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Weekly Current Affairs Quiz for Odisha Competitive Exams | July 1st Week 2024

Weekly Current affairs play a very important role in the competitive examinations and hence, aspirants have to give undivided attention to it while doing preparation for the government examinations. The CGLRE, OCS examinations comprise a section of “Current Affairs” to evaluate how much the aspirant is aware of the daily happenings taking place around the world. To complement your preparation, we are providing you with a compilation of  Weekly Current affairs.

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  1. What weight category does the term “megafauna” refer to?
    (a) Animals weighing more than 10 kg
    (b) Animals weighing more than 20 kg
    (c) Animals weighing more than 50 kg
    (d) Animals weighing more than 100 kg
    Ans: (c) Animals weighing more than 50 kg

     

  2. Who first used the term “megafauna”?
    (a) Charles Darwin
    (b) Alfred Russel Wallace
    (c) Alexander von Humboldt
    (d) Carl Linnaeus
    Ans: (b) Alfred Russel Wallace

     

  3. What diet category do ostriches fall under?
    (a) Megaherbivores
    (b) Megacarnivores
    (c) Megaomnivores
    (d) Megainsectivores
    Ans: (c) Megaomnivores

     

  4. What is the typical weight range of an ostrich?
    (a) 50-90 kg
    (b) 90-140 kg
    (c) 140-200 kg
    (d) 200-250 kg
    Ans: (b) 90-140 kg

     

  5. What is the height range of an ostrich?
    (a) 3-5 feet
    (b) 5-7 feet
    (c) 7-9 feet
    (d) 9-11 feet
    Ans: (c) 7-9 feet

     

  6. What is the primary aim of the India-Mongolia Joint Military Exercise NOMADIC ELEPHANT?
    (a) Enhance naval capabilities
    (b) Enhance air combat skills
    (c) Enhance joint military capability for counter-insurgency operations
    (d) Enhance diplomatic relations
    Ans: (c) Enhance joint military capability for counter-insurgency operations

     

  7. Which Indian battalion represents the Indian contingent in the NOMADIC ELEPHANT exercise?
    (a) GARHWAL RIFLES
    (b) SIKKIM SCOUTS
    (c) BIHAR REGIMENT
    (d) MARATHA LIGHT INFANTRY
    Ans: (b) SIKKIM SCOUTS

     

  8. Where is the 2024 edition of the NOMADIC ELEPHANT exercise taking place?
    (a) Mongolia
    (b) Sikkim
    (c) Meghalaya
    (d) Rajasthan
    Ans: (c) Meghalaya

     

  9. What is the duration of the ‘Sampoornata Abhiyan’ launched by NITI Aayog?
    (a) 1st June to 31st August 2024
    (b) 4th July to 30th September 2024
    (c) 1st August to 31st October 2024
    (d) 4th July to 31st December 2024
    Ans: (b) 4th July to 30th September 2024

     

