Weekly Current affairs play a very important role in the competitive examinations and hence, aspirants have to give undivided attention to it while doing preparation for the government examinations. The CGLRE, OCS examinations comprise a section of “Current Affairs” to evaluate how much the aspirant is aware of the daily happenings taking place around the world. To complement your preparation, we are providing you with a compilation of Weekly Current affairs.
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1. What is the name of the groundbreaking healthcare software and logistics platform unveiled by Blod.in?
a) HealthWave
b) BloodSync
c) Blod+
d) MedConnect
Answer: c) Blod+
2. What is the primary goal of Blod+’s healthcare software and logistics platform?
a) Enhance surgical procedures
b) Revolutionize blood management and delivery
c) Improve patient communication
d) Streamline pharmacy operations
Answer: b) Revolutionize blood management and delivery
3. What issue in healthcare facilities does Blod+ aim to address with its innovation?
a) Vaccine distribution
b) Medication shortages
c) Blood wastage
d) Equipment maintenance
Answer: c) Blood wastage
4. According to the information provided, what is the average time reduction achieved by Blod+ in blood sourcing?
a) 3 hours and 53 minutes
b) 2 hours and 30 minutes
c) 4 hours and 15 minutes
d) 3 hours and 53 minutes
Answer: a) 3 hours and 53 minutes
5. What is the mission of Blod+ in the context of blood management?
a) Increase blood pricing
b) Ensure steady access to blood for hospitals
c) Establish more blood donation camps
d) Reduce hospital admissions
Answer: b) Ensure steady access to blood for hospitals
6. How much has Blod+ reduced the average sourcing time for blood, as mentioned in the passage?
a) From 12 hours to 6 hours
b) From 8 hours to 4 hours
c) From 6 hours to 2 hours and 7 minutes
d) From 10 hours to 5 hours
Answer: c) From 6 hours to an average of 2 hours and 7 minutes
7. What industry standards has Blod+ surpassed with its innovation?
a) Surgical procedures
b) Blood sourcing time
c) Hospital administration
d) Equipment maintenance
Answer: b) Blood sourcing time
8. According to the passage, what is the potential impact of Blod+’s improvement in blood sourcing time?
a) Increase in hospital admissions
b) Reduction in blood pricing
c) Timely access to blood for critical patients
d) Improved surgical outcomes
Answer: c) Timely access to blood for critical patients
9. What is the average sourcing time for blood before Blod+’s innovation, as mentioned in the passage?
a) 8 hours
b) 4 hours and 30 minutes
c) 6 hours
d) 12 hours
Answer: c) 6 hours
10. What does Blod+ aim to significantly reduce in healthcare facilities?
a) Patient waiting time
b) Blood wastage
c) Surgical errors
d) Pharmacy costs
Answer: b) Blood wastage
11. What platform has set new industry standards in blood management?
a) MedHub
b) Blod+
c) LifeSync
d) BloodHub
Answer: b) Blod+
12. How does Blod+ contribute to potential life-saving efforts?
a) Improving surgical techniques
b) Enhancing patient communication
c) Reducing blood wastage and ensuring timely access
d) Expanding vaccination programs
Answer: c) Reducing blood wastage and ensuring timely access
13. What is the innovative feature of Blod+ in terms of blood sourcing time?
a) Setting a maximum time limit for blood delivery
b) Reducing the average time to a specific number of minutes
c) Introducing real-time tracking of blood shipments
d) Implementing drone deliveries for urgent cases
Answer: b) Reducing the average time to a specific number of minutes
14. According to the passage, what issue does Blod+ specifically address in healthcare facilities?
a) Medicine expiration
b) Blood transfusion complications
c) Blood wastage
d) Surgeon shortages
Answer: c) Blood wastage
15. What is Blod+’s mission regarding blood management in hospitals?
a) Ensuring steady access to blood
b) Promoting blood donation camps
c) Reducing surgical wait times
d) Improving blood storage facilities
Answer: a) Ensuring steady access to blood
16. In terms of sourcing time, what improvement has Blod+ achieved compared to industry norms?
a) No significant improvement
b) Increase in time
c) Reduction from 8 hours to 6 hours
d) Reduction from 6 hours to 2 hours and 7 minutes
Answer: d) Reduction from 6 hours to an average of 2 hours and 7 minutes
17. How does Blod+ aim to contribute to the reduction of blood wastage?
a) Implementing stricter blood storage regulations
b) Setting quotas for blood donations
c) Reducing the average sourcing time
d) Increasing blood prices
Answer: c) Reducing the average sourcing time
18. What potential impact does Blod+’s innovation have on critical patients?
a) Prolonged waiting times
b) Timely access to blood
c) Increased surgical complications
d) Higher mortality rates
Answer: b) Timely access to blood
19. What is the significance of Blod+’s reduction in average sourcing time?
a) Cost reduction for hospitals
b) Improved surgical precision
c) Potential savings of countless lives
d) Faster patient discharge times
Answer: c) Potential savings of countless lives
