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Top 30 Geography and Economics MCQs For Odisha B.Ed Entrance Exam 03 June 2024

Preparing for the Odisha B.Ed entrance exam requires a solid understanding of various subjects, including Geography and Economics. Here is a set of 30 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) designed to help you test your knowledge and prepare effectively for the exam.

Top 30 Geography and Economics MCQs For Odisha B.Ed Entrance Exam

  1. What is the primary purpose of the Geographic Coordinate System (GCS)?
    A) To measure distances on a flat plane
    B) To pinpoint positions on Earth’s surface using latitude and longitude
    C) To determine elevation levels
    D) To navigate underwater terrain
    ANS:- B) To pinpoint positions on Earth’s surface using latitude and longitude.
    Sol:- The primary purpose of the Geographic Coordinate System (GCS) is to pinpoint positions on Earth’s surface using latitude and longitude. Therefore, the correct answer is B) To pinpoint positions on Earth’s surface using latitude and longitude.
  2. Which characteristic distinguishes the Geographic Coordinate System (GCS) from Cartesian coordinates?
    A) Use of angular measurements
    B) Utilization of meters as the unit of measurement
    C) Implementation of a cylindrical projection
    D) Reliance on a flat plane for calculations
    ANS:- A) Use of angular measurements
    Sol:- The characteristic that distinguishes the Geographic Coordinate System (GCS) from Cartesian coordinates is A) Use of angular measurements. Unlike Cartesian coordinates, which operate on a flat plane and use linear measurements, the GCS employs angular measurements to account for Earth’s spherical or geodetic nature. Therefore, option A is correct.
  3. According to GCS standards such as EPSG and ISO 19111, what elements are encompassed within a comprehensive GCS specification?
    A) Latitude and longitude only
    B) Latitude, longitude, and elevation
    C) Latitude, longitude, and geodetic datums
    D) Latitude, longitude, and Cartesian coordinates
    ANS:- C) Latitude, longitude, and geodetic datums
    Sol:- According to GCS standards such as EPSG and ISO 19111, a comprehensive GCS specification encompasses C) Latitude, longitude, and geodetic datums. These standards include not only latitude and longitude but also a selection of geodetic datums, such as Earth ellipsoids, which are crucial for accurately referencing locations on Earth’s surface.
  4. How does the choice of datum impact latitude and longitude coordinates in the Geographic Coordinate System (GCS)?
    A) It determines the projection method used.
    B) It affects the accuracy of the measurements.
    C) It does not influence latitude and longitude coordinates.
    D) It determines the unit of measurement.
    ANS:- B) It affects the accuracy of the measurements
    Sol:- The choice of datum significantly influences the latitude and longitude coordinates assigned to a particular location, impacting the accuracy of the measurements. Different datums have different models for the shape and size of the Earth, which affects how coordinates are calculated and can lead to variations in accuracy. Therefore, The correct answer is B) It affects the accuracy of the measurements.
  5. Which of the following best describes the Geographic Coordinate System (GCS)?
    A) A modern spatial reference system designed for urban planning
    B) A method primarily used for celestial navigation
    C) The oldest, simplest, and most widely employed spatial reference system
    D) A system exclusively used for underwater mapping
    ANS:- C) The oldest, simplest, and most widely employed spatial reference system.
    Sol:- The best description of the Geographic Coordinate System (GCS) is C) The oldest, simplest, and most widely employed spatial reference system. The GCS serves as the foundational method for pinpointing positions on Earth’s surface using latitude and longitude measurements. It is widely employed across various disciplines and applications due to its simplicity and effectiveness in representing locations on the Earth’s surface. Therefore, option C) is correct.
  6. What does physiography entail?
    A) The study of physical geography and natural features of a region.
    B) The study of human geography and cultural aspects of a region.
    C) The study of political boundaries and administrative divisions.
    D) The study of economic activities and resource distribution.
    ANS:- A) The study of physical geography and natural features of a region.
    Sol:- Physiography encompasses the examination of the physical attributes and natural characteristics that define a region’s landscape, including landforms, terrain, climate, vegetation, and water bodies. So the correct answer is A) The study of physical geography and natural features of a region.
  7. What geographical features contribute to India’s diverse terrain?
    A) Dense forests and lush greenery.
    B) Rugged mountains and deep valleys.
    C) Arid deserts and sandy dunes.
    D) All of the above.
    ANS:- D) All of the above.
    Sol:- India’s terrain is characterized by a wide range of geographical features, including dense forests, rugged mountains, deep valleys, arid deserts, and sandy dunes, contributing to its diverse landscape. So the correct answer is D) All of the above.