  10. Which of the following is NOT a focus area of ‘Sampoornata Abhiyan’ in Aspirational Districts?
    (a) Percentage of pregnant women registered for ANC within the first trimester
    (b) Percentage of children fully immunized
    (c) Percentage of rural electrification completed
    (d) Percentage of schools providing textbooks within 1 month of the start of the academic session
    Ans: (c) Percentage of rural electrification completed
  11. What is the primary objective of the Saubhagya scheme?
    (a) Electrification of commercial buildings
    (b) Universal household electrification
    (c) Providing solar panels to urban households
    (d) Reducing electricity tariffs
    Ans: (b) Universal household electrification
  12. When was the Saubhagya scheme launched?
    (a) January 2016
    (b) October 2017
    (c) April 2018
    (d) March 2019
    Ans: (b) October 2017
  13. Which agency is designated as the nodal agency for the Saubhagya scheme?
    (a) NTPC
    (b) Power Grid Corporation
    (c) Rural Electrification Corporation (REC)
    (d) NITI Aayog
    Ans: (c) Rural Electrification Corporation (REC)
  14. What type of households are eligible for free electricity connections under the Saubhagya scheme?
    (a) BPL families in rural areas
    (b) All urban households
    (c) All rural households
    (d) Industrial units
    Ans: (a) BPL families in rural areas
  15. How much does a non-BPL family in rural areas have to pay for an electricity connection under the Saubhagya scheme?
    (a) Rs. 1000 in 10 installments of Rs. 100
    (b) Rs. 500 in 10 installments of Rs. 50
    (c) Rs. 1000 upfront
    (d) Rs. 500 upfront
    Ans: (b) Rs. 500 in 10 installments of Rs. 50
  16. Which data is used to identify beneficiaries for free electricity connections under the Saubhagya scheme?
    (a) Census 2001 data
    (b) Census 2011 data
    (c) SECC 2011 data
    (d) SECC 2021 data
    Ans: (c) SECC 2011 data
  17. What type of system is provided for households in remote and inaccessible villages under the Saubhagya scheme?
    (a) Wind energy systems
    (b) Diesel generators
    (c) Solar Photo Voltaic (SPV)-based standalone systems
    (d) Biomass energy systems
    Ans: (c) Solar Photo Voltaic (SPV)-based standalone systems
  18. Who issued notifications to the former chief secretary and other former officials of the Meghalaya Energy Corporation Limited (MeECL) regarding irregularities in the Saubhagya scheme?
    (a) Meghalaya High Court
    (b) Meghalaya Lokayukta
    (c) Central Vigilance Commission
    (d) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
    Ans: (b) Meghalaya Lokayukta
  19. What items are included in the free connections for BPL families in rural areas?
    (a) LED bulbs, wire, holders, switches, etc.
    (b) Only meters
    (c) Only wiring
    (d) Only LED bulbs
    Ans: (a) LED bulbs, wire, holders, switches, etc.
  20. Which areas are excluded from receiving free power connections in urban areas under the Saubhagya scheme?
    (a) Poor households
    (b) BPL families
    (c) Non-poor urban households
    (d) Industrial areas
    Ans: (c) Non-poor urban households
  21. What is the purpose of the Saubhagya scheme?
    (a) Providing employment in rural areas
    (b) Universal household electrification
    (c) Development of smart cities
    (d) Promotion of renewable energy
    Ans: (b) Universal household electrification
  22. Which type of households in urban areas are eligible for free power connections under the Saubhagya scheme?
    (a) BPL families
    (b) All urban households
    (c) Non-poor households
    (d) Only industrial households
    Ans: (a) BPL families
  23. What was the launch date of the Saubhagya scheme?
    (a) January 2016
    (b) October 2017
    (c) April 2018
    (d) March 2019
    Ans: (b) October 2017
  24. The beneficiaries for free electricity connections under the Saubhagya scheme are identified using which data?
    (a) Census 2011 data
    (b) Census 2001 data
    (c) SECC 2021 data
    (d) SECC 2011 data
    Ans: (d) SECC 2011 data
  25. Which organization is responsible for implementing the Saubhagya scheme?
    (a) NTPC
    (b) Power Grid Corporation
    (c) Rural Electrification Corporation (REC)
    (d) NITI Aayog
    Ans: (c) Rural Electrification Corporation (REC)
  26. What is provided to households in remote areas where grid extension is not feasible under the Saubhagya scheme?
    (a) Wind energy systems
    (b) Diesel generators
