Ultimate Last-Minute Quiz for OSSC CGL Exam 2024: 17 October 2024

Prepare for the OSSC CGL Exam with the Ultimate Last-Minute Quiz! This comprehensive quiz is designed to test your knowledge and boost your confidence as you approach the exam. Covering key topics and essential concepts, it’s the perfect way to reinforce your learning and enhance your performance. Get ready to excel!

Ultimate Last-Minute Quiz for OSSC CGL Exam 2024: 17 October 2024

(Q1-5)Production of different crops by a farming company in the year 2022 (in tons)

What was the total production of Wheat in 2022?

a) 2300 tons

b) 2400 tons

c) 2450 tons

d) 2500 tons

Answer: c) 2450 tons

Solution: From the table, the production of Wheat in Q1 = 500, Q2 = 600, Q3 = 650, and Q4 = 700 tons. Adding these, we get the total production of Wheat in 2022 as 500 + 600 + 650 + 700 = 2450 tons.

Q2. In which quarter did the company have the highest production of Rice?

a) Q1

b) Q2

c) Q3

d) Q4

Answer: d) Q4

Solution: From the table, the production of Rice in Q4 was 680 tons, which is the highest among all quarters.

Q3. If the company had to increase the production of Corn by 20% in Q4, what would be the new production figure for Corn in that quarter?

a) 660 tons

b) 690 tons

c) 720 tons

d) 750 tons

Answer: c) 720 tons

Solution: The production of Corn in Q4 was 600 tons. A 20% increase would be 0.2 × 600 = 120 tons. Therefore, the new production figure for Corn in Q4 would be 600 + 120 = 720 tons.

Q4. What was the difference between the highest and lowest quarterly production of Soybean in 2022?

a) 150 tons

b) 200 tons

c) 250 tons

d) 300 tons

Answer: c) 250 tons

Solution: From the table, the highest quarterly production of Soybean was 450 tons (in Q4), and the lowest was 200 tons (in Q1). The difference between the highest and lowest quarterly production of Soybean is 450 – 200 = 250 tons.

5..If the company had to reduce the production of Wheat by 25% in Q2, what would be the new production figure for Wheat in that quarter?

a) 400 tons

b) 450 tons

c) 500 tons

d) 550 tons

Answer: b) 450 tons

Solution: The production of Wheat in Q2 was 600 tons. A 25% reduction would be 0.25 × 600 = 150 tons. Therefore, the new production figure for Wheat in Q2 would be 600 – 150 = 450 tons.

(Q6-10)Revenue of Five Companies over Five Years

The table below shows the revenue (in crore ₹) of five companies over five years.

Q6. What is the average revenue of company A over the five years?

(a) ₹70 crore
(b) ₹65 crore
(c) ₹75 crore
(d) ₹80 crore
S6. Ans: (a) ₹70 crore
Sol: Average = (60 + 65 + 70 + 75 + 80)/5 = ₹350/5 = ₹70 crore.

Q7. In which year was the total revenue of all companies highest?

(a) 2020
(b) 2021
(c) 2023
(d) 2022
S7. Ans: (c) 2023
Sol: Total revenue in 2023 = 80 + 75 + 70 + 95 + 85 = ₹405 crore (Highest).

Q8. What was the percentage increase in revenue of company C from 2020 to 2023?

(a) 40%
(b) 35%
(c) 30%
(d) 25%
S8. Ans: (c) 30%
Sol: Revenue of company C in 2020 = ₹55 crore, in 2023 = ₹70 crore.
Percentage increase = ((70 – 55) / 55) * 100 = 27.27% ≈ 30%.

Q9. What is the total revenue generated by company D over the five years?

(a) ₹410 crore
(b) ₹425 crore
(c) ₹420 crore
(d) ₹430 crore
S9. Ans: (a) ₹410 crore
Sol: Total revenue = 70 + 80 + 85 + 90 + 95 = ₹410 crore.

Q10. Which company had the least consistent growth over the five years?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
S10. Ans: (b) B
Sol: Company B’s revenue increases in a smaller range compared to other companies, showing less consistent growth.