20. What industry aspect does Blod+ target with its innovative healthcare software and logistics platform?
a) Pharmaceuticals
b) Blood management and delivery
c) Surgical equipment manufacturing
d) Patient communication
Answer: b) Blood management and delivery
21. When did Nagaland become the 16th state of the Union of India?
A. December 1, 1953
B. December 1, 1963
C. January 26, 1950
D. November 14, 1975
Answer: B. December 1, 1963
22. Who is the Chief Minister of Nagaland as of the Statehood Day celebration in 2023?
A. T. R. Zeliang
B. Neiphiu Rio
C. Shurhozelie Liezietsu
D. P. D. Rai
Answer: B. Neiphiu Rio
23. What significant initiatives were launched by Chief Minister Neiphiu Rio on the Statehood Day?
A. Nagaland Cultural Exchange Program
B. Nagaland School Safety Policy Digital Training Platform
C. Nagaland Agriculture Modernization Scheme
D. Nagaland Urban Development Project
Answer: B. Nagaland School Safety Policy Digital Training Platform
24. Which department organized the photo exhibition titled “Nagaland at 60” during the Statehood Day celebration?
A. Department of Education
B. Department of Health and Family Welfare
C. Department of Information & Public Relations
D. Department of Tourism
Answer: C. Department of Information & Public Relations
25. What is the theme of the photo exhibition “Nagaland at 60”?
A. Nagaland’s Wildlife Diversity
B. Nagaland’s Economic Progress
C. Nagaland’s Journey Through Six Decades
D. Nagaland’s Traditional Cuisine
Answer: C. Nagaland’s Journey Through Six Decades
26. In which year did Nagaland celebrate its 61st Statehood Day?
A. 2022
B. 2023
C. 2024
D. 2025
Answer: B. 2023
27. What is the aim of the Nagaland Disaster Risk Reduction Road Map?
A. Enhancing Healthcare Facilities
B. Promoting Agricultural Practices
C. Ensuring Safety and Resilience
D. Boosting Tourism
Answer: C. Ensuring Safety and Resilience
28. Which platform provides a visual journey through Nagaland’s rich history during the Statehood Day celebration?
A. Nagaland Heritage App
B. Nagaland Culture Portal
C. Nagaland at 60 Exhibition App
D. Nagaland Digital Museum
Answer: C. Nagaland at 60 Exhibition App
29. Who inaugurated the photo exhibition “Nagaland at 60”?
A. Prime Minister Narendra Modi
B. President Ram Nath Kovind
C. Chief Minister Neiphiu Rio
D. Governor of Nagaland
Answer: D. Governor of Nagaland
30. What is the primary focus of the Nagaland School Safety Policy Digital Training Platform?
A. Teacher Training Programs
B. Disaster Risk Reduction
C. Cybersecurity Education
D. Environmental Conservation
Answer: B. Disaster Risk Reduction
31. Which anniversary is being celebrated through the photo exhibition “Nagaland at 60”?
A. Nagaland’s Independence Day
B. Nagaland’s Statehood Day
C. Nagaland’s Republic Day
D. Nagaland’s Foundation Day
Answer: B. Nagaland’s Statehood Day
32. What is the significance of the Nagaland School Safety Policy Digital Training Platform?
A. Promoting Sports Education
B. Ensuring Road Safety
C. Enhancing Disaster Preparedness in Schools
D. Improving Academic Performance
Answer: C. Enhancing Disaster Preparedness in Schools
33. Which sector does the Nagaland Disaster Risk Reduction Road Map primarily address?
A. Agriculture
B. Healthcare
C. Education
D. Disaster Management
Answer: D. Disaster Management
34. What is the title of the photo exhibition organized by the Department of Information & Public Relations?
A. Nagaland Through the Lens
B. Nagaland Chronicles
C. Nagaland: A Pictorial Journey
D. Nagaland at 60: A Visual Saga
Answer: C. Nagaland: A Pictorial Journey
35. Which Indian state did Nagaland become the 16th state of on December 1, 1963?
A. Assam
B. Manipur
C. Arunachal Pradesh
D. Mizoram
Answer: A. Assam
36. What digital platform was launched as part of the Nagaland School Safety Policy initiatives?
A. Nagaland EduTech Hub
B. Nagaland Safety App
C. Nagaland School Safety Portal
D. Nagaland Digital Learning Center
Answer: C. Nagaland School Safety Portal
37. Which department spearheaded the Nagaland Disaster Risk Reduction Road Map?
A. Department of Disaster Management
B. Department of Environment and Forests
C. Department of Transport and Communication
D. Department of Rural Development
Answer: A. Department of Disaster Management
38. What is the focus of the Nagaland at 60 Exhibition App?
A. Nagaland’s Folk Music
B. Nagaland’s Traditional Attire
C. Nagaland’s History and Progress
D. Nagaland’s Culinary Delights
Answer: C. Nagaland’s History and Progress
39. Which of the following was NOT mentioned as an initiative launched by Chief Minister Neiphiu Rio?
A. Nagaland School Safety Policy Digital Training Platform
B. Nagaland Disaster Risk Reduction Road Map
C. Nagaland Urban Development Project
D. Nagaland at 60 Exhibition App
Answer: C. Nagaland Urban Development Project
40. What is the primary objective of the Nagaland Disaster Risk Reduction Road Map?
A. Promoting Sustainable Agriculture
B. Mitigating the Impact of Natural Disasters
C. Improving Healthcare Infrastructure
D. Boosting Tourism
Answer: B. Mitigating the Impact of Natural Disasters
41. Which government official is likely to be present at the inauguration of the Nagaland School Safety Policy Digital Training Platform?
