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OSSSC RI, ARI, AMIN, SFS, ICDS Supervisor 2024 Practice Test-5

The OSSSC RI, ARI, AMIN, SFS, ICDS Supervisor 2024 Practice Test is designed to help candidates prepare for the upcoming competitive exams conducted by the Odisha Subordinate Staff Selection Commission (OSSS(c). This test covers key topics such as reasoning, general knowledge, mathematics, and subject-specific questions relevant to each post. It provides candidates with a comprehensive understanding of the exam pattern, time management, and difficulty level. By practicing regularly, candidates can enhance their problem-solving skills and boost confidence, improving their chances of success in the OSSSC 2024 exams.

OSSSC RI, ARI, AMIN, SFS, ICDS Supervisor 2024 Practice Test-5

  1. A total of 91 boys are seated in three rows. The ratio between the number of boys seated in the first and the second row is 5: 2 respectively and the ratio between the number of boys seated in the second and the third row is 1: 3 respectively. How many boys were there in the second row?
    (a)35
    (b) 14
    (c) 42
    (d)56
    Answer:(b) 14OSSSC RI, ARI, AMIN, SFS, ICDS Supervisor 2024 Practice Test-5_3.1
  2. Find the missing number in the sequence:5,11,19,29,41,?
    (a) 54
    (b) 56
    (c) 55
    (d) 62Answer: (c) 55Solution: Look at the differences between the consecutive terms: difference is, 6,8,10,12 …… so next add14

     

  3. The average of 5 numbers is 12. If the sum of the first three numbers is 36 and the sum of the last three numbers is 48, what is the fourth number?
    (a) 14
    (b) 15
    (c) 16
    (d) 17Answer: (c) 16Solution: The total sum of the 5 numbers is
    5×12=60.
    Given that the sum of the first three numbers is 36 and the sum of the last three numbers is 48, the fourth number is calculated as follows:
    48−36=12.
    Therefore, the sum of the fourth and fifth numbers is
    60−36=24.
    Since the sum of the last three numbers is 48, and the sum of the first three numbers is 36, the difference between the sums of the last three numbers and the first three numbers equals the fourth number.
    Therefore, the fourth number is 16.
  4. The average of 10 numbers is 20. If the sum of the first five numbers is 80, what is the average of the last five numbers?
    (a) 10
    (b) 16
    (c) 20
    (d) 24Answer: (d) 24Solution: The total sum of the 10 numbers is
    10×20=200.
    Given the sum of the first five numbers is 80, the sum of the last five numbers is:
    200−80=120
    The average of the last five numbers is calculated as:
    120÷5=24
    Therefore, the average of the last five numbers is 24.
  5. The average of a set of numbers is 30. If the sum of all the numbers is 360, how many numbers are in the set?
    (a) 12
    (b) 15
    (c) 18
    (d) 20
    Answer: (a) 12
    Solution: Given the average of the numbers is 30 and the sum of all the numbers is 360, we can find the number of values in the set by dividing the sum by the average:
    360÷30=12
    Therefore, there are 12 numbers in the set.
  6. The average of 4 consecutive integers is 18.5. What is the largest integer in the set?
    (a) 18
    (b) 19
    (c) 20
    (d) 21Answer: (c) 20OSSSC RI, ARI, AMIN, SFS, ICDS Supervisor 2024 Practice Test-5_4.1
  7. Tarun ran 12 laps every day for two weeks. How many laps did she run in all?
    (a) 177
    (b) 168
    (c) 189
    (d) 186
    Ans: (b) 168
    Solution:
    Number of laps ran by Tarun in a day = 12
    Number of day = 2 weeks = 2 × 7 days = 14 days
    Total laps run by Tarun in 2 weeks = 12 × 14 = 168
  8. A person divided 10,800 among his 3 sons in the ratio 3: 4: 5. Second son kept 1000 for himself, gave 600 to his wife, and divided the remaining money among his 2 daughters in the ratio 11: 9. Then one of his daughters received
    (a) ₹1000
    (b) ₹1050
    (c) ₹ 1100
    (d) ₹1150
    Answer: (c) ₹ 1100OSSSC RI, ARI, AMIN, SFS, ICDS Supervisor 2024 Practice Test-5_5.1
  9. In a school the number of boys and that of the girls are in the respective ratio of 2:3. If the number of boys is increased by 20% and that of girls is increased by 10%, what will be the new ratio of number of boys to that of the girls?