Q11.Which of the following is a type of computer virus that affects the boot sector of a system?
(a) File Infector Virus
(b) Boot Sector Virus
(c) Resident Virus
(d) Overwrite Virus
Ans. (b) Boot Sector Virus

Q12. What is the primary function of a Direct Action Virus?
(a) Installs itself into the system memory
(b) Infects the boot sector of a computer
(c) Attaches itself to a .exe or .com file and activates only when the file is executed
(d) Alters its code to avoid detection
Ans. (c) Attaches itself to a .exe or .com file and activates only when the file is executed

Q13. Which virus type is known for being difficult to detect and remove because it changes its code with each infection?
(a) Spacefiller Virus
(b) Multipartite Virus
(c) Polymorphic Virus
(d) Macro Virus
Ans. (c) Polymorphic Virus

Q14. What is a primary indication that a computer system might be infected with a virus?
(a) Faster loading of applications
(b) No change in system performance
(c) Frequent pop-ups appearing on the screen
(d) Increase in internet speed
Ans. (c) Frequent pop-ups appearing on the screen

Q15. Which type of virus is primarily spread through email attachments and is known for completely overwriting existing programs?
(a) Browser Hijacker
(b) Overwrite Virus
(c) File Infector Virus
(d) Direct Action Virus
Ans. (b) Overwrite Virus

Q16. A virus that hides within a system’s memory and is difficult to remove is known as:
(a) Non-Resident Virus
(b) Resident Virus
(c) Macro Virus
(d) Boot Sector Virus
Ans. (b) Resident Virus

Q17. Which virus type typically infects files with .exe or .com extensions and spreads to other executable files?
(a) Web Scripting Virus
(b) File Infector Virus
(c) Multipartite Virus
(d) Spacefiller Virus
Ans. (b) File Infector Virus

Q18. A virus that utilizes browser codes and web pages to contaminate a user’s system is known as:
(a) Browser Hijacker
(b) Web Scripting Virus
(c) Macro Virus
(d) Cavity Virus
Ans. (b) Web Scripting Virus

Q19. What type of virus can affect multiple parts of a system, including the boot sector and program files?
(a) Multipartite Virus
(b) Direct Action Virus
(c) Resident Virus
(d) Macro Virus
Ans. (a) Multipartite Virus

Q20. Which virus is known for redirecting the user’s browser to malicious websites?
(a) Spacefiller Virus
(b) Browser Hijacker
(c) Polymorphic Virus
(d) Overwrite Virus
Ans. (b) Browser Hijacker

Q21.. What is the total size of the Odisha Budget for 2024-25?
(a) Rs 2.30,000 crore
(b) Rs 2.50,000 crore
(c) Rs 2.65,000 crore
(d) Rs 3.00,000 crore

S21. Ans: (c) Rs 2.65,000 crore
Sol: The Odisha Budget for 2024-25 has been set at Rs 2.65,000 crore, representing a significant increase from the previous year’s budget.

Q22. By what percentage has the Odisha Budget for 2024-25 increased compared to the previous year?
(a) 10%
(b) 15%
(c) 20%
(d) 25%

S22. Ans: (b) 15%
Sol: The Odisha Budget for 2024-25 increased by 15% compared to the 2023-24 budget.

Q23. What is the new name for the ‘Make in Odisha’ scheme in the Odisha Budget 2024-25?
(a) Panchasakha Shikshya Setu Abhiyan
(b) Samrudha Krushak Yojana
(c) Gopabandhu Yojana
(d) Utkarsh Utkal

S23. Ans: (d) Utkarsh Utkal
Sol: The ‘Make in Odisha’ scheme has been renamed as ‘Utkarsh Utkal’ in the 2024-25 budget.

Q24. What is the target set by the Odisha government for private investments under the ‘Utkarsh Utkal’ scheme by 2029?
(a) Rs 1.5 lakh crore
(b) Rs 2.5 lakh crore
(c) Rs 3 lakh crore
(d) Rs 2 lakh crore

S24. Ans: (b) Rs 2.5 lakh crore
Sol: The Odisha government aims to bring Rs 2.5 lakh crore in private investments by 2029 under the ‘Utkarsh Utkal’ scheme.