A. President of India
B. Chief Justice of India
C. Union Minister of Education
D. United Nations Secretary-General
Answer: C. Union Minister of Education
42. What aspect of Nagaland’s culture is emphasized in the photo exhibition “Nagaland at 60”?
A. Folk Dances
B. Handicrafts
C. Traditional Festivals
D. All of the Above
Answer: D. All of the Above
43. Which digital platform is expected to play a crucial role in the Nagaland School Safety Policy initiatives?
A. Nagaland Safety Net
B. Nagaland Digital Training Center
C. Nagaland SafeSchools App
D. Nagaland Security Hub
Answer: C. Nagaland SafeSchools App
44. What type of training does the Nagaland School Safety Policy Digital Training Platform provide?
A. First Aid Training
B. Fire Safety Training
C. Disaster Management Training
D. Cybersecurity Training
Answer: C. Disaster Management Training
45. What is the central theme of the Nagaland Disaster Risk Reduction Road Map?
A. Building Resilient Communities
B. Promoting Sustainable Agriculture
C. Improving Healthcare Access
D. Enhancing Educational Opportunities
Answer: A. Building Resilient Communities
46. Which agency collaborated with the Department of Information & Public Relations for the photo exhibition?
A. National Geographic
B. Getty Images
C. UNESCO
D. Reuters
Answer: C. UNESCO
47. What term is used to describe the photo exhibition’s visual journey through Nagaland’s history?
A. Nagaland Odyssey
B. Nagaland Time Warp
C. Nagaland Through the Ages
D. Nagaland Chronicles
Answer: C. Nagaland Through the Ages
48. What kind of progress is emphasized in the photo exhibition “Nagaland at 60”?
A. Economic Progress
B. Cultural Progress
C. Scientific Progress
D. All of the Above
Answer: D. All of the Above
49. Which of the following is NOT a component of the Nagaland Disaster Risk Reduction Road Map?
A. Early Warning Systems
B. Community Engagement
C. Space Exploration
D. Infrastructure Development
Answer: C. Space Exploration
50. What role does the Nagaland Disaster Risk Reduction Road Map play in ensuring the safety of the state?
A. Enhancing Cybersecurity
B. Mitigating the Impact of Natural Disasters
C. Promoting Road Safety
D. Improving Healthcare Services
Answer: B. Mitigating the Impact of Natural Disasters
51. What is the aim of the Nagaland at 60 Exhibition App?
A. Documenting Nagaland’s Biodiversity
B. Showcasing Nagaland’s Cultural Heritage
C. Providing Agricultural Insights
D. Promoting Adventure Tourism
Answer: B. Showcasing Nagaland’s Cultural Heritage
52. What is the primary focus of the Nagaland School Safety Policy?
A. Promoting Physical Education
B. Ensuring Cybersecurity
C. Enhancing Disaster Preparedness in Schools
D. Improving Academic Performance
Answer: C. Enhancing Disaster Preparedness in Schools
53. What aspect of Nagaland’s culture is likely to be highlighted in the photo exhibition?
A. Traditional Clothing
B. Traditional Music
C. Traditional Cuisine
D. All of the Above
Answer: D. All of the Above
54. Which international organization supports the Nagaland Disaster Risk Reduction Road Map?
A. World Health Organization (WHO)
B. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
C. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
D. World Bank
Answer: B. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
55. What historical event does the photo exhibition “Nagaland at 60” aim to capture?
A. Nagaland’s Independence Struggle
B. Nagaland’s Formation Day
C. Nagaland’s Liberation Day
D. Nagaland’s Annexation to India
Answer: B. Nagaland’s Formation Day
56. What is the main objective of the Nagaland at 60 Exhibition App?
A. Encouraging Wildlife Conservation
B. Promoting Sustainable Agriculture
C. Showcasing Nagaland’s Progress Over Six Decades
D. Providing Health Tips
Answer: C. Showcasing Nagaland’s Progress Over Six Decades
57. Which department is responsible for the Nagaland School Safety Policy initiatives?
A. Department of Education
B. Department of Health and Family Welfare
C. Department of Disaster Management
D. Department of Agriculture
Answer: A. Department of Education
58. What is the primary objective of the Nagaland Disaster Risk Reduction Road Map?
A. Enhancing Agricultural Productivity
B. Ensuring Road Safety
C. Reducing the Impact of Natural Disasters
D. Boosting Industrial Growth
Answer: C. Reducing the Impact of Natural Disasters
59. What term is used to describe the Nagaland School Safety Policy Digital Training Platform?
A. EduSafe
B. SafeLearn
C. SchoolGuard
D. SafetyEd
Answer: B. SafeLearn
60. What is the role of the Nagaland Disaster Risk Reduction Road Map in the state’s development?
A. Enhancing Cultural Exchanges
B. Promoting Environmental Conservation
C. Ensuring Safety and Resilience
D. Improving Transportation Systems
Answer: C. Ensuring Safety and Resilience
61. What is the deadline for the Sixteenth Finance Commission (SFC) to submit its comprehensive report?
a) September 30, 2025
b) October 31, 2025
c) November 30, 2025
d) December 31, 2025
Answer: b) October 31, 2025
62. The SFC report will cover a five-year period set to take effect on which date?
a) January 1, 2026
b) April 1, 2026
c) July 1, 2026
d) October 1, 2026
Answer: b) April 1, 2026
63. What is the focus of the terms of reference concerning the disaster management fund?
a) Enhancement of Central government’s power
b) Allocation of funds for disaster management
c) States’ role in disaster management
d) Fiscal responsibility during disasters
Answer: b) Allocation of funds for disaster management
64. According to the released terms of reference, what provisions do they predominantly encompass?
a) Economic growth strategies
b) Tax distribution, grants-in-aid, and resources for local bodies
c) Military expenditure allocations
d) International trade agreements
Answer: b) Tax distribution, grants-in-aid, and resources for local bodies
65. India’s economy experienced a growth of 7.6% during which quarter of the fiscal year 2023-24?
a) April-June
b) July-September
c) October-December
d) January-March
Answer: b) July-September
66. What makes India the fastest-growing major economy globally, according to the recent GDP data?
a) Technological advancements
b) Government spending
c) International investments
d) Agriculture sector performance
Answer: b) Government spending
67. Which of the following sectors contributed significantly to the substantial uptick in GDP?
a) Information technology
b) Agriculture
c) Manufacturing, mining, and construction
d) Healthcare
Answer: c) Manufacturing, mining, and construction
68. The Q2 GDP growth exceeded the projections of which institution?
a) World Bank
b) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
c) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
d) Ministry of Finance
Answer: c) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
69. What was the RBI’s initial projection for real GDP growth for the fiscal year 2023-24?
a) 6.0%
b) 6.5%
c) 7.0%
d) 7.5%
Answer: b) 6.5%
70. When was the GDP data unveiled by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation?
a) October 15
b) October 30
c) November 15
d) November 30
Answer: d) November 30
71. What is the growth rate of the combined Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) in October 2023?
A) 5.3%
B) 8.5%
C) 12.1%
D) 10.0%
Answer: C) 12.1%
72. How many core industries collectively contribute to the Index of Industrial Production (IIP)?
A) Six
B) Eight
C) Ten
D) Four
Answer: B) Eight
73. Which of the following is NOT one of the Eight Core Industries?
A) Cement
B) Software
C) Natural Gas
D) Steel
Answer: B) Software
74. What percentage do the Eight Core Industries contribute to the Index of Industrial Production (IIP)?
A) 25.0%
B) 40.27%
C) 60.5%
D) 33.3%
Answer: B) 40.27%
75. What is the final growth rate for the Index of Eight Core Industries in July 2023?
A) 8.5%
B) 10.0%
C) 5.2%
D) 12.1%
Answer: A) 8.5%
76. The positive momentum in October 2023 was observed in which of the following industries?
A) Pharmaceuticals
B) Crude Oil
C) Textiles
D) Automobiles
Answer: B) Crude Oil
77. What is the cumulative growth rate for the period of April to October 2023-24?
A) 6.0%
B) 8.6%
C) 10.5%
D) 5.2%
Answer: B) 8.6%
78. In which month was the growth rate for the Index of Eight Core Industries in July 2023 revised?
A) August 2023
B) September 2023
C) October 2023
D) November 2023
Answer: C) October 2023
79. Which industry has the highest contribution to the Index of Eight Core Industries?
A) Fertilizers
B) Electricity
C) Steel
D) Natural Gas
Answer: C) Steel
80. Compared to the corresponding period in the previous year, the cumulative growth rate in April to October 2023-24 shows what trend?
