed in the estates.

 

Q15.Which of the following statements regarding Treasury Bills is incorrect?

1. The Treasury Bills are categorized as money market instruments.
2. They are issued via auctions, conducted by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) at regular intervals.
3. Treasury bills are highly liquid instruments and are normally issued at a price less than their face value, and redeemed at face value
4. All are correct

 

S15.Ans.(d)

Sol.

The Treasury Bills, or the T-Bills, have a maximum maturity period of 364 days. So, they are categorized as money market instruments (the money market deals with the funds with a maturity of less than one year).

A treasury bill is a promissory note issued by the RBI to meet the short-term requirement of funds. Treasury bills are highly liquid instruments, that means, at any time the holder of treasury bills can transfer or get it discounted from RBI. These bills are normally issued at a price less than their face value, and redeemed at face value. So the difference between the issue price and the face value of the treasury bill represents the interest on the investment

At present, The Treasury Bills are issued in three maturities – 91-day, 182- day and 364-day. In 1997, the government also issued 14-day immediate Treasury Bills.

The Treasury Bills were first issued in India in 1917. They are issued via auctions, conducted by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) at regular intervals. Individuals, trusts, institutions, and banks can purchase the T-Bills. But, they are usually held by financial institutions.

 

Q16.With reference to Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ), consider the following pairs:

CRZ type Features

1. CRZ-I Ecologically sensitive areas
2. CRZ-II Developed areas
3. CRZ-III Undeveloped area
4. CRZ-IV All islands

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

 

S16.Ans.(d)

Sol.

The land between the Low Tide Line (LTL) and the HTL has been declared as the Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ). Further they are divided into four main broad domains as below:

Pair 1 is correctly matched: CRZ- I areas are ecologically sensitive and most activity are restricted or prohibited

Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: CRZ- II is developed area and construction activities are permitted under certain condition.

Pair 3 is correctly matched: CRZ- III is undeveloped area and limited activities are permitted.

Pair 4 is incorrectly matched: All islands are classified as CRZ- IV and no construction activities are permitted.

 

Q17.Who among the following were called ‘Muvendar’, the three crowned kings in the Sangam literature?

(a) Cheras, Cholas and Chalukyas

(b) Cheras, Cholas and Pandyas

(c) Chalukyas, Kakatiyas and Rashtrakutas

(d) Cheras, Cholas and Pallavas

 

S17.Ans.(b)

Sol.

In Sangam poems, Cheras, Cholas and Pandyas were known as Muvendar, ‘the three crowned kings’. They controlled major agrarian territories, trade routes and towns.  The Cholas controlled the central and northern parts of Tamil Nadu. Their core area of rule was the Kaveri delta, later known as Cholamandalam. Thanjavur (Tanjore) was the capital of Cholas.  The Cheras controlled the central and northern parts of Kerala and the Kongu region of Tamil Nadu. Vanji was their capital and the ports of the west coast, Musiri and Tondi, were under their control.  The Pandyas ruled from Madurai. Korkai was their main port, located near the confluence of Thampraparani with the Bay of Bengal.

 

 

 

Q18. While women account for almost half of India’s population, their participation in the labour market is almost one-third as well as declining over several Survey Rounds. Why does so?

1. Increase in engagement in domestic activities
2. lack of attainment of appropriate education level /skillset
3. High wage levels in rural areas.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

1. 2 and 3
2. 1 and 2
3. 1 and 3
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

 

S18.Ans. (d)

Sol.