    (c) Solar Photo Voltaic (SPV)-based standalone systems
    (d) Biomass energy systems
    Ans: (c) Solar Photo Voltaic (SPV)-based standalone systems
  27. The Meghalaya Lokayukta issued notifications regarding irregularities in the implementation of which scheme?
    (a) UDAY scheme
    (b) Saubhagya scheme
    (c) DDUGJY scheme
    (d) IPDS scheme
    Ans: (b) Saubhagya scheme
  28. What does the Saubhagya scheme aim to achieve?
    (a) Employment generation
    (b) Universal household electrification
    (c) Development of smart cities
    (d) Promotion of renewable energy
    Ans: (b) Universal household electrification
  29. Under the Saubhagya scheme, what is the cost of electricity connection for non-BPL families in rural areas?
    (a) Rs. 1000 upfront
    (b) Rs. 500 in 10 installments of Rs. 50
    (c) Rs. 2000 upfront
    (d) Free of cost
    Ans: (b) Rs. 500 in 10 installments of Rs. 50
  30. The Rural Electrification Corporation (REC) is the nodal agency for which scheme?
    (a) UDAY scheme
    (b) Saubhagya scheme
    (c) DDUGJY scheme
    (d) IPDS scheme
    Ans: (b) Saubhagya scheme
  31. What is the main objective of the PM-Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana?
    (a) To provide subsidies for electric vehicles
    (b) To offer free electricity up to 300 units per month
    (c) To distribute LED bulbs to households
    (d) To reduce the cost of electricity for industries
    Ans. (b) To offer free electricity up to 300 units per month
  32. How many households are targeted under the PM-Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana?
    (a) 50 lakh households
    (b) 1 crore households
    (c) 2 crore households
    (d) 5 lakh households
    Ans. (b) 1 crore households
  33. What type of installations will be promoted under this scheme?
    (a) Wind energy installations
    (b) Biomass energy installations
    (c) Rooftop solar installations
    (d) Hydropower installations
    Ans. (c) Rooftop solar installations
  34. Who will promote rooftop solar systems in urban and rural areas?
    (a) Private companies
    (b) Urban local bodies and Panchayats
    (c) Non-Governmental Organizations (NGOs)
    (d) Educational institutions
    Ans. (b) Urban local bodies and Panchayats
  35. What is the financial benefit provided to beneficiaries under this scheme?
    (a) Direct cash transfer
    (b) Free electricity up to 300 units per month
    (c) Tax rebate
    (d) Free solar panels
    Ans. (b) Free electricity up to 300 units per month
  36. How will the financial burden on beneficiaries be managed?
    (a) Through crowd-funding
    (b) By offering subsidies and affordable loans
    (c) By increasing taxes
    (d) By reducing other welfare schemes
    Ans. (b) By offering subsidies and affordable loans
  37. How much subsidy is provided for a 1 KW solar system under the Pradhan Mantri Surya Ghar Yojana?
    (a) Rs 20,000
    (b) Rs 30,000
    (c) Rs 50,000
    (d) Rs 60,000
    Ans. (b) Rs 30,000
  38. What is the subsidy amount for a 2 KW solar system under the scheme?
    (a) Rs 20,000
    (b) Rs 40,000
    (c) Rs 60,000
    (d) Rs 80,000
    Ans. (c) Rs 60,000
  39. How much subsidy is provided for a 3 KW solar system or larger?
    (a) Rs 50,000
    (b) Rs 60,000
    (c) Rs 70,000
    (d) Rs 78,000
    Ans. (d) Rs 78,000
  40. Which government is launching the PM-Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana?
    (a) Maharashtra Government
    (b) Odisha Government
    (c) Karnataka Government
    (d) Gujarat Government
    Ans. (b) Odisha Government
  41. When is GST Day observed?
    (a) June 1
    (b) July 1
    (c) August 1
    (d) September 1
    Ans. (b) July 1
  42. What significant achievement was recorded by Odisha in June 2024 concerning GST?
    (a) Introduction of a new tax slab
    (b) 24% growth in State GST collections
    (c) Launch of a new GST portal
    (d) Implementation of GST 2.0
    Ans. (b) 24% growth in State GST collections
  43. Who proposed the concept of GST in India?
    (a) The Planning Commission
    (b) The Kelkar Task Force
    (c) NITI Aayog
    (d) The Ministry of Finance
    Ans. (b) The Kelkar Task Force
  44. When was the Constitution (101st Amendment) Act enacted by the Parliament?
    (a) August 2016
    (b) January 2017
    (c) March 2018
    (d) July 2015
    Ans. (a) August 2016
  45. What was the purpose of the GST Council?
    (a) To set income tax rates
    (b) To oversee the implementation of GST
    (c) To regulate foreign trade