A) Negative
B) Stable
C) Positive
D) Unchanged
Answer: C) Positive
81. What government department is responsible for The National Water Mission?
A) Ministry of Tourism
B) Ministry of Jal Shakti
C) Ministry of Culture
D) Ministry of Environment
Answer: B) Ministry of Jal Shakti
82. Where was the ‘Jal Itihas Utsav’ hosted by the National Water Mission?
A) Red Fort, Delhi
B) Shamsi Talab, Jahaz Mahal, Mehrauli
C) India Gate, Delhi
D) Qutub Minar, Delhi
Answer: B) Shamsi Talab, Jahaz Mahal, Mehrauli
83. What was the primary aim of the ‘Jal Itihas Utsav’ event?
A) Promoting agriculture
B) Raising awareness about water pollution
C) Promoting tourism and restoring water heritage sites
D) Encouraging water wastage
Answer: C) Promoting tourism and restoring water heritage sites
84. Which organization partnered in the restoration of Shamsi Talab, Jahaz Mahal in Mehrauli?
A) National Green Tribunal (NGT)
B) Municipal Corporation of Delhi (MCD)
C) National Heritage Foundation (NHF)
D) Delhi Tourism and Transportation Development Corporation (DTTDC)
Answer: B) Municipal Corporation of Delhi (MCD)
85. In collaboration with which organization was the cleaning and leveling of Shamsi Talab undertaken?
A) Archaeological Survey of India (ASI)
B) National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
C) Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR)
D) Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
Answer: A) Archaeological Survey of India (ASI)
86. Which ministry oversees the Department of Water Resources, River Development, and Ganga Rejuvenation?
A) Ministry of Jal Shakti
B) Ministry of Agriculture
C) Ministry of Home Affairs
D) Ministry of Urban Development
Answer: A) Ministry of Jal Shakti
87. What is the significance of the National Water Mission in the context of water resources?
A) Promoting water wastage
B) Achieving sustainable water management and conservation
C) Encouraging deforestation
D) Ignoring environmental concerns
Answer: B) Achieving sustainable water management and conservation
88. What role did the ‘Jal Itihas Utsav’ play in the restoration project of Shamsi Talab, Jahaz Mahal?
A) Raising awareness about air pollution
B) Fostering a sense of ownership among the masses
C) Promoting industrial growth
D) Ignoring historical sites
Answer: B) Fostering a sense of ownership among the masses
89. What kind of structures were restored as part of the project at Shamsi Talab, Jahaz Mahal?
A) Residential buildings
B) Historical monuments
C) Shopping malls
D) Educational institutions
Answer: B) Historical monuments
90. Which agency collaborated with the National Water Mission to ensure the success of the restoration project?
– A) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
– B) National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG)
– C) Central Water Commission (CWC)
– D) Ministry of Finance
Answer: B) National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG)
91. What is the main focus of The National Water Mission?
– A) Promoting water scarcity
– B) Enhancing water pollution
– C) Achieving water security and sustainability
– D) Ignoring water-related issues
Answer: C) Achieving water security and sustainability
92. What role did the Municipal Corporation of Delhi (MCD) play in the restoration project?
– A) Ignored the project
– B) Acted as a sole executor
– C) Provided financial support
– D) Did not collaborate in the project
Answer: B) Acted as a sole executor
93. How does the National Water Mission contribute to the restoration of historical structures?
– A) By promoting industrialization
– B) By encouraging deforestation
– C) By implementing water conservation projects
– D) By neglecting historical sites
Answer: C) By implementing water conservation projects
94. What was the outcome of the restoration of Shamsi Talab, Jahaz Mahal in Mehrauli?
– A) Failure
– B) Partial success
– C) Complete success
– D) No impact
Answer: C) Complete success
95. In which area of Delhi is Mehrauli located?
– A) North Delhi
– B) East Delhi
– C) South Delhi
– D) West Delhi
Answer: C) South Delhi
96. What is the annual target of India’s fiscal deficit for the financial year 2023-24?
A) Rs 8.04 trillion
B) Rs 17.87 trillion
C) Rs 7.57 trillion
D) Rs 45%
Answer: B) Rs 17.87 trillion
97. What percentage of the annual target has India’s fiscal deficit reached in the first seven months of 2023-24?
A) 45%
B) 7.57%
C) 45.6%
D) Rs 8.04 trillion
Answer: A) 45%
98. How much did the fiscal deficit amount to during the period from April to October in 2023-24?
A) Rs 8.04 trillion
B) Rs 17.87 trillion
C) Rs 7.57 trillion
D) Rs 45%
Answer: A) Rs 8.04 trillion
99. What was the fiscal deficit in the corresponding timeframe of the previous fiscal year (2022-23)?
A) Rs 8.04 trillion
B) Rs 7.57 trillion
C) Rs 45%
D) Rs 45.6%
Answer: B) Rs 7.57 trillion
100. How much did the fiscal deficit increase by in the first seven months of 2023-24 compared to the same period in the previous fiscal year?
A) Rs 8.04 trillion
B) Rs 17.87 trillion
C) Not significant
D) Rs 45%
Answer: C) Not significant
101. What was the fiscal deficit as a percentage of the budget estimates for 2022-23 during the same period last year?
A) 45%
B) 7.57%
C) 45.6%
D) Rs 8.04 trillion
Answer: C) 45.6%
102. In terms of fiscal deficit, how does the current fiscal year (2023-24) compare to the same period last year?
A) Lower
B) Higher
C) Equal
D) Cannot be determined
Answer: C) Equal
103. What is identified as pivotal in managing economic stability according to the analysis?
A) Budget estimates
B) Fiscal deficit
C) Annual target
D) Economic trends
Answer: B) Fiscal deficit
104. What timeframe does the analysis focus on for India’s fiscal deficit in 2023-24?
A) January to July
B) April to October
C) October to March
D) April to March
Answer: B) April to October
105. Which figure reflects a notable increase in the fiscal deficit in the first seven months of 2023-24?
A) Rs 8.04 trillion
B) Rs 17.87 trillion
C) Rs 7.57 trillion
D) 45%
Answer: A) Rs 8.04 trillion
106. What regulatory action did the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) take on Thursday?
A. Issued warnings to banks
B. Imposed penalties on two banks
C. Revised reporting requirements
D. Approved transactions between entities
Answer: B. Imposed penalties on two banks
107. Which banks faced penalties from the RBI?
A. HDFC Bank Ltd. only
B. Bank of America, N.A. only
C. Both HDFC Bank Ltd. and Bank of America, N.A.
D. State Bank of India
Answer: C. Both HDFC Bank Ltd. and Bank of America, N.A.