1. among young females around 52.3 per cent were engaged in domestic activities in 2017- 18 and this proportion has increased over the last two decades. Similarly, in the productive age group 30-59, where females were out of education, the proportion of females attending domestic duties increased from 46 per cent in 2004-05 to 65
2. For the productive age group (15-59 years), only 5.3 per cent of highly educated women are engaged in full-time domestic duties while the remaining 54.6 per cent of women attending domestic duties are up to secondary level educated (Table 9). Thus, it is a lack of attainment of appropriate education level /skillsets that are confining women to domestic duties.
3. On the supply side, it was argued that as more women in rural areas are now pursuing higher education has delayed their entry into the labour market.
4. It could also be because the household incomes have risen in rural areas on account of higher wage levels which is dragging women out of the labour market.
5. The female LFPR could be low also due to cultural factors, social constraints and patriarchal norms restricting the mobility and freedom of women. The relatively higher responsibilities of unpaid work and unpaid care work could also be constraining women participation in the labour market (World Economic Forum, 2018). On the demand side, the absence of job opportunities and quality jobs and the significant gender wage gap are restraining factors

 

Q19. Under the Ramsar international wetland conservation treaty, wetlands are defined as

1. Areas of Fen
2. Areas of Peatland
3. Areas of temporary water
4. Areas of marine water the depth of which at low tide does not exceed six metres.”

Select the correct code from below:

1. 1,2 and 3
2. 2 and 3
3. 3 and 4
4. 1,2,3 and 4

 

S19.Ans. (d)

Sol.

Under the Ramsar international wetland conservation treaty, wetlands are defined as follows:[17] Article 1.1: “…wetlands are areas of marsh, fen, peatland or water, whether natural or artificial, permanent or temporary, with water that is static or flowing, fresh, brackish or salt, including areas of marine water the depth of which at low tide does not exceed six metres.” Article 2.1: “[Wetlands] may incorporate riparian and coastal zones adjacent to the wetlands, and islands or bodies of marine water deeper than six metres at low tide lying within the wetlands.”

 

 

 

Q20.Consider the following statements regarding National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority NPPA

4. National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority NPPA is a Statutory body set up under the Department of Pharmaceuticals, Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers
5. It is an independent Regulator for the pricing of drugs and to ensure the availability and accessibility of medicines at affordable prices.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

 

S20.Ans. (b)

Sol.

NPPA is an independent body set up in 1997 under the Department of Pharmaceuticals, Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.

The functions of NPPA are:(a)To implement and enforce the provisions of the Drugs (Prices Control) Order (b)Deal with all legal matters arising out of the decisions of the Authority (c) To monitor the availability of drugs, identify shortages and (d)To collect/ maintain data on production, exports and imports, the profitability of companies for bulk drugs and formulation.

 

Q21.Only one side of the moon is visible to aperson on earth because:

(a) the moon lies in the geosynchronous orbit of the earth.

(b) the speed of rotation of the moon is thesame as that of the earth.

(c) the speed of revolution of the moon is the same as that of the earth.

(d) the moon takes the same time to completeone spin as for the revolution of the earth.

 

S21.Ans.(d)

Sol.

• Our earth has only one natural satellite, that is, the moon. Its diameter is only one-quarter that of the earth.
• It appears so big because it is nearer to our planet than other celestial bodies. It is about 3,84,400 km away from us.
• The moon moves around the earth in about 27 days. It takes exactly the same time to complete one spin. As a result, only one side of the moon is visible to us on earth. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

 

Q22. Consider the following statements:

1. Awa tribe is a group of hunter-gatherers who live in Brazil’s Amazon rainforest.
2. Himba people are ethnic group of Namibia.
3. Bayaka Pygmies are inhabitants of Pacific Ocean islands.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S22.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The Awá tribe, which is also known as the Guajá or Awá-Guajá, is a group of hunter-gatherers who live in Brazil’s Amazon rainforest. Since the early 19th century, when European colonizers started infiltrating the Latin American country, the tribe became nomadic to stay hidden from them. To this day, about 100 members of the tribe are still living in remote parts of the jungle to maintain privacy from any outsiders. They are one of the world’s most endangered Indigenous tribes and one of the last few uncontacted peoples. Brazil’s Awá tribe, is heavily threatened by climate change, and the dangerous affects of human activity. Survival International launched a worldwide campaign, backed by the actor Colin Firth, to protect the Awá people. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• The Himba people are probably the most easily recognised of Namibia’s ethnic groups. The Himba are known for their red matted braids, which are painstakingly made by mixing animal fat, ash and ground ochre, a stone found locally. Their images are widely used to advertise the country, but their numbers make up just one or two per cent of the population. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The Bayaka Pygmies are one at least eleven different Pygmy groups in Central Africa. They are original inhabitants of the section of the Congo-Basin rainforest found in the southwestern Central African Republic and northern Republic of Congo (Brazzaville) between the Sangha and Ubangui Rivers. They freely cross the border between countries. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