Q25. What is the new name for the ‘Mo School’ scheme as per the Odisha Budget 2024-25?
(a) Panchasakha Shikshya Setu Abhiyan
(b) Utkarsh Utkal
(c) Gopabandhu Yojana
(d) Samrudha Krushak Yojana

S25. Ans: (a) Panchasakha Shikshya Setu Abhiyan
Sol: The ‘Mo School’ scheme has been renamed to ‘Panchasakha Shikshya Setu Abhiyan’ in the Odisha Budget 2024-25.

Q26. How much outlay has been proposed for the ‘Panchasakha Shikshya Setu Abhiyan’ scheme in 2024-25?
(a) Rs 100 crore
(b) Rs 500 crore
(c) Rs 332 crore
(d) Rs 450 crore

S26. Ans: (c) Rs 332 crore
Sol: The Odisha government has proposed an outlay of Rs 332 crore for the ‘Panchasakha Shikshya Setu Abhiyan’.

Q27. What is the new name for the Biju Swasthya Kalyan Yojana (BSKY)?
(a) Gopabandhu Yojana
(b) Panchasakha Shikshya Setu Abhiyan
(c) Subhadra Yojana
(d) CM Kisan

S27. Ans: (a) Gopabandhu Yojana
Sol: The Biju Swasthya Kalyan Yojana (BSKY) has been renamed as ‘Gopabandhu Yojana’.

Q28. What is the proposed allocation for the ‘Gopabandhu Yojana’ in the Odisha Budget 2024-25?
(a) Rs 332 crore
(b) Rs 5450 crore
(c) Rs 5000 crore
(d) Rs 1935 crore

S28. Ans: (b) Rs 5450 crore
Sol: The Odisha government has allocated Rs 5450 crore for the ‘Gopabandhu Yojana’ in the 2024-25 budget.

Q29. What is the new name for the Krushak Assistance for Livelihood and Income Augmentation (KALIA) scheme?
(a) Subhadra Yojana
(b) Samrudha Krushak Yojana
(c) CM Kisan
(d) Jashoda Yojana

S29. Ans: (b) Samrudha Krushak Yojana
Sol: The KALIA scheme has been renamed to ‘Samrudha Krushak Yojana’ in the 2024-25 budget.

Q30. Who is the first Indian woman to win two Olympic medals?
(a) Mary Kom
(b) P.V. Sindhu
(c) Saina Nehwal
(d) Sakshi Malik

S30. Ans: (b) P.V. Sindhu
Sol: P.V. Sindhu is the first Indian woman to win two Olympic medals, earning silver in 2016 and bronze in 2020.

Q31.A is thrice as good as workman as B and therefore is able to finish a job in 60 days less than B. Working together, they can do it in:
A. 20 days
B. 22 1/2 days
C. 25 days
D. 30 days
Answer: B. 22 1/2 days

Solution:

Q32. If the first term of a G.P. is 20 and the common ratio is 4, find the 5th term.
A. 1280
B. 5120
C. 20480
D. 10240
Answer: B. 5120
Solution:

Q33. The sum of the first three terms of a G.P. is 21/2 and their product is 27. Find the common ratio.

A. 2 and 1/2
B. 2 and 1/3
C. 3 and 1/2
D. 3 and 1/4
Answer: A. 2 and 1/2

Q34. The number 2048 is which term in the following Geometric sequence 2, 8, 32, 128, …
A. 5th
B. 6th
C. 7th
D. 8th
Answer: B. 6th

Q35. A bookseller bought 500 text books for 20,000. He wanted to sell them at a profit so that he get 50 books free. At what profit percent should he sell them?
(a) 10 %
(b) 20 %
(c) 15 %
(d) 10.5 %
Answer: (a) 10 %
Solution. Price of 1 text book = 20000/500 = Rs. 40
Price of free 50 text books = 50 × 40 = Rs. 2000
So, profit = 2000/20000× 100 = 10%

Q36. 20% of a man’s salary is paid as rent, 60% are his living expenses and 10% are his savings. If he spends remaining Rs. 30 on the education of his children, find his salary?
(a) 300
(b) 900
(c) 3000
(d) 9000
Answer: (a) 300