108. What is the basis of the penalties imposed by the RBI?
A. Violation of customer agreements
B. Violation of reporting requirements
C. Non-compliance with transaction validity
D. Violation of Reserve Bank guidelines
Answer: D. Violation of Reserve Bank guidelines
109. What is the penalty amount imposed on Bank of America, N.A.?
A. Rs. 5,000
B. Rs. 10,000
C. Rs. 15,000
D. Rs. 20,000
Answer: B. Rs. 10,000
110. Which regulatory scheme did Bank of America, N.A. violate according to the RBI?
A. Foreign Direct Investment Scheme
B. Liberalized Remittances Scheme
C. National Pension System
D. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
Answer: B. Liberalized Remittances Scheme
111. What legislation governs the liberalized Remittances Scheme violated by Bank of America, N.A.?
A. FEMA 2005
B. Companies Act, 2013
C. Income Tax Act, 1961
D. FEMA 1999
Answer: D. FEMA 1999
112. What consequence led to the penalties imposed by the RBI?
A. Violation of customer privacy
B. Non-compliance with RBI’s instructions
C. Violation of international agreements
D. Failure to meet capital adequacy ratios
Answer: B. Non-compliance with RBI’s instructions
113. What does the RBI clarify about the penalties in its statement?
A. Validity of transactions is questioned
B. Entities are judged for their customer agreements
C. Penalties are not a judgment on transaction validity
D. Penalties indicate endorsement of regulatory compliance
Answer: C. Penalties are not a judgment on transaction validity
114. What is the purpose of the penalties according to the RBI statement?
A. To endorse specific transactions
B. To question the validity of agreements
C. To pass judgment on customer complaints
D. To address deficiencies in regulatory compliance
Answer: D. To address deficiencies in regulatory compliance
115. What does the RBI suggest about the lapse in adherence to regulatory guidelines?
A. It is an isolated incident
B. It is an intentional act
C. It indicates systemic issues
D. It is a routine occurrence
Answer: C. It indicates systemic issues
116. Which year’s instructions did Bank of America, N.A. violate, leading to the penalty?
A. 2000
B. 2005
C. 1999
D. 2010
Answer: C. 1999
117. What type of scheme did the violation occur under?
A. Investment Promotion Scheme
B. Remittances Promotion Scheme
C. Liberalized Remittances Scheme
D. Foreign Exchange Promotion Scheme
Answer: C. Liberalized Remittances Scheme
118. What is the primary purpose of the FEMA 1999 violated by Bank of America, N.A.?
A. Environmental protection
B. Foreign exchange management
C. Education promotion
D. Agricultural development
Answer: B. Foreign exchange management
119. What regulatory entity issued the penalties on the banks?
A. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
B. Ministry of Finance
C. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
D. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
Answer: C. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
120. Which bank faced penalties for violating reporting requirements under the liberalized Remittances Scheme?
A. State Bank of India
B. ICICI Bank
C. HDFC Bank Ltd.
D. Bank of America, N.A.
Answer: D. Bank of America, N.A.