 

Q23. With reference to the Nord Stream Pipeline, consider the following statements:

1. It is an export gas pipeline that runs via the North Sea.
2. It crosses the Exclusive Economic Zones of only Germany and Russia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S23.Ans.(d)

Sol.

What are the Nord Stream pipelines? o Nord Stream 1 is a 1,224 km underwater gas pipeline running from Vyborg in northwest Russia to Lubmin in northeastern Germany via the Baltic Sea. The majority owned by the Russian energy giant Gazprom, it is the primary network through which gas reaches Germany. Most of the gas goes directly to Germany, while the rest travels west and southwards through onshore links to other countries and into storage caverns. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• The twin pipelines together can transport a combined total of 110 billion cubic metres (bcm) of gas a year to Europe for at least 50 years.
• The Nord Stream crosses the Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs) of several countries including Russia, Finland, Sweden, Denmark and Germany, and the territorial waters of Russia, Denmark, and Germany. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• In Germany, the pipeline connects to the OPAL (Baltic Sea Pipeline) and NEL (North European Pipeline) which further connects to the European grid.

 

Q24. Which among the following pollutantare monitored under the National AirQuality Monitoring Program?

1. Sulphur Dioxide
2. Carbon monoxide
3. PM10
4. NO2

Select the correct answer using thecode given below:

(a) 2 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

S24.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The Central Pollution Control Board is executing a nation-wide program of ambient air quality monitoring known as National Air Quality Monitoring Program (NAMP). The objectives of the N.A.M.P. are to determine status and trends of ambient air quality; to ascertain whether the prescribed ambient air quality standards are violated; to Identify Non-attainment Cities; to obtain the knowledge and understanding necessary for developing preventive and corrective measures. Under N.A.M.P., four air pollutants viz Sulphur Dioxide (SO2), Oxides of Nitrogen as NO2, Respirable Suspended Particulate Matter (RSPM / PM10) and Fine Particulate Matter (PM2.5) have been identified for regular monitoring at all the locations. The monitoring of meteorological parameters such as wind speed and wind direction, relative humidity (RH) and temperature were also integrated with the monitoring of air quality.

 

 

Q25. With reference to the impact of contacts between Central Asia and India on religion, art & Architecture during 200 BC to 300 CE, consider the following statements:

1. It led to the introduction of canal irrigation in India.
2. The use of burnt bricks for flooring and roofing was introduced in India.
3. It led to the introduction of use of the curtains in the Indian theatre.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S25.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option b is the correct answer. The rulers coming from outside including the central Asian countries between 200 BC to 300 CE known as Shaka-Kushana phase introduced various new elements to trade and agriculture, to administrative organization, to art and literature, sculpture and pottery, science and technology, and to Indian society.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Tughlags were first to introduce canal irrigation in India. Barani in tarikh-i- Firozshahi tells us that Ghiasuddin Tughlaq was the first ruler to undertake construction of canals.

Statement 2 is correct. The rulers of central Asia introduced several material elements in the already existing techniques of Indian architecture. The Saka-Kushana phase is demonstrative of an advance in building activities. They introduced the use of burnt bricks and tiles for both flooring and roofing. The period is also marked by the construction of brick walls. Brick wells may also have been introduced during this period.

Statement 3 is correct. The foreign rulers were patrons of Indian art and drama. The Greeks contributed to the development of the Indian theatre by introducing the use of the curtain, which was called yavanika as an imperative element of theatre that plays an important role in the scenic representation of theatre. The word javanika or yavanika for curtain even finds place in the Natyashastra by Bharata.

 

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