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Weekly Current Affairs Quiz for Odisha Competitive Exams | July 2nd Week 2024

Weekly Current affairs play a very important role in the competitive examinations and hence, aspirants have to give undivided attention to it while doing preparation for the government examinations. The CGLRE, OCS examinations comprise a section of “Current Affairs” to evaluate how much the aspirant is aware of the daily happenings taking place around the world. To complement your preparation, we are providing you with a compilation of  Weekly Current affairs.

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  1. Why was Biligiri Ranganathaswamy Temple Tiger Reserve (BRT) recently in the news?
    (a) A rare species of bird was spotted
    (b) A 35-year-old female elephant was found dead
    (c) A new temple was inaugurated
    (d) A forest fire occurred
    Answer: (b) A 35-year-old female elephant was found dead
  2. Where is Biligiri Ranganathaswamy Temple Tiger Reserve (BRT) located?
    (a) Tamil Nadu
    (b) Karnataka
    (c) Kerala
    (d) Andhra Pradesh
    Answer: (b) Karnataka
  3. In which district of Karnataka is BRT situated?
    (a) Mysore
    (b) Chamarajanagar
    (c) Coorg
    (d) Bangalore
    Answer: (b) Chamarajanagar
  4. Between which geographical regions is BRT located?
    (a) Western Ghats and Deccan Plateau
    (b) Eastern Ghats and Northern Plains
    (c) Western and Eastern Ghats
    (d) Deccan Plateau and Coastal Plains
    Answer: (c) Western and Eastern Ghats
  5. From what does BRT derive its name?
    (a) The local tribe’s name
    (b) The white rocky cliff with a temple of Lord Vishnu
    (c) The river flowing through the reserve
    (d) The largest tree in the area
    Answer: (b) The white rocky cliff with a temple of Lord Vishnu
  6. When was Biligiri Ranganathaswamy Temple Tiger Reserve declared a Tiger Reserve?
    (a) 2000
    (b) 2005
    (c) 2011
    (d) 2015
    Answer: (c) 2011
  7. What type of vegetation primarily covers BRT?
    (a) Evergreen forest
    (b) Dry deciduous forest
    (c) Mangrove forest
    (d) Alpine forest
    Answer: (b) Dry deciduous forest
  8. Which type of forest patches are interspersed within BRT?
    (a) Pine and oak
    (b) Mangrove and bamboo
    (c) Moist deciduous, semi-evergreen, evergreen, and shola patches
    (d) Alpine and tundra
    Answer: (c) Moist deciduous, semi-evergreen, evergreen, and shola patches
  9. Which deity’s temple is located within BRT?
    (a) Shiva
    (b) Vishnu
    (c) Brahma
    (d) Durga
    Answer: (b) Vishnu
  10. What is the local name for the deity Vishnu in the temple within BRT?
    (a) Ranganathaswamy
    (b) Balaji
    (c) Jagannath
    (d) Krishna
    Answer: (a) Ranganathaswamy
  11. Which body recently approved India’s signing of the BBNJ Agreement?
    (a) The Supreme Court of India
    (b) The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister
    (c) The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
    (d) The National Green Tribunal
    Answer: (b) The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister
  12. Under which international convention does the BBNJ Agreement fall?
    (a) Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
    (b) United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)
    (c) Kyoto Protocol
    (d) Paris Agreement
    Answer: (b) United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)
  13. What is the primary aim of the BBNJ Agreement?
    (a) To protect terrestrial biodiversity
    (b) To regulate fishing quotas
    (c) To protect marine biodiversity in the high seas
    (d) To promote tourism
    Answer: (c) To protect marine biodiversity in the high seas
  14. Which Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) does the BBNJ Agreement especially contribute to?
    (a) SDG 13 (Climate Action)
    (b) SDG 14 (Life Below Water)
    (c) SDG 15 (Life on Land)
    (d) SDG 16 (Peace, Justice and Strong Institutions)
    Answer: (b) SDG 14 (Life Below Water)
  15. What does the BBNJ Agreement prohibit regarding marine resources?
    (a) Fishing
    (b) Sovereign claims over marine resources from the high seas
    (c) Marine tourism
    (d) Marine mining
    Answer: (b) Sovereign claims over marine resources from the high seas
  16. Which organization launched an integrated tribal development programme in Kerala recently?
    (a) NITI Aayog
    (b) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
    (c) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
    (d) Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)
    Answer: (b) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
  17. The Integrated Tribal Development Programme is based on which model?
    (a) Green Revolution Model
    (b) Blue Economy Model
    (c) Wadi Model
    (d) PPP Model
    Answer: (c) Wadi Model
  18. Which fund supports the projects under the Integrated Tribal Development Programme?
    (a) National Rural Employment Guarantee Fund
    (b) Tribal Development Fund
    (c) Social Welfare Fund
    (d) Environmental Protection Fund
    Answer: (b) Tribal Development Fund
  19. What is the main objective of the Integrated Tribal Development Programme?
    (a) Urbanization of tribal areas
    (b) Replicable models of integrated development on a participatory basis
    (c) Promotion of traditional sports
    (d) Establishment of large-scale industries
    Answer: (b) Replicable models of integrated development on a participatory basis
  20. What is one of the goals of the Integrated Tribal Development Programme