The SSB TGT Arts examination is a highly competitive test aimed at selecting qualified teachers for various educational institutions. Aspiring candidates must exhibit comprehensive knowledge in arts subjects and proficiency in pedagogy. One of the most effective ways to prepare for this examination is by practicing multiple-choice questions (MCQs). This article delves into the significance of practicing MCQs, tips for effective preparation, and provides a set of sample questions to get you started.
Practice MCQs for SSB TGT Arts
- Which of the following Act ensured the establishment of the supreme court in India?
A. Pitt’s India Act AD 1784
B. The Regulating Act AD 1773
C. Charter Act 1793 AD
D. Charter Act 1813 AD
Ans. B. The Regulating Act AD 1773 - Who was the Viceroy at the time of Quit India Movement?
A. Lord Mountbatten
B. Lord Wavell
C. Lord Linlithgow
D. Lord Irwin
Ans. C. Lord Linlithgow - Sir Thomas Roe came to India with a letter from the British Monarch
A. Queen Mary
B. Queen Elizabeth
C. James I
D. Queen Anne
Ans. C. James I - Subsidiary Alliance was introduced by
A. Lord Wellesley
B. Sir John Shore
C. Robert Clive
D. Lord Dalhousie
Ans. A. Lord Wellesley - The policy of Doctrine of lapse was introduced by
A. Lord Wellesley
B. Lord William Bentinck
C. Lord Macaulay
D. Lord Dalhousie
Ans: D. Lord Dalhousie - Assertion (A): On 25th April 1809, the Treaty of Amritsar was signed between Ranjit Singh and East India Company.
Reason (R): Ranjit Singh wanted to increase the realm of his empire with the help of the company.
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
C. A is true, but R is false
D. A is false, but R is true
Ans. C. A is true, but R is false - Which event marked Serbia’s achievement of independence from the Ottoman Empire?
a) 1878
b) 1881
c) 1904
d) 1914
Answer: a) 1878 - Which countries formed the Triple Alliance in 1881?
a) Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy
b) France, Russia, and Britain
c) Serbia, Bulgaria, and Greece
d) Ottoman Empire, Egypt, and Tunisia
Answer: a) Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy - Which year saw Britain solidify diplomatic ties by forming the Entente Cordiale with France?
a) 1878
b) 1881
c) 1904
d) 1914
Answer: c) 1904 - When did the German invasion of Poland occur?
A) September 1, 1939
B) June 6, 1944
C) December 7, 1941
D) August 6, 1945
Answer: A) September 1, 1939 - What is another name for the initial quiet period in Western Europe during World War II?
A) Blitzkrieg
B) Phoney War
C) Operation Barbarossa
D) Battle of Britain
Answer: B) Phoney War - Which term is used to describe the significant role of the Prime Minister in the Indian parliamentary setup?
A) Presidential Government
B) Prime Ministerial Government
C) Cabinet Government
D) Federal Government
Ans. B) Prime Ministerial Government - In addition to factories, where else is the employment of children under 14 years of age prohibited in hazardous conditions?
A) Farms
B) Restaurants
C) Construction sites
D) Mines
Ans. D) Mines - Which constitution allows modifications similar to the enactment of regular laws, thus considered flexible?
A) Indian Constitution
B) American Constitution
C) British Constitution
D) Irish Constitution
Ans. C) British Constitution - The rigidity or flexibility of a constitution is primarily determined by its:
A) Structure
B) Preamble
C) Amendment process
D) Fundamental Rights
Ans. C) Amendment process - Which feature of the Indian Constitution is primarily inspired by the American Constitution?
A) Federal structure
B) Parliamentary system
C) Separation of powers
D) Unitary bias
Ans. C) Separation of powers - The Indian Constitution embodies key features of a federation, including:
A) Parliamentary sovereignty
B) Absolute separation of powers
C) Dual governments
D) Unitary governance
Ans. C) Dual governments - Which of the following latitudinal and longitudinal extents is correct for India?
A) Latitude: 8°4′ N to 37°6′ N, Longitude: 68°7′ E to 97°25′ E
B) Latitude: 6°5′ N to 35°6′ N, Longitude: 70°7′ E to 99°25′ E
C) Latitude: 10°4′ N to 40°6′ N, Longitude: 60°7′ E to 90°25′ E
D) Latitude: 12°4′ N to 39°6′ N, Longitude: 65°7′ E to 95°25′ E
Answer: A) Latitude: 8°4′ N to 37°6′ N, Longitude: 68°7′ E to 97°25′ E - Which of the following states is NOT crossed by the Tropic of Cancer?
A) Gujarat
B) Odisha
C) West Bengal
D) Tripura
Answer: B) Odisha - Which of the following correctly describes the size of India in terms of its global geographical area?
A) 1.4% of the total geographical area of the world
B) 2.4% of the total geographical area of the world
C) 3.4% of the total geographical area of the world
D) 4.4% of the total geographical area of the world
Answer: B) 2.4% of the total geographical area of the world - Which of the following statements about India’s boundaries is incorrect?
A) The land boundary of India is approximately 15,200 km.
B) The total length of the coastline of India, including the islands, is 7517 km.
C) The longest border is shared with China.
D) The shortest border is shared with Afghanistan.
Answer: C) The longest border is shared with China. - The Standard Meridian of India (82°30′ E) passes through which of the following states?
A) Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, West Bengal, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh
B) Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh
C) Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh
D) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh
Answer: C) Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh - ଗୁଣବାଚକ ବିଶେଷ୍ୟର ଗୁଣ କହିଲେ କ’ଣ ବୁଝାଏ?