    (a) 14:5
    (b) 5:8
    (c) 7:11
    (d) None of these
    Answer (d) None of theseOSSSC RI, ARI, AMIN, SFS, ICDS Supervisor 2024 Practice Test-5_6.1
  10. Income of two companies A and B are in the ratio of 5: 8. Had the income of company A been more by 25 lakhs, the ratio of their incomes would have been 5: 4 respectively. What is the income of company B?
    (a) ₹80 lakhs
    (b) 50 lakhs
    (c) ₹ 40 lakhs
    (d) ₹60 lakhs
    Answer:(c) ₹ 40 lakhsOSSSC RI, ARI, AMIN, SFS, ICDS Supervisor 2024 Practice Test-5_7.1
  11. ‘ସ୍ଵର୍ଗାରୋହଣ’ ଶବ୍ଦଟି କେଉଁ ନିୟମରେ ଗଠିତ ହୋଇଛି?
    (a) ବିସର୍ଗ ସନ୍ଧି
    (b) ସ୍ଵର ସନ୍ଧି
    (c) ତଦ୍ଧିତ
    (d) ବ୍ୟଞ୍ଜନ ସନ୍ଧିAns: (b) ସ୍ଵର ସନ୍ଧି
  12. ‘ନିର୍ଗତ’ ଶବ୍ଦରେ କେଉଁ ଉପସର୍ଗଟି ରହିଛି?
    (a) ଅନୁ
    (b) ନିର୍
    (c) ନିଃ
    (d) ନିAns: (b) ନିର୍
  13. ନିମ୍ନଲିଖିତ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ କେଉଁଟି ‘ଅରବିନ୍ଦ’ ଶବ୍ଦର ସମାର୍ଥକ ଶବ୍ଦ?
    (a) ରାଜୀବ
    (b) ମାରୁତ
    (c) ସରିତ
    (d) ଶକୁନ୍ତAns: (a) ରାଜୀବ
  14. କୁମୁଦ ଫଳ ଟୋକେଇ ଟିଏ ଧରି ଘରକୁ ଆସିଲା | ରେଖାଙ୍କିତ ଶବ୍ଦଟି କେଉଁ ଶ୍ରେଣୀର ଶବ୍ଦ ଅଟେ?
    (a) ତଦ୍ ଭବ
    (b) ଦେଶଜ
    (c) ଆରବୀ
    (d) ପାର୍ସୀAns: (b) ଦେଶଜ
  15. ରାମ ଗୋଟିଏ ବୋକା ପିଲା | ରେଖାଙ୍କିତ ଶବ୍ଦଟି କେଉଁ ଶ୍ରେଣୀଭୁକ୍ତ?
    (a) ବୈଦେଶିକ
    (b) ତଦ୍ ଭବ
    (c) ତତ୍ ସମ
    (d) ଦେଶଜAns:  (d) ଦେଶଜ
  16. ନିମ୍ନଲିଖିତ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ କେଉଁ ଯୋଡ଼ା ଶବ୍ଦ ପରସ୍ପରର ବିପରୀତ?
    (a) କୀର୍ତ୍ତି-ସୁକୀର୍ତି
    (b) ଦୟାଳୁ-ଭୟାଳୁ
    (c) ତୋଷ-ରୋଷ
    (d) ଆଲୋକ-ଉଜ୍ଜ୍ଵଳAns:  (c) ତୋଷ-ରୋଷ
  17. ‘ଦଶକଥା’ – ରୂଢିଟିର ଅର୍ଥ କ’ଣ?
    (a) ଦଶଟି କଥା
    (b) ଦେଶର ହାଲଚାଲ
    (c) ଦଶଜଣଙ୍କ କଥା
    (d) ନାନାକଥାAns:  (d) ନାନାକଥା
  18. ନିମ୍ନଲିଖିତ ଶବ୍ଦ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ କ୍ରିୟାଜ ବିଶେଷଣ ପଦଟିକୁ ଚିହ୍ନଟ କର |
    (a) ମେଧାବୀ
    (b) ସାମାନ୍ୟ
    (c) ଶାନ୍ତଶିଷ୍ଟ
    (d) ଜଣାଶୁଣାAns:  (d) ଜଣାଶୁଣା
  19. ବିଶେଷ୍ୟ ପଦ ପରେ ବିଶେଷଣ ପଦ ବ୍ୟବହୃତ ହେଲେ ତାକୁ କି ପ୍ରକାର ବିଶେଷଣ କୁହାଯାଏ?