    (d) To manage public sector enterprises
    Ans. (b) To oversee the implementation of GST
  46. When was GST finally implemented in India?
    (a) January 1, 2016
    (b) April 1, 2017
    (c) July 1, 2017
    (d) December 1, 2018
    Ans. (c) July 1, 2017
  47. Who was the Chief Minister of Odisha during the launch of Subhadra Yojana?
    (a) Naveen Patnaik
    (b) Biju Patnaik
    (c) Mohan Charan Majhi
    (d) Anubhav Mohanty
    Ans. (c) Mohan Charan Majhi
  48. On what date is the Subhadra Yojana scheduled to launch?
    (a) August 15
    (b) October 2
    (c) September 17
    (d) November 14
    Ans. (c) September 17
  49. What is the main benefit provided to women under the Subhadra Yojana?
    (a) Free education
    (b) Employment opportunities
    (c) Cash voucher worth Rs 50,000
    (d) Housing loans
    Ans. (c) Cash voucher worth Rs 50,000
  50. During which event was the decision to implement the Subhadra Yojana approved?
    (a) Second cabinet meeting
    (b) Budget session
    (c) First cabinet meeting of the BJP government
    (d) Special assembly session
    Ans. (c) First cabinet meeting of the BJP government
  51. Why is Project Nexus in the news?
    (a) Launch of a new space mission
    (b) India’s inclusion in a multilateral payment initiative
    (c) Introduction of a new agricultural scheme
    (d) Development of a new submarine project
    Ans. (b) India’s inclusion in a multilateral payment initiative
  52. What is the primary objective of Project Nexus?
    (a) To promote digital literacy
    (b) To enable instant cross-border retail payments
    (c) To develop new payment software
    (d) To enhance cybersecurity measures
    Ans. (b) To enable instant cross-border retail payments
  53. Which countries are participants in Project Nexus alongside India?
    (a) Bangladesh, Nepal, Sri Lanka
    (b) Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand
    (c) China, Japan, South Korea
    (d) Australia, New Zealand, Canada
    Ans. (b) Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand
  54. Which domestic system represents India in Project Nexus?
    (a) National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
    (b) Unified Payments Interface (UPI)
    (c) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
    (d) Indian Financial System Code (IFSC)
    Ans. (b) Unified Payments Interface (UPI)
  55. Why is the 16th Finance Commission in the news?
    (a) Completion of its final report
    (b) Commencement of its work
    (c) Introduction of a new financial bill
    (d) Implementation of GST
    Ans. (b) Commencement of its work
  56. What constitutional amendments emphasize local bodies’ recognition in the context of the Finance Commission?
    (a) 42nd and 44th
    (b) 73rd and 74th
    (c) 52nd and 53rd
    (d) 61st and 62nd
    Ans. (b) 73rd and 74th
  57. When is the 16th Finance Commission expected to be constituted?
    (a) 2022
    (b) 2023
    (c) 2024
    (d) 2025
    Ans. (c) 2024
  58. Who is the chairman of the 16th Finance Commission?
    (a) Dr. Manmohan Singh
    (b) N.K. Singh
    (c) Y.V. Reddy
    (d) Shri Arvind Panagariya
    Ans. (d) Shri Arvind Panagariya
  59. Why is Project-76 in the news?
    (a) Successful launch of a new satellite
    (b) Design and development of an indigenous submarine
    (c) Completion of a major dam project
    (d) Introduction of new agricultural policies
    Ans. (b) Design and development of an indigenous submarine
  60. What type of submarines are being developed under Project-76?
    (a) Nuclear-powered submarines
    (b) Diesel-electric submarines with air-independent propulsion (AIP)
    (c) Unmanned underwater vehicles
    (d) Hybrid submarines
    Ans. (b) Diesel-electric submarines with air-independent propulsion (AIP)
  61. How many submarines does the Indian Navy plan to build under Project-76?
    (a) 6
    (b) 8
    (c) 10
    (d) 12
    Ans. (d) 12
  62. When is the construction of the prototype submarine expected to start?
    (a) 2025
    (b) 2028
    (c) 2030
    (d) 2032
    Ans. (b) 2028
  63. Why is the eSankhyiki Portal in the news?
    (a) Launch of a new education policy
    (b) Inauguration of a statistical data management portal
    (c) Introduction of a digital health platform
    (d) Implementation of a cybersecurity initiative
    Ans. (b) Inauguration of a statistical data management portal
  64. Which ministry launched the eSankhyiki Portal?
    (a) Ministry of Finance
    (b) Ministry of Home Affairs