Solution: Total expenditure = 20 + 60 + 10 = 90%
so, remaining salary = [100 – 90]% = 10%
⇒ 10% = 30
So 100% = 300
Q37. The radius of a sphere and hemisphere are same. The ratio of their total surface area is:
(a) 3:1
(b) 2:1
(c) 3:2
(d) 4:3
Answer: (d) 4:3
Solution:

ratio of surface area = sphere/hemisphere =4πr^2/3πr^2 = 4/3

Q38. There are 1400 students in a school, 25% of those wear spectacles and 2/7 of those wearing spectacles are boys. How many girls in the school wear spectacles?
(a) 200
(b) 100
(c) 250
(d) 300
Answer:(c) 250
Solution: Total students = 1400
Number of students who wear specs = 350
⇒ Girls wear specs = 350 − 350 ×2/7 = 250

Q39. Find the length of a bridge which a train 130 m long, travelling at 45 km an hour, can cross in 30 seconds.
A. 220 m
B. 245 m
C. 325 m
D. 400 m
Answer: B. 245 m

Q40. A train 50 metres long passes a platform 100 metres long in 10 seconds. The speed of the train is:
A. 45 km/h
B. 50 km/h
C. 54 km/h
D. 60 km/h
Answer: D. 54 km/h
Solution:
Total Distance=50 m+100 m=150 m
Speed=Distance/Time=150 m/10 s=15 m/s
Speed in km/h
=15×3600/1000=54 km/h

Q41.If A is the brother of B, B is the sister of C, and C is the father of D, how is D related to A?

A. Father
B. Nephew/Niece
C. Brother
D. Cousin
Answer: B. Nephew/Niece
Solution: A is the brother of B, and B is the sister of C, so A is the uncle of D because C is D’s father.

Q42: Find the next number in the series: 2, 6, 12, 20, ___.
A. 28
B. 30
C. 32
D. 36
Answer: B. 30
Solution: The differences between the numbers are 4, 6, 8, and so on. The next difference should be 10. Thus, 20 + 10 = 30.

Q43: If in a code language, ‘APPLE’ is written as ‘ELPPA’, how is ‘ORANGE’ written in that code?
A. EGNARO
B. EGRONA
C. NOGARE
D. GONARE
Answer: A. EGNARO
Solution: The code reverses the letters of the word.

Q44: What comes next in the sequence? J, F, M, A, M, ___.
A. J
B. A
C. S
D. O
Answer: A. J
Solution: These are the first letters of the months of the year: January, February, March, April, May, June.

Q45: In a family of six members P, Q, R, S, T, and U, there are two married couples. P is a teacher and the father of R. U is the grandfather of R and is a lawyer. Q is the mother of R. S is the grandmother of R. T is the brother of R How is T related to U?
A. Son
B. Daughter
C. Son-in-law
D. Grandson
Answer: A. Son
Solution: U and S are grandparents. P and Q are the parents of R, making T the son of U.

Q46: Select the word which is different from the rest:
A. Car
B. Bicycle
C. Bus
D. Train
E. Airplane
Answer: B. Bicycle
Solution: Bicycle is the only one that is not motorized.

Q47: Find the odd one out:
A. 24
B. 36
C. 72
D. 168
E. 144
Answer: B. 36
Solution: 36 is the only number that is not divisible by 24.

Q48: Pointing to a photograph, a man says, “She is the daughter of my grandfather’s only son.” How is the girl in the photograph related to the man?
A. Mother
B. Aunt
C. Sister
D. Cousin
Answer: C. Sister
Solution: The man’s grandfather’s only son is his father, so the girl is his sister.

Q49: If ‘SUNDAY’ is coded as ‘HFMWZB’, how will ‘MONDAY’ be coded?
A. NOXBYF
B. FONXAY
C. NLMWZB
D. ZINXBY
Answer: C. NLMWZB
Solution: Each letter is replaced by the letter which is opposite to it in the alphabet.

Q50: A clock is set right at 12 noon. It loses 10 minutes in 24 hours. What will be the correct time when the clock indicates 3 PM on the 4th day?
A. 2.20 PM
B. 1 PM
C. 4 PM
D. 12 PM
Answer: A. 2.20 PM
Solution: The clock loses 10 minutes every 24 hours, so in 4 days it loses 40 minutes. Thus, when the clock shows 3 PM, it is actually 2 PM.