121. What aspect of reporting requirements did Bank of America, N.A. violate?
A. Timeliness of reporting
B. Accuracy of reporting
C. Completeness of reporting
D. Currency of reporting
Answer: C. Completeness of reporting
122. Which of the following is NOT a penalty imposed by the RBI?
A. Warning
B. Fine
C. Suspension
D. Termination of license
Answer: A. Warning
123. What does the RBI clarify regarding the penalties and customer agreements?
A. Customer agreements are invalidated
B. Penalties endorse customer agreements
C. Penalties are unrelated to customer agreements
D. Customer agreements are judged for validity
Answer: C. Penalties are unrelated to customer agreements
124. What is the nature of the penalties imposed by the RBI on the banks?
A. Criminal charges
B. Civil fines
C. Regulatory sanctions
D. Tax liabilities
Answer: C. Regulatory sanctions
125. What is the significance of the penalty amount imposed on Bank of America, N.A.?
A. It reflects the severity of the violation
B. It indicates the profit made from the violation
C. It is a symbolic amount
D. It is set by international standards
Answer: C. It is a symbolic amount
126. What is the primary focus of the liberalized Remittances Scheme of FEMA 1999?
A. Capital investment
B. Foreign exchange transactions
C. Agricultural subsidies
D. Industrial development
Answer: B. Foreign exchange transactions
127. What is the consequence of non-compliance with RBI instructions, as mentioned in the statement?
A. Legal action
B. Penalties
C. Customer complaints
D. License termination
Answer: B. Penalties
128. What does the RBI emphasize regarding the penalties and the entities involved?
A. Entities are judged for transactions
B. Entities are exempt from regulatory scrutiny
C. Penalties are based on transaction validity
D. Penalties are not a judgment on entities or transactions
Answer: D. Penalties are not a judgment on entities or transactions
129. Which act governs the penalties imposed by the RBI on Bank of America, N.A.?
A. Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
B. Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999
C. Banking Regulation Act, 1949
D. Companies Act, 2013
Answer: B. Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999
130. What term does the RBI use to describe the actions of Bank of America, N.A.?
A. Compliance excellence
B. Regulatory adherence
C. Non-compliance
D. Customer satisfaction
Answer: C. Non-compliance
131. What aspect of the liberalized Remittances Scheme did Bank of America, N.A. violate?
A. Capital investment limits
B. Reporting requirements
C. Transaction validity
D. Customer privacy
Answer: B. Reporting requirements
132. What does the RBI state about the penalties and the validity of transactions?
A. Penalties validate transactions
B. Transactions are voided by penalties
C. Penalties are unrelated to transaction validity
D. Validity of transactions is endorsed by penalties
Answer: C. Penalties are unrelated to transaction validity
133. What does the RBI suggest about the lapse in adherence to regulatory guidelines?
A. It is an isolated incident
B. It is an intentional act
C. It indicates systemic issues
D. It is a routine occurrence
Answer: C. It indicates systemic issues
134. What does the penalty amount of Rs. 10,000 signify in the context of the violation?
A. It covers the entire penalty amount
B. It is a fixed penalty amount
C. It is a proportional penalty amount
D. It is a variable penalty amount
Answer: B. It is a fixed penalty amount
135. What does the RBI clarify regarding the penalties and customer agreements?
A. Customer agreements are invalidated
B. Penalties endorse customer agreements
C. Penalties are unrelated to customer agreements
D. Customer agreements are judged for validity
Answer: C. Penalties are unrelated to customer agreements
136. What is the primary focus of the liberalized Remittances Scheme of FEMA 1999?
A. Capital investment
B. Foreign exchange transactions
C. Agricultural subsidies
D. Industrial development
Answer: B. Foreign exchange transactions
137. What is the consequence of non-compliance with RBI instructions, as mentioned in the statement?
A. Legal action
B. Penalties
C. Customer complaints
D. License termination
Answer: B. Penalties
138. What does the RBI emphasize regarding the penalties and the entities involved?
A. Entities are judged for transactions
B. Entities are exempt from regulatory scrutiny
C. Penalties are based on transaction validity
D. Penalties are not a judgment on entities or transactions
Answer: D. Penalties are not a judgment on entities or transactions
139. Which act governs the penalties imposed by the RBI on Bank of America, N.A.?
A. Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
B. Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999
C. Banking Regulation Act, 1949
D. Companies Act, 2013
Answer: B. Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999
140. What term does the RBI use to describe the actions of Bank of America, N.A.?
A. Compliance excellence
B. Regulatory adherence
C. Non-compliance
D. Customer satisfaction
Answer: C. Non-compliance
141. What aspect of the liberalized Remittances Scheme did Bank of America, N.A. violate?
A. Capital investment limits
B. Reporting requirements
C. Transaction validity
D. Customer privacy
Answer: B. Reporting requirements
142. What does the RBI state about the penalties and the validity of transactions?
A. Penalties validate transactions
B. Transactions are voided by penalties
C. Penalties are unrelated to transaction validity
D. Validity of transactions is endorsed by penalties
Answer: C. Penalties are unrelated to transaction validity
143. What does the RBI suggest about the lapse in adherence to regulatory guidelines?
A. It is an isolated incident
B. It is an intentional act
C. It indicates systemic issues
D. It is a routine occurrence
Answer: C. It indicates systemic issues
144. What does the penalty amount of Rs. 10,000 signify in the context of the violation?
A. It covers the entire penalty amount
B. It is a fixed penalty amount
C. It is a proportional penalty amount
D. It is a variable penalty amount
Answer: B. It is a fixed penalty amount
145. What does the RBI clarify regarding the penalties and customer agreements?
A. Customer agreements are invalidated
B. Penalties endorse customer agreements
C. Penalties are unrelated to customer agreements
D. Customer agreements are judged for validity
Answer: C. Penalties are unrelated to customer agreements
146. When was World AIDS Day first observed?
A) 1985
B) 1988
C) 1990
D) 1995
Answer: B) 1988
147. Who initiated World AIDS Day in August 1988?
A) James W. Bunn and Thomas Netter
B) Dr. Johnathan Mann
C) World Health Organization
D) UNAIDS
Answer: A) James W. Bunn and Thomas Netter
148. What is the estimated number of HIV-positive individuals in 1988, prompting the initiation of World AIDS Day?
A) 50,000 to 75,000
B) 75,000 to 100,000
C) 90,000 to 150,000
D) 200,000 to 250,000
Answer: C) 90,000 to 150,000
149. Who approved the idea of World AIDS Day for December 1, 1988?
A) James W. Bunn
B) Thomas Netter
C) Dr. Johnathan Mann
D) World Health Organization
Answer: C) Dr. Johnathan Mann
150. What is the theme for World AIDS Day 2023?
A) Break the Stigma
B) Unite for Awareness
C) Let Communities Lead!
D) End the Silence
Answer: C) Let Communities Lead!
151. World AIDS Day is observed annually on:
A) November 30
B) December 1
C) December 2
D) December 3
Answer: B) December 1
152. The primary goal of World AIDS Day is to:
A) Celebrate medical advancements
B) Raise awareness about HIV/AIDS
C) Promote healthcare tourism
D) Honor Nobel laureates in medicine
Answer: B) Raise awareness about HIV/AIDS
153. Which organization’s public information officers initiated World AIDS Day?
A) UNICEF
B) WHO
C) UNAIDS
D) CDC
Answer: B) WHO (World Health Organization)