    (c) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI)
    (d) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
    Ans. (c) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI)
  65. What is the theme aligned with the launch of the eSankhyiki Portal?
    (a) Digital India
    (b) Use of data for Decision making
    (c) Statistical Innovations
    (d) Data Privacy and Security
    Ans. (b) Use of data for Decision making
  66. What is the primary objective of the eSankhyiki Portal?
    (a) Provide real-time inputs for planners and policymakers
    (b) Facilitate online education
    (c) Promote e-governance
    (d) Enhance cybersecurity measures
    Ans. (a) Provide real-time inputs for planners and policymakers
  67. Why is the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund Scheme in the news?
    (a) Launch of a new space mission
    (b) Launch of a web portal to expedite bank settlements of interest subvention claims
    (c) Introduction of new tax reforms
    (d) Implementation of a national health scheme
    Ans. (b) Launch of a web portal to expedite bank settlements of interest subvention claims
  68. In which year was the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund Scheme launched?
    (a) 2018
    (b) 2019
    (c) 2020
    (d) 2021
    Ans. (c) 2020
  69. What is the total outlay for the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund Scheme?
    (a) ₹50,000 crore
    (b) ₹75,000 crore
    (c) ₹1 lakh crore
    (d) ₹1.5 lakh crore
    Ans. (c) ₹1 lakh crore
  70. What is the primary objective of the Krishi Katha Platform?
    (a) Provide digital healthcare to farmers
    (b) Raise awareness about farming issues and solutions
    (c) Promote foreign investments in agriculture
    (d) Facilitate urban farming initiatives
    Ans. (b) Raise awareness about farming issues and solutions
  71. What is the total capacity of the HPCL wind energy project in Umerkot, Nabarangpur district?
    (a) 48 MW
    (b) 49.5 MW
    (c) 50 MW
    (d) 100 MW
    Ans: (a) 48 MW
  72. Where is the ONGC Tripura Power Company’s wind energy project located?
    (a) Bhubaneswar
    (b) Astaranga, Puri district
    (c) Rourkela
    (d) Cuttack
    Ans: (b) Astaranga, Puri district
  73. What is the total investment amount for the wind energy projects approved by the State’s Single Window Committee?
    (a) ₹500 crores
    (b) ₹881.28 crores
    (c) ₹1000 crores
    (d) ₹1500 crores
    Ans: (b) ₹881.28 crores
  74. Under which policy has Odisha approved investments totaling ₹3,723.57 crores?
    (a) Odisha Green Energy Policy, 2020
    (b) Odisha Renewable Energy Policy, 2022
    (c) Odisha Solar Energy Policy, 2021
    (d) Odisha Wind Energy Policy, 2019
    Ans: (b) Odisha Renewable Energy Policy, 2022
  75. What is the total renewable energy capacity approved by SWC for Odisha?
    (a) 300 MW
    (b) 400 MW
    (c) 499.48 MW
    (d) 500 MW
    Ans: (c) 499.48 MW
  76. What is the primary focus of Lok Adalats as emphasized by the Orissa High Court?
    (a) Acting as regular judges
    (b) Imposing fines
    (c) Conciliation
    (d) Punishment
    Ans: (c) Conciliation
  77. What does “Lok Adalat” translate to in English?
    (a) People’s Court
    (b) Public Court
    (c) Local Court
    (d) Law Court
    Ans: (a) People’s Court
  78. Under which act are Lok Adalats established?
    (a) Indian Penal Code, 1860
    (b) Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
    (c) Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
    (d) Indian Evidence Act, 1872
    Ans: (b) Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
  79. Which type of Lok Adalat handles cases related to public utility services?
    (a) National Lok Adalat
    (b) Permanent Lok Adalat
    (c) Mega Lok Adalat
    (d) Mobile Lok Adalats
    Ans: (b) Permanent Lok Adalat
  80. Which type of Lok Adalat is conducted monthly across India?
    (a) Permanent Lok Adalat
    (b) National Lok Adalat
    (c) Mega Lok Adalat
    (d) Mobile Lok Adalats
    Ans: (b) National Lok Adalat
  81. Why is Odisha’s government planting palm trees?
    (a) For beautification
    (b) To prevent lightning-related deaths
    (c) For fruit production
    (d) For timber
    Ans: (b) To prevent lightning-related deaths
  82. How many palm trees does the Forest Department plan to plant in 2024-25?
    (a) 10 lakh
    (b) 15 lakh
    (c) 19 lakh
    (d) 20 lakh
    Ans: (c) 19 lakh
  83. How much is the Odisha government planning to spend on planting palm trees in 2024-25?