    (a) କ୍ରିୟା ବିଶେଷଣ
    (b) ବିଧେୟ ବିଶେଷଣ
    (c) ବିଶେଷ୍ୟ ରୂପୀ ବିଶେଷଣ
    (d) ଅବ୍ୟୟର ବିଶେଷଣAns:  (b) ବିଧେୟ ବିଶେଷଣ
  20. ଆହାର ଓ ବିହାର- ଉଭୟେ ହୁ ଧାତୁରୁ ଗଠିତ । ଏହି ଦୁଇଟିରେ ଅର୍ଥଗତ ପାର୍ଥକ୍ୟ କାହିଁକି ଦେଖାଯାଏ ?
    (a) ଧାତୁ ଯୋଗୁଁ
    (b) ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ଯୋଗୁଁ
    (c) ଉପସର୍ଗ ଯୋଗୁଁ
    (d) ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ଓ ଜପସର୍ଗ ଯୋଗୁଁAns:  (c) ଉପସର୍ଗ ଯୋଗୁଁ
  21. Choose the word that is most similar to the given word: “Sunrise”
    (a) Moonrise
    (b) Sunset
    (c) Nightfall
    (d) Dawn
    Answer: (d) Dawn
    Solution: The closest synonym for “sunrise” is “dawn,” which refers to the time of day when the sun rises.
  22. Identify the word that is different from the others:
    (a) Apple
    (b) Mango
    (c) Orange
    (d) Potato
    Answer: (d) Potato
    Solution: Apple, mango, and orange are fruits, while potato is a vegetable.
  23. A cube is given with each side numbered 1 through 6. If the cube is rotated such that the 1st face becomes the top face and the 6th face remains at the bottom, which face will be at the front?
    (a) 2
    (b) 3
    (c) 4
    (d) 5
    Answer: (b) 3
    Solution: Given the top and bottom faces, rotating the cube such that 1 and 6 are maintained, the only remaining possible front face is 3.
  24. In a sequence of numbers, find the missing number: 3, 6, 9, __, 15
    (a) 10
    (b) 11
    (c) 12
    (d) 13
    Answer: (c) 12
    Solution: The pattern involves adding 3 each time: 3 + 3 = 6, 6 + 3 = 9, 9 + 3 = 12, 12 + 3 = 15.
  25. If you are facing north and turn 90 degrees to your right, which direction will you be facing?
    (a) South
    (b) East
    (c) West
    (d) North
    Answer: (b) East
    Solution: Turning 90 degrees to the right from facing north will point you in the direction of east.
  26. Which of the following shapes does not belong in the group?
    (a) Circle
    (b) Rectangle
    (c) Square
    (d) Triangle
    Answer: (a) Circle
    Solution: The other three shapes (rectangle, square, and triangle) have straight lines, while a circle is round.
  27. Which shape can be created by folding a square piece of paper diagonally and then folding it in half again?
    (a) Square
    (b) Rectangle
    (c) Triangle
    (d) Hexagon
    Answer: (c) Triangle
    Solution: Folding a square piece of paper diagonally twice results in a triangle shape.
  28. John needs to catch a flight that departs at 3:00 PM. It takes him 45 minutes to get to the airport, and he needs to arrive one hour before the flight departs. At what time should he leave home?
    (a) 1:00 PM
    (b) 1:15 PM
    (c) 1:30 PM
    (d) 2:00 PM
    Answer: (b) 1:15 PM
    Solution: John needs to arrive at the airport by 2:00 PM (one hour before the flight). Since it takes him 45 minutes to get there, he should leave home at 1:15 PM.
  29. Given the sequence of letters: A, C, E, G, __, what is the next letter?
    (a) H
    (b) I
    (c) J
    (d) K
    Answer: (b) ISolution: The sequence progresses by skipping one letter each time: A to C (skip (b), C to E (skip (d), E to G (skip F), and then G to I (skip H). So, the next letter in the sequence is I.
  30. You have three friends: one is reliable but not particularly skilled, another is skilled but not reliable, and the third is both skilled and reliable. Which friend should you choose for a project?
    (a) The reliable but unskilled friend
    (b) The skilled but unreliable friend
    (c) The skilled and reliable friend
    (d) None of the above
    Answer: (c) The skilled and reliable friend
    Solution: The best choice is the friend who is both skilled and reliable for successful project completion.
  31. Choose the correct sentence:
    (a) She will go to the market yesterday.
    (b) She went to the market yesterday.
    (c) She is going to the market tomorrow.