154. The theme “Let Communities Lead!” emphasizes the role of:
A) Government
B) International Organizations
C) Healthcare Professionals
D) Communities
Answer: D) Communities
155. How many years has World AIDS Day been observed as of 2023?
A) 25 years
B) 30 years
C) 35 years
D) 40 years
Answer: C) 35 years
156. The founders of World AIDS Day were associated with which program of the World Health Organization?
A) Global Vaccination Program
B) AIDS Global Program
C) Maternal Health Program
D) Tuberculosis Control Program
Answer: B) AIDS Global Program
157. The red ribbon is a symbol associated with:
A) Cancer Awareness
B) Heart Health
C) HIV/AIDS Awareness
D) Diabetes Awareness
Answer: C) HIV/AIDS Awareness
158. What is the color of the ribbon commonly associated with HIV/AIDS awareness?
A) Blue
B) Yellow
C) Red
D) Green
Answer: C) Red
159. What is the global symbol for solidarity with people living with HIV/AIDS?
A) Red Ribbon
B) Yellow Flower
C) Blue Heart
D) Green Cross
Answer: A) Red Ribbon
160. In which month and year did James W. Bunn and Thomas Netter propose the idea of World AIDS Day?
A) June 1988
B) August 1988
C) October 1988
D) December 1988
Answer: B) August 1988
161. The first-ever AIDS case was reported in which year?
A) 1979
B) 1981
C) 1983
D) 1985
Answer: B) 1981
162. The antiretroviral drug AZT, the first approved treatment for HIV, was introduced in:
A) 1985
B) 1987
C) 1989
D) 1991
Answer: B) 1987
163. Approximately how many people worldwide were living with HIV/AIDS as of the latest available data in 2022?
A) 15 million
B) 25 million
C) 38 million
D) 50 million
Answer: C) 38 million
164. What does HIV stand for?
A) Human Influenza Virus
B) Human Immunodeficiency Virus
C) Highly Infectious Virus
D) Human Invasive Virus
Answer: B) Human Immunodeficiency Virus
165. Which body fluid is primarily responsible for the transmission of HIV?
A) Saliva
B) Blood
C) Urine
D) Sweat
Answer: B) Blood
166. In what year did the United Nations establish UNAIDS?
A) 1990
B) 1995
C) 2000
D) 2005
Answer: A) 1990
167. The “90-90-90” target, a key component of the global HIV response, aims for:
A) 90% of people living with HIV to be aware of their status
B) 90% of people diagnosed with HIV to receive sustained antiretroviral therapy
C) 90% of people receiving antiretroviral therapy to achieve viral suppression
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
168. Which continent has the highest prevalence of HIV/AIDS?
A) Africa
B) Asia
C) North America
D) Europe
Answer: A) Africa
169. HIV can be transmitted through:
A) Casual contact
B) Airborne particles
C) Sharing needles
D) Mosquito bites
Answer: C) Sharing needles
170. What does AIDS stand for?
A) Acquired Inflammatory Deficiency Syndrome
B) Autoimmune Immunodeficiency Syndrome
C) Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome
D) Advanced Inflammatory Disease Syndrome
Answer: C) Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome
171. The term “zero discrimination” in the context of HIV/AIDS emphasizes:
A) Elimination of HIV
B) Equal access to healthcare
C) Stigma reduction
D) Global eradication of infectious diseases
Answer: C) Stigma reduction
172. The risk of mother-to-child transmission of HIV can be significantly reduced with:
A) Early initiation of antiretroviral therapy during pregnancy
B) Exclusive breastfeeding
C) Avoiding prenatal care
D) Home childbirth
Answer: A) Early initiation of antiretroviral therapy during pregnancy
173. Which region has shown significant progress in reducing new HIV infections in recent years?
A) Sub-Saharan Africa
B) Southeast Asia
C) Eastern Europe and Central Asia
D) Latin America
Answer: B) Southeast Asia
174. What is PrEP (Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis)?
A) A vaccine for HIV
B) A treatment for AIDS
C) A method to prevent HIV infection
D) A support group for people living with HIV
Answer: C) A method to prevent HIV infection
175. The term “viral load” refers to:
A) The amount of virus in the bloodstream
B) The number of infected individuals in a population
C) The speed of HIV transmission
D) The frequency of HIV mutations
Answer: A) The amount of virus in the bloodstream
176. The first HIV test, detecting antibodies to the virus, was developed in:
A) 1982
B) 1985
C) 1988
D) 1990
Answer: B) 1985
177. What is the main route of transmission for HIV among adults globally?
A) Sexual transmission
B) Mother-to-child transmission
C) Blood transfusion
D) Injection drug use
Answer: A) Sexual transmission
178. In addition to HIV awareness, World AIDS Day also emphasizes the importance of:
A) Cancer research
B) Mental health awareness
C) Tuberculosis prevention
D) Safe sexual practices
Answer: D) Safe sexual practices
179. The concept of “U=U” in the context of HIV/AIDS stands for:
A) Universal Treatment Access
B) Undetectable equals Untransmittable
C) Unwavering Unity
D) Unique Understanding
Answer: B) Undetectable equals Untransmittable
180. The Global Fund to Fight AIDS, Tuberculosis, and Malaria was established in which year?
A) 1998
B) 2000
C) 2002
D) 2005
Answer: A) 1998
181. The term “seroconversion” refers to:
A) The development of antibodies in response to HIV infection
B) The elimination of the virus from the body
C) The progression from HIV to AIDS
D) The transmission of the virus through sexual contact
Answer: A) The development of antibodies in response to HIV infection
182. In which year was the first effective antiretroviral therapy introduced?
A) 1985
B) 1987
C) 1996
D) 2001
Answer: C) 1996
183. Which of the following is NOT a key population vulnerable to HIV/AIDS?
A) Men who have sex with men
B) People who inject drugs
C) Healthcare workers
D) Sex workers
Answer: C) Healthcare workers
184. The term “stigmatization” refers to:
A) A positive social response to HIV/AIDS
B) Discrimination and negative attitudes towards people living with HIV/AIDS
C) A scientific measure of virus concentration in the blood
D) The global effort to end the HIV/AIDS epidemic
Answer: B) Discrimination and negative attitudes towards people living with HIV/AIDS
185. What is the role of communities in the theme “Let Communities Lead!” for World AIDS Day 2023?
A) To follow governmental guidelines
B) To participate in awareness campaigns
C) To take a leading role in HIV initiatives
D) To provide financial support for HIV research
Answer: C) To take a leading role in HIV initiatives
186. What event is being commemorated on the 39th anniversary by Madhya Pradesh Chief Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan?
a) Independence Day
b) Bhopal Gas Tragedy
c) World Environment Day
d) Republic Day
Answer: b) Bhopal Gas Tragedy
187. When did the Bhopal Gas Tragedy occur?
a) November 23-24, 1984
b) December 2-3, 1984
c) January 1, 1985
d) March 15-16, 1985
Answer: b) December 2-3, 1984
188. What substance leaked from the Union Carbide India Limited (UCIL) factory during the Bhopal Gas Tragedy?
a) Chlorine
b) Ammonia
c) Methyl Isocyanate (MIC)
d) Hydrogen Cyanide
Answer: c) Methyl Isocyanate (MIC)
189. Where did the tragic incident of the Bhopal Gas Tragedy unfold?
a) New Delhi
b) Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh
c) Mumbai
d) Kolkata
Answer: b) Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh
190. What was the immediate consequence of the MIC leak in the Bhopal Gas Tragedy?
a) Environmental pollution
b) Loss of thousands of lives
c) Economic downturn
d) Political instability
Answer: b) Loss of thousands of lives
191. What demands were made by women during the candle march organized in Bhopal?
a) Employment opportunities
b) Education reform
c) Compensation, healthcare, and justice
d) Tax reforms
Answer: c) Compensation, healthcare, and justice
192. Where did the candle march start from and conclude in Bhopal?
a) Memorial near the factory to Sidhi Colony
b) Sidhi Colony to the Union Carbide India Limited (UCIL) factory
c) Sidhi Colony to the memorial near the factory
d) Union Carbide India Limited (UCIL) factory to Sidhi Colony
Answer: c) Sidhi Colony to the memorial near the factory
193. What did the candle march in Bhopal serve as a reminder of?
a) Economic prosperity
b) Ongoing struggles faced by survivors
c) Technological advancements
d) Political achievements
Answer: b) Ongoing struggles faced by survivors
194. Which company was responsible for the Bhopal Gas Tragedy?
a) Dow Chemical Company
b) ExxonMobil
c) Union Carbide India Limited (UCIL)
d) Shell
Answer: c) Union Carbide India Limited (UCIL)