    (a) Rs 5 crore
    (b) Rs 7 crore
    (c) Rs 10 crore
    (d) Rs 15 crore
    Ans: (b) Rs 7 crore
  84. What permission is required for cutting down palm trees on private property in Odisha?
    (a) Local municipality
    (b) Forest Department
    (c) Panchayat
    (d) No permission required
    Ans: (b) Forest Department
  85. Why was the permission requirement to cut down palm trees initially lifted?
    (a) For urban development
    (b) For agriculture expansion
    (c) It was not needed
    (d) To boost rural palm tree populations
    Ans: (b) For agriculture expansion
  86. How much investment has been announced for Odisha’s railway projects over the next five years?
    (a) ₹50,000 crore
    (b) ₹1 lakh crore
    (c) ₹75,000 crore
    (d) ₹25,000 crore
    Ans: (b) ₹1 lakh crore
  87. What was the annual railway budget allocation for Odisha under the Modi government?
    (a) ₹800 crore
    (b) ₹5,000 crore
    (c) ₹10,000 crore
    (d) ₹15,000 crore
    Ans: (c) ₹10,000 crore
  88. How many kilometers of new railway lines were constructed in Odisha in the past decade?
    (a) 1,000 km
    (b) 1,500 km
    (c) 1,826 km
    (d) 2,000 km
    Ans: (c) 1,826 km
  89. For the Rath Yatra in Puri, how many special trains were planned from 25 districts of Odisha?
    (a) 100
    (b) 200
    (c) 315
    (d) 400
    Ans: (c) 315
  90. What new projects are proposed for Odisha apart from railway investments?
    (a) Solar power plants
    (b) Electronic manufacturing cluster and semiconductor training center
    (c) New airports
    (d) Shipping ports
    Ans: (b) Electronic manufacturing cluster and semiconductor training center
  91. What is SEBEX 2?
    (a) A non-nuclear explosive
    (b) A nuclear missile
    (c) An AI algorithm
    (d) A spacecraft
    Ans: (a) A non-nuclear explosive
  92. SEBEX 2 is how many times more deadly than standard TNT?
    (a) 0.9 times
    (b) 1.01 times
    (c) 1.1 times
    (d) 2 times
    Ans: (b) 1.01 times
  93. Who manufactured SEBEX 2?
    (a) Indian Army
    (b) Economic Explosives Limited (EEL)
    (c) DRDO
    (d) HAL
    Ans: (b) Economic Explosives Limited (EEL)
  94. SEBEX 2 was developed under which initiative?
    (a) Atmanirbhar Bharat
    (b) Make in India
    (c) Skill India
    (d) Startup India
    Ans: (b) Make in India
  95. Which organization certified SEBEX 2?
    (a) ISRO
    (b) Indian Navy
    (c) DRDO
    (d) IAF
    Ans: (b) Indian Navy
  96. What is AI Washing?
    (a) Cleaning AI servers
    (b) Exaggerating the use of AI in products
    (c) An AI maintenance process
    (d) Removing biases from AI
    Ans: (b) Exaggerating the use of AI in products
  97. The term AI Washing is derived from which of the following?
    (a) Brainwashing
    (b) Greenwashing
    (c) Powerwashing
    (d) Machine washing
    Ans: (b) Greenwashing
  98. Which of the following is an example of AI Washing?
    (a) Using AI to detect cancer
    (b) Claiming a basic chatbot is powered by AI
    (c) Developing autonomous vehicles
    (d) Using AI for weather forecasting
    Ans: (b) Claiming a basic chatbot is powered by AI
  99. What is the main objective of AI Washing?
    (a) Reduce costs
    (b) Capitalize on the interest in AI
    (c) Improve AI algorithms
    (d) Increase data security
    Ans: (b) Capitalize on the interest in AI
  100. AI Washing can make products seem:
    (a) Outdated
    (b) Cutting-edge
    (c) Less reliable
    (d) More expensive
    Ans: (b) Cutting-edge
  101. What medical condition did Oran Knowlson have that led to the use of the Deep Brain Stimulation device?
    (a) Parkinson’s disease
    (b) Epileptic seizures
    (c) Alzheimer’s disease
    (d) Multiple sclerosis
    Ans: (b) Epileptic seizures
  102. Which of the following techniques does the Deep Brain Stimulation device use?
    (a) Magnetic resonance imaging
    (b) Ultrasound
    (c) Electrical impulses
    (d) Radiotherapy
    Ans: (c) Electrical impulses
  103. What is the primary function of the Deep Brain Stimulation device?
    (a) Enhance memory
    (b) Block abnormal seizure-causing signals
    (c) Improve vision
    (d) Increase muscle strength
    Ans: (b) Block abnormal seizure-causing signals
  104. How can the Deep Brain Stimulation device be recharged?
    (a) Wired connection
    (b) USB cable
    (c) Solar power
    (d) Wireless headphone
    Ans: (d) Wireless headphone
  105. The Deep Brain Stimulation device was initially used for which disorder?
    (a) Depression