  8. Which physiographic division is known for its monumental tectonic activity?
    A) The Himalayan Mountains.
    B) The Northern Plains.
    C) The Peninsular Plateau.
    D) The Indian Desert.
    ANS:- A) The Himalayan Mountains.
    Sol:- The Himalayan Mountains are known for their towering peaks and are formed due to monumental tectonic activity, making them one of the most significant physiographic divisions of India. So the correct answer is A) The Himalayan Mountains.
  9. What is the significance of the Tropic of Cancer in India’s geographical context?
    A) It marks the border between India and its neighboring countries.
    B) It divides India into northern and southern regions.
    C) It determines the climate zones within India.
    D) It has no significance in India’s geography.
    ANS:- B) It divides India into northern and southern regions.
    Sol:- The Tropic of Cancer divides India into two halves – northern and southern regions, influencing the climate and weather patterns across the country. So the correct answer is B) It divides India into northern and southern regions.
  10. Which physiographic division is characterized by stable tablelands and dissected plateaus?
    A) The Himalayan Mountains.
    B) The Northern Plains.
    C) The Peninsular Plateau.
    D) The Indian Desert.
    ANS:- C) The Peninsular Plateau.
    Sol:- The Peninsular Plateau in India is characterized by stable tablelands and dissected plateaus, contributing to its unique geological features. So the correct answer is C) The Peninsular Plateau.
  11. What percentage of the Earth’s water volume is constituted by seawater?
    A) 4.1%
    B) 93%
    C) 0.2%
    D) 0.0001%
    ANS:- B) 93%
    Sol:- Seawater accounts for approximately 93% of the Earth’s total water volume. The correct answer is B) 93%.
  12. What percentage of the Earth’s water volume is fresh water on land?
    A) 4.1%
    B) 93%
    C) 0.2%
    D) 0.0001%
    ANS:- A) 4.1%
    Sol:- Freshwater on land, which includes water in lakes, rivers, groundwater, and glaciers, accounts for approximately 2.5% of the Earth’s total water volume. However, if we consider the total volume of water on Earth, including both freshwater and seawater, freshwater on land makes up about 4.1% of the total volume. Therefore, option A) 4.1% is the correct answer.
  13. How much of the Earth’s water volume is held by underground water reservoirs?
    A) 8 million cubic kilometers
    B) 1.4 billion cubic kilometers
    C) 0.2%
    D) 93%
    ANS:- A) 8 million cubic kilometers
    Sol:- Groundwater reservoirs hold approximately 8 million cubic kilometers of the Earth’s water volume. Therefore, option A) 8 million cubic kilometers is the correct answer.
  14. What is the primary utilization of water mentioned in the text?
    A) Agriculture
    B) Industrial processes
    C) Drinking
    D) Transportation
    ANS:- C) Drinking
    Sol:- The primary utilization of water mentioned in the text is Drinking. Drinking water is a fundamental necessity for human survival and is a critical use of water resources. Therefore, option C) Drinking is the correct answer.
  15. Which sector is the largest consumer of water globally according to the text?
    A) Industrial
    B) Agricultural
    C) Residential
    D) Commercial
    ANS:- B) Agricultural sector.
    Sol:- According to the typical distribution of water usage, accounting for approximately 70% of total usage. So the largest consumer of water globally is B) the Agricultural sector.
  16. What detrimental effect can arise from groundwater withdrawal surpassing recharge rates?
    A) Increased agricultural productivity
    B) Land subsidence
    C) Decreased salinity
    D) Enhanced infrastructure
    ANS:- B) Land subsidence.
    Sol:- The detrimental effect that can arise from groundwater withdrawal surpassing recharge rates is B) Land subsidence. When groundwater is withdrawn at a faster rate than it can be replenished, the water table drops, causing the soil to compact and settle, leading to land subsidence.