    (d) She is going to the market yesterday.
    Answer: (b) She went to the market yesterday
  32. Identify the correct preposition:
    (a) She is good in painting.
    (b) She is good on painting.
    (c) She is good at painting.
    (d) She is good with painting.
    Answer: (c) She is good at painting.
  33. Choose the correct conjunction:
    (a) I will come if you will call me.
    (b) I will come when you call me.
    (c) I will come because you call me.
    (d) I will come so you call me.
    Answer: (b) I will come when you call me.
  34. Convert the sentence to passive voice: “The teacher praised the student.”
    (a) The student was praised by the teacher.
    (b) The student praises the teacher.
    (c) The student was praising the teacher.
    (d) The teacher is praised by the student.
    Answer: (a) The student was praised by the teacher.
  35. Choose the correct substitution:
    (a) A person who walks in their sleep.
    (b) A person who talks too much.
    (c) A person who loves solitude.
    (d) A person who hates mankind.
    Answer: (a) A person who walks in their sleep.
  36. Identify the correct homophone:
    (a) Flower/flour
    (b) Pair/pear
    (c) Soar/sore
    (d) Bore/boar
    Answer: (a) Flower/flour
  37. Find the synonym for “Benevolent”:
    (a) Malevolent
    (b) Kind
    (c) Hostile
    (d) Gracious
    Answer: (b) Kind
  38. What does the idiom “Bite the bullet” mean?
    (a) To endure a painful experience
    (b) To avoid a difficult situation
    (c) To celebrate success
    (d) To overcome a fear
    Answer: (a) To endure a painful experience
  39. Identify the error in the sentence: “Each of the students are required to submit their assignments.”
    (a) Each
    (b) Students
    (c) Are
    (d) Their
    Answer: (c) Are
  40. Choose the synonym for “Ponder”:
    (a) Reflect
    (b) Ignore
    (c) Conclude
    (d) Hasten
    Answer: (a) Reflect
  41. In which article of the Indian Constitution is the provision for Habeas Corpus mentioned?
    (a) Article 32
    (b) Article 21
    (c) Article 14
    (d) Article 19
    Answer: (a) Article 32
  42. What does the term “Quo Warranto” mean among the types of writs?
    (a) By what warrant or authority
    (b) To have the body of
    (c) We command
    (d) Let it be certified
    Answer: (a) By what warrant or authority
  43. The river Brahmaputra is known as ___ in Bangladesh.
    (a) Jamuna
    (b) Ganges
    (c) Teesta
    (d) Padma
    Answer: (a) Jamuna
  44. Who invented the telephone?
    (a) Alexander Graham Bell
    (b) Thomas Edison
    (c) Nikola Tesla
    (d) James Watt
    Answer: (a) Alexander Graham Bell
  45. The first woman Prime Minister of India was:
    (a) Indira Gandhi
    (b) Sonia Gandhi
    (c) Margaret Thatcher
    (d) Golda Meir
    Answer: (a) Indira Gandhi
  46. Who is the author of “Mudrarakshasa”?
    (a) Vishakhadatta
    (b) Kalidasa
    (c) Bhasa
    (d) Amoghavarsha
    Answer: (a) Vishakhadatta
  47. Why are echoes not heard when a hall is full of people?
    (a) Echoes are subdued in the noise of people
    (b) Soft clothes of people absorb sound instead of reflecting it
    (c) Destructive interference of sound takes place
    (d) Excessive reverberations take place
    Answer: A [Echoes are subdued in the noise of people]
  48. Which launch vehicle will be used to launch the propulsion, descender, and ascender modules of Chandrayaan-4?
    (a) Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV)
    (b) Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle Mark III (GSLV Mk III)
    (c) Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle Mark II (GSLV Mk II)
    (d) Liquid Propulsion Vehicle (LVM-3)
    Answer: (d) Liquid Propulsion Vehicle (LVM-3)
  49. In which region of India is Odisha located?
    (a) Northern India
    (b) Southern India
    (c) Eastern India
    (d) Western India
    Answer: (c) Eastern India
  50. What are the approximate latitudinal boundaries of Odisha?
    (a) 10.23’N to 15.34’N
    (b) 17.49’N to 22.34’N
    (c) 25.56’N to 30.41’N
    (d) 32.17’N to 35.28’N
    Answer: (b) 17.49’N to 22.34’N

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OSSSC RI, ARI, AMIN, SFS, ICDS Supervisor 2024 Practice Test-5_10.1