    (b) Parkinson’s disease
    (c) Epilepsy
    (d) Schizophrenia
    Ans: (b) Parkinson’s disease
  106. Who leads Blue Origin, the company behind the New Shepard spacecraft?
    (a) Elon Musk
    (b) Richard Branson
    (c) Jeff Bezos
    (d) Tim Cook
    Ans: (c) Jeff Bezos
  107. What is the New Shepard spacecraft named after?
    (a) Neil Armstrong
    (b) Buzz Aldrin
    (c) Alan Shepard
    (d) John Glenn
    Ans: (c) Alan Shepard
  108. What type of system is the New Shepard spacecraft?
    (a) Single-use
    (b) Partially reusable
    (c) Fully reusable
    (d) Disposable
    Ans: (c) Fully reusable
  109. How long is the flight duration of the New Shepard spacecraft?
    (a) 5 minutes
    (b) 11 minutes
    (c) 30 minutes
    (d) 60 minutes
    Ans: (b) 11 minutes
  110. What do passengers experience during the New Shepard flight?
    (a) High gravity
    (b) Zero gravity
    (c) Extreme temperatures
    (d) Microwaves
    Ans: (b) Zero gravity
  111. Which court ruled that women who become mothers through surrogacy are entitled to maternity leave?
    (a) Supreme Court of India
    (b) Orissa High Court
    (c) Bombay High Court
    (d) Delhi High Court
    Ans. (b) Orissa High Court
  112. The Orissa High Court directed the government to amend rules to ensure equal treatment of which group of children?
    (a) Orphans
    (b) Surrogacy-born children
    (c) Foster children
    (d) Stepchildren
    Ans. (b) Surrogacy-born children
  113. Who was the officer involved in the case regarding maternity leave after surrogacy?
    (a) Supriya Jena
    (b) Priya Sharma
    (c) Anita Singh
    (d) Rani Mukherjee
    Ans. (a) Supriya Jena
  114. Which Justice’s ruling emphasized the equality of maternity leave rights for all new mothers?
    (a) Justice Bidyut Ranjan Sarangi
    (b) Justice SK Panigrahi
    (c) Justice Dipak Misra
    (d) Justice NV Ramana
    Ans. (b) Justice SK Panigrahi
  115. The ruling supports which Article of the Indian Constitution regarding motherhood?
    (a) Article 14
    (b) Article 19
    (c) Article 21
    (d) Article 32
    Ans. (c) Article 21
  116. The decision supports India’s stance on which two key areas?
    (a) Education and Health
    (b) Reproductive rights and gender equality
    (c) Economic growth and development
    (d) Environmental conservation and sustainability
    Ans. (b) Reproductive rights and gender equality
  117. Which Act was interpreted to include all forms of motherhood for maternity benefits?
    (a) Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act
    (b) Maternity Benefit Act, 1961
    (c) Juvenile Justice Act
    (d) Domestic Violence Act
    Ans. (b) Maternity Benefit Act, 1961
  118. Who has been appointed as the Chief Justice of the Jharkhand High Court?
    (a) Justice SK Panigrahi
    (b) Justice Bidyut Ranjan Sarangi
    (c) Justice NV Ramana
    (d) Justice Dipak Misra
    Ans. (b) Justice Bidyut Ranjan Sarangi
  119. Which award did Dr. Justice Sarangi receive for his professional ethics and performance as a lawyer?
    (a) Padma Shri
    (b) Haricharan Mukherjee Memorial Award
    (c) Bharat Ratna
    (d) Arjuna Award
    Ans. (b) Haricharan Mukherjee Memorial Award
  120. In which year was Dr. Justice Sarangi elevated to the Bench of the Orissa High Court?
    (a) 2010
    (b) 2013
    (c) 2016
    (d) 2018
    Ans. (b) 2013
  121. When was Mousumi, the white tigress at Nandankanan Zoological Park, born?
    (a) August 5, 2014
    (b) August 5, 2015
    (c) August 5, 2016
    (d) August 5, 2017
    Ans. (c) August 5, 2016
  122. When was Nandankanan Zoological Park established?
    (a) 1950
    (b) 1960
    (c) 1970
    (d) 1980
    Ans. (b) 1960
  123. What is Nandankanan Zoological Park renowned for?
    (a) Lion breeding
    (b) White tiger safari
    (c) Elephant sanctuary
    (d) Penguin exhibit
    Ans. (b) White tiger safari
  124. What is the pigmentation variant of the white tiger known as?
    (a) Albinism
    (b) Melanism
    (c) Leucistic
    (d) Hybridization
    Ans. (c) Leucistic
  125. What pigment is absent in white Bengal tigers?
    (a) Melanin
    (b) Carotene
    (c) Pheomelanin
    (d) Chlorophyll
    Ans. (c) Pheomelanin
  126. Which company won the Kalinga Energy Excellence Award and Kalinga Environment Excellence Award?
    (a) Tata Steel
    (b) Vedanta Aluminium
    (c) Hindalco
    (d) JSW Steel
    Ans. (b) Vedanta Aluminium
  127. What are the sustainability targets for Vedanta’s Lanjigarh unit?