(a) ଭଲ ଗୁଣ
(b) ମନ୍ଦ ଗୁଣ
(c) ଉଭୟ ଭଲ ଓ ମନ୍ଦ ଗୁଣ
(d) ବିଶେଷ ଗୁଣ
Ans.(c) ଉଭୟ ଭଲ ଓ ମନ୍ଦ ଗୁଣ‘ଜିତେନ୍ଦ୍ରିୟ’ ଶବ୍ଦର ବିପରୀତାର୍ଥବୋଧକ ଶବ୍ଦ ବାଛି ।
(a) ଅଜିତେନ୍ଦ୍ରିୟ
(b) ଅଇନ୍ଦ୍ରିୟ
(c) ଇନ୍ଦ୍ରିୟାସକ୍ତା
(d) ଇନ୍ଦ୍ରଜିତ
Ans.(c) ଇନ୍ଦ୍ରିୟାସକ୍ତା - ‘ ଅଧିକାର’ ଅର୍ଥରେ ‘ଦାଶ’ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ଯୋଗରେ ଗଠିତ ଶବ୍ଦକୁ ବାଛ।
(a) ମଜାଦାର
(b) ଚୌକିଦାର
(c) ଜମିଦାର
(d) ଦଫାଦାର
Ans.(c) ଜମିଦାର - କ୍ରିୟାପଦର ଶେଷକୁ ଲାଗିଥିବା ବର୍ଣ୍ଣ ବା ବର୍ଣ୍ଣ ସମଷ୍ଟିକୁ କ’ଣ କୁହାଯାଏ?
(a) ବିଭକ୍ତି
(b) ଧାତୁ
(c) କ୍ରିୟା ବିଭକ୍ତି
(d) କାରକ
Ans.(c) କ୍ରିୟା ବିଭକ୍ତି - ‘ଦ୍ରୋଣୀ’ ଏକର ସମାର୍ଥବୋଧକ ଶବ୍ଦ ବାଛ ।
(a) ଅଶ୍ୱତଥାମା
(b) ଜଳକୁଣ୍ଡ
(c) ସାନଡଙ୍ଗା
(d) କର୍ଣ୍ଣ
Ans.a) ଅଶ୍ୱତଥାମା - Choose the sentence with the correct use of adverb:
(A) She performed very good on the test.
(B) She performed very well on the test.
(C) She performed very goodly on the test.
(D) She performed very goodness on the test.
Ans. (B) She performed very well on the test. - Identify the sentence with the correct adverb placement:
(A) John almost always arrives late.
(B) John arrives almost always late.
(C) John arrives always almost late.
(D) John arrives late almost always.
Ans. (A) John almost always arrives late. - Choose the sentence with the correct subject-verb agreement:
(A) The dog barks loudly in the mornings.
(B) The dogs bark loudly in the mornings.
(C) The dog bark loudly in the mornings.
(D) The dogs barked loudly in the mornings.
Ans. (A) The dog barks loudly in the mornings. - Identify the sentence with the correct use of a pronoun:
(A) Him and I went to the movies.
(B) Me and him went to the movies.
(C) He and I went to the movies.
(D) Me and he went to the movies.
Ans. (C) He and I went to the movies. - Choose the sentence with the correct verb tense:
(A) I am going to the store tomorrow.
(B) I will go to the store tomorrow.
(C) I go to the store tomorrow.
(D) I goes to the store tomorrow.
Ans. (B) I will go to the store tomorrow. - Which assessment approach is most likely to foster student engagement and intrinsic motivation in a constructivist classroom?
a) Traditional paper-and-pencil tests
b) Performance-based assessments
c) Standardized assessments
d) Rote memorization tasks
Ans: c) Standardized assessments - What is the main goal of assessment in a constructivist classroom?
a) To rank students based on their performance
b) To motivate competition among students
c) To promote deep understanding and meaningful learning
d) To emphasize memorization of facts
Ans: c) To promote deep understanding and meaningful learning - Which of the following is an example of a performance task in constructivist assessment?
a) Matching definitions to terms
b) Multiple-choice quiz
c) Creating a multimedia presentation
d) True/false statements
Ans: c) Creating a multimedia presentation - What is the primary purpose of self-assessment in constructivist learning?
a) To evaluate peers’ performance
b) To compare one’s performance with others
c) To reflect on one’s learning progress and understanding
d) To compete for grades
Ans: c) To reflect on one’s learning progress and understanding - Which assessment strategy is most aligned with the principles of constructivism?
a) Standardized testing
b) Performance-based assessment
c) Closed-ended questions
d) Memory recall tasks
Ans: b) Performance-based assessment - What is one of the key factors driving India’s economic growth according to the provided overview?
A) Declining middle-class population
B) Aging demographic
C) Dynamic entrepreneurial spirit
D) Increasing government intervention
ANS:- C) Dynamic entrepreneurial spirit - According to the provided overview, what growth rate was registered in the recent quarter?
A) 5%
B) 7.7%
C) 10%
D) 12%
ANS:- B) 7.7% - Which sector is highlighted for its significant contribution to India’s GDP in the provided overview?
A) Agriculture
B) Manufacturing
C) Services
D) Mining
ANS:- C) Services - How does the ‘Strategy for New India @75’ aim to boost the manufacturing sector?
A) By imposing strict trade barriers
B) By promoting self-reliance and global competitiveness
C) By reducing government support
D) By limiting foreign investments
ANS:- B) By promoting self-reliance and global competitiveness