  17. What criteria are emphasized in the definition of a forest according to the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)?
    a) Vegetation density
    b) Land area, tree canopy cover, and tree height
    c) Presence of wildlife
    d) Soil fertility
    ANS:- b) Land area, tree canopy cover, and tree height
    Sol:- The FAO’s definition of a forest emphasizes criteria such as land area, tree canopy cover, and tree height. So the correct answer is b) Land area, tree canopy cover, and tree height
  18. What is the primary ecosystem service provided by forests mentioned in the passage?
    a) Carbon sequestration
    b) Economic opportunities
    c) Oxygen production
    d) Climate regulation
    ANS:- c) Oxygen production
    Sol:- Forests are vital for oxygen production through photosynthesis. So the correct answer is c) Oxygen production
  19. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an economic benefit of forests?
    a) Tourism
    b) Raw materials
    c) Agricultural production
    d) Medicinal plants
    ANS:- c) Agricultural production
    Sol:- While forests provide various economic benefits, agricultural production is not directly mentioned. So the correct answer is c) Agricultural production
  20. What role do forests play in mitigating the impacts of natural disasters?
    a) They cause natural disasters
    b) They absorb excess water and prevent soil erosion
    c) They amplify the effects of natural disasters
    d) They do not affect natural disasters
    ANS:- b) They absorb excess water and prevent soil erosion
    Sol:- Forests can mitigate the impacts of natural disasters such as floods by absorbing excess water and preventing soil erosion. So the correct answer is b) They absorb excess water and prevent soil erosion
  21. What term is used to describe the process by which forests absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?
    a) Carbon sequestration
    b) Climate regulation
    c) Photosynthesis
    d) Ecosystem service
    ANS:- a) Carbon sequestration
    Sol:- Carbon sequestration refers to the process by which forests absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. So the correct answer is a) Carbon sequestration
  22. In which country is the percentage of water used for agriculture the highest?
    A) India
    B) Kuwait
    C) Europe
    D) USA
    ANS:- A) India.
    Sol:- Agriculture is a crucial sector in India, and it heavily relies on irrigation, making it the largest consumer of water in the country. The country where the percentage of water used for agriculture is the highest i.e. more than 90% so the answer is A) India.
  23. What best describes the classification of the Indian economy?
    A) Developed economy
    B) Mixed economy
    C) Socialist economy
    D) Command economy
    ANS:- B) Mixed economy
    Sol:- The Indian economy is classified as a mixed economy, combining elements of both socialism and capitalism. So the correct answer is B) Mixed economy
  24. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of the Indian economy?
    A) High per capita income
    B) Low unemployment rate
    C) Reliance on agriculture
    D) Advanced infrastructure
    ANS:- C) Reliance on agriculture
    Sol:- Agriculture has historically been a significant sector in the Indian economy, employing a large portion of the population and contributing significantly to the country’s GDP. While efforts have been made to diversify the economy, agriculture still plays a crucial role in India’s economic landscape. So the correct answer is C) Reliance on agriculture
  25. What marked a significant shift in India’s economic policies and strategies in 1991?
    A) Adoption of socialism
    B) Economic liberalization
    C) Introduction of command economy
    D) Expansion of heavy industries
    ANS:- B) Economic liberalization
    Sol:- Economic liberalization in 1991 led to a significant shift in India’s economic policies towards a more open economy. So the correct answer is B) Economic liberalization
  26. What is one of the challenges associated with India’s high population growth?
    A) Declining poverty rates
    B) Increased infrastructure development
    C) Strain on public services
    D) Higher per capita income
    ANS:- C) Strain on public services
    Sol:- High population growth in India leads to strain on public services such as education, healthcare, and employment opportunities. So the correct answer is C) Strain on public services
  27. Which economic model did India adopt following independence in 1947?
    A) Socialist economy
    B) Capitalist economy
    C) Command economy
    D) Mixed economy
    ANS:- C) Command economy
    Sol:- India initially adopted a centrally-planned economic model, commonly referred to as a command economy, post-independence. So the correct answer is C) Command economy
  28. What sector witnessed significant growth in India following economic liberalization in 1991?
    A) Public sector
    B) Defense sector
    C) Private sector
    D) Agricultural sector
    ANS:- C) Private sector
    Sol:- Economic liberalization in 1991 facilitated significant growth in the private sector in India. So the correct answer is C) Private sector
  29. What has been the trend in India’s GDP from 1992 to 2022?
    A) Decline
    B) Stagnation
    C) Fluctuation
    D) Soaring growth
    ANS:- D) Soaring growth
    Sol:- India’s GDP has witnessed a remarkable expansion from $288 billion in 1992 to $3.42 trillion in 2022. So the correct answer is D) Soaring growth
  30. What are the estimated groundwater resources in India?
    A) 1.4 billion cubic kilometers
    B) 8 million cubic kilometers
    C) 395.6 billion cubic meters
    D) 0.0001% of the Earth’s water volume
    ANS:- C) 395.6 billion cubic meters.
    Sol:- Groundwater is a vital source of water for various purposes in India, including agriculture, industry, and domestic use. The estimated groundwater resources in India are C) 395.6 billion cubic meters.

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