    (a) Net Zero Carbon by 2050, Net Water Positivity by 2030
    (b) Zero Waste by 2040, Carbon Neutrality by 2025
    (c) 100% Renewable Energy by 2035, Water Neutral by 2040
    (d) Zero Emissions by 2030, Full Recycling by 2045
    Ans. (a) Net Zero Carbon by 2050, Net Water Positivity by 2030
  128. Which technology was used by Vedanta to reduce GHG emissions?
    (a) Solar panels
    (b) Biomass boiler cofiring
    (c) Wind turbines
    (d) Hydroelectric power
    Ans. (b) Biomass boiler cofiring
  129. How much water did Vedanta Aluminium reuse in FY24?
    (a) 10 billion liters
    (b) 12 billion liters
    (c) 15 billion liters
    (d) 18 billion liters
    Ans. (c) 15 billion liters
  130. Which organizations presented the awards to Vedanta Aluminium?
    (a) Ministry of Environment and Forests
    (b) IQEMS, Odisha State Pollution Control Board, and Institute of Public Enterprise, Hyderabad
    (c) Indian Green Building Council
    (d) United Nations Environment Programme
    Ans. (b) IQEMS, Odisha State Pollution Control Board, and Institute of Public Enterprise, Hyderabad
  131. When was the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) established?
    (a) June 15, 2000
    (b) June 15, 2001
    (c) June 15, 2002
    (d) June 15, 2003
    Ans. (b)
  132. Which country will host the upcoming SCO summit in Astana?
    (a) China
    (b) India
    (c) Kazakhstan
    (d) Russia
    Ans. (c)
  133. What percentage of the world’s population does the SCO cover?
    (a) 30%
    (b) 35%
    (c) 40%
    (d) 45%
    Ans. (c)
  134. How many founding members did the SCO have?
    (a) 4
    (b) 5
    (c) 6
    (d) 7
    Ans. (c)
  135. Which of the following countries joined the SCO in 2017?
    (a) Afghanistan and Mongolia
    (b) Iran and Pakistan
    (c) India and Pakistan
    (d) India and Iran
    Ans. (c)
  136. Which country joined the SCO in 2023?
    (a) Belarus
    (b) Afghanistan
    (c) Mongolia
    (d) Iran
    Ans. (d)
  137. Which two official languages are used by the SCO?
    (a) English and Chinese
    (b) Chinese and Russian
    (c) Russian and English
    (d) English and French
    Ans. (b)
  138. What is the primary objective of the SCO?
    (a) Promote economic integration
    (b) Promote cooperation and peace among member states
    (c) Establish a common currency
    (d) Create a military alliance
    Ans. (b)
  139. Where is the SCO Secretariat located?
    (a) Moscow
    (b) Beijing
    (c) Tashkent
    (d) Astana
    Ans. (b)
  140. What is the role of the Executive Committee of the Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS)?
    (a) Promote economic growth
    (b) Foster cultural exchange
    (c) Promote cooperation against terrorism, separatism, and extremism
    (d) Regulate trade policies
    Ans. (c)
  141. How often does the Heads of State Council (HSC) of the SCO meet?
    (a) Twice a year
    (b) Once every two years
    (c) Once a year
    (d) Every three months
    Ans. (c)
  142. How many observer states does the SCO have?
    (a) 2
    (b) 3
    (c) 4
    (d) 5
    Ans. (b)
  143. Which city is the Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) based in?
    (a) Beijing
    (b) Moscow
    (c) Tashkent
    (d) Astana
    Ans. (c)
  144. What percentage of the world’s oil reserves does the SCO control?
    (a) 10%
    (b) 15%
    (c) 20%
    (d) 25%
    Ans. (c)
  145. What percentage of the world’s natural gas reserves does the SCO control?
    (a) 30%
    (b) 40%
    (c) 44%
    (d) 50%
    Ans. (c)
  146. Which of the following is NOT a founding member of the SCO?
    (a) Kazakhstan
    (b) China
    (c) Uzbekistan
    (d) India
    Ans. (d)
  147. In which city was the SCO established?
    (a) Beijing
    (b) Moscow
    (c) Shanghai
    (d) Tashkent
    Ans. (c)
  148. What is the main goal of the SCO regarding the international order?
    (a) Establish a new financial system
    (b) Foster a new democratic, fair, and rational international political and economic order
    (c) Create a global military alliance
    (d) Develop a unified cultural framework
    Ans. (b)
  149. Which of the following countries is an observer state of the SCO?
    (a) Iran
    (b) Mongolia
    (c) India
    (d) Pakistan
    Ans. (b)
  150. Which two countries joined the SCO together in 2017?
    (a) India and Mongolia
    (b) Iran and Pakistan
    (c) India and Pakistan
    (d) Kazakhstan and Uzbekistan
    Ans. (c)
Weekly Current Affairs Quiz for Odisha Competitive Exams | July 1st Week 2024_3.1