195. What does MIC stand for in the context of the Bhopal Gas Tragedy?
a) Methyl Isocyanate
b) Methane Isocyanide
c) Manganese Isocyanate
d) Molybdenum Isocyanide
Answer: a) Methyl Isocyanate
196. What was the main impact on survivors of the Bhopal Gas Tragedy?
a) Physical injuries
b) Economic prosperity
c) Social recognition
d) Academic achievements
Answer: a) Physical injuries
197. Which anniversary of the Bhopal Gas Tragedy is being marked in the given context?
a) 20th
b) 39th
c) 50th
d) 10th
Answer: b) 39th
198. Who paid tribute to the victims of the Bhopal Gas Tragedy?
a) Indian Prime Minister
b) Madhya Pradesh Chief Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan
c) United Nations Secretary-General
d) Bollywood celebrities
Answer: b) Madhya Pradesh Chief Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan
199. What type of march was organized in remembrance of the Bhopal Gas Tragedy?
a) Marathon
b) Protest
c) Candle march
d) Victory march
Answer: c) Candle march
200. What were the placards carried by women in the candle march seeking?
a) Tax exemptions
b) Compensation, healthcare, and justice
c) Employment opportunities
d) Political reforms
Answer: b) Compensation, healthcare, and justice
201. What does UPI stand for in the Indian financial context?
A) Unified Payments Interface
B) Unique Payment Integration
C) Universal Payment Infrastructure
D) Unified Payment Index
Answer: A) Unified Payments Interface
202. In November, UPI transactions in India reached what amount in crore rupees?
A) ₹17.16 lakh crore
B) ₹17.40 lakh crore
C) ₹16.80 lakh crore
D) ₹18.00 lakh crore
Answer: B) ₹17.40 lakh crore
203. What was the percentage increase in the value of UPI transactions from October to November?
A) 1%
B) 1.2%
C) 1.4%
D) 1.6%
Answer: C) 1.4%
204. How much was the year-on-year growth in UPI transactions in November?
A) 35%
B) 40%
C) 45%
D) 46%
Answer: D) 46%
205. Which organization reported the UPI transaction statistics?
A) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
B) National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
C) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
D) Indian Banks’ Association (IBA)
Answer: B) National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
206. In fiscal year 2024 (FY24), what has been the growth rate of the value of UPI transactions?
A) 30%
B) 40%
C) 50%
D) 60%
Answer: B) 40%
207. What is the growth rate of the volume of UPI trades in FY24?
A) 30%
B) 40%
C) 50%
D) 60%
Answer: C) 50%
208. Which month’s UPI transactions set the previous high before November?
A) September
B) October
C) August
D) July
Answer: B) October
209. UPI transactions in October were approximately how much in crore rupees?
A) ₹17.00 lakh crore
B) ₹17.16 lakh crore
C) ₹16.80 lakh crore
D) ₹18.00 lakh crore
Answer: B) ₹17.16 lakh crore
210. How much was the monthly increase in the value of UPI transactions from October to November?
A) ₹0.24 lakh crore
B) ₹0.26 lakh crore
C) ₹0.34 lakh crore
D) ₹0.20 lakh crore
Answer: A) ₹0.24 lakh crore
211. Which year did the UPI platform witness a growth rate of 46% in transactions?
A) 2021
B) 2022
C) 2023
D) Not specified in the passage
Answer: D) Not specified in the passage
212. In FY24, UPI transactions have consistently grown in both value and volume.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A) True
213. What is the primary role of the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)?
A) Stock Market Regulation
B) Currency Printing and Minting
C) Payment Systems and Financial Settlement
D) Monetary Policy Formulation
Answer: C) Payment Systems and Financial Settlement
214. UPI transactions in November amounted to a _____% increase in value compared to October.
A) 0.8%
B) 1.2%
C) 1.6%
D) 2.0%
Answer: C) 1.6%
215. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a milestone achieved by UPI?
A) Monthly Value of Transactions
B) Year-on-Year Growth Rate
C) Quarterly Volume of Transactions
D) Fiscal Year Growth Rate
Answer: C) Quarterly Volume of Transactions
216. What is the fiscal year covered in the provided passage?
A) FY21
B) FY22
C) FY23
D) FY24
Answer: D) FY24
217. The growth rate of UPI transactions in FY24 has been consistently over _____%.
A) 30%
B) 40%
C) 50%
D) 60%
Answer: B) 40%
218. UPI transactions in November surpassed the previous high recorded in which month?
A) August
B) September
C) October
D) November (of the previous year)
Answer: C) October
219. UPI transactions in October were approximately _____ lakh crore in value.
A) 16.80
B) 17.00
C) 17.16
D) 18.00
Answer: C) 17.16
220. The growth rate of UPI transactions on a yearly basis was _____% in November.
A) 40%
B) 45%
C) 46%
D) 50%
Answer: C) 46%
221. What organization released the data on UPI transactions in November?
A) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
B) National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
C) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
D) Ministry of Finance
Answer: B) National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
222. UPI transactions in November amounted to _____ lakh crore rupees.
A) 16.80
B) 17.00
C) 17.16
D) 17.40
Answer: D) 17.40
223. What is the monthly increase in the value of UPI transactions from October to November?
A) ₹0.20 lakh crore
B) ₹0.24 lakh crore
C) ₹0.26 lakh crore
D) ₹0.34 lakh crore
Answer: B) ₹0.24 lakh crore
224. UPI transactions in November recorded a _____% increase in value compared to October.
A) 1.0%
B) 1.2%
C) 1.4%
D) 1.6%
Answer: C) 1.4%
225. Which month witnessed the highest UPI transactions before November?
A) September
B) October
C) August
D) July
Answer: B) October
226. The fiscal year 2024 (FY24) has seen a growth rate of over _____% in the volume of UPI trades.
A) 30%
B) 40%
C) 50%
D) 60%
Answer: C) 50%
227. UPI transactions in October surpassed the previous high recorded in which month?
A) August
B) September
C) October (of the previous year)
D) November (of the previous year)
Answer: C) October (of the previous year)
228. In November, UPI transactions reached a staggering _____ lakh crore rupees.
A) 16.80
B) 17.00
C) 17.16
D) 17.40
Answer: D) 17.40
229. The monthly increase in the value of UPI transactions from October to November was _____ lakh crore rupees.
A) 0.20
B) 0.24
C) 0.26
D) 0.34
Answer: B) 0.24
230. UPI transactions in November recorded a _____% increase in value compared to October.
A) 1.0%
B) 1.2%
C) 1.4%
D) 1.6%
Answer: C) 1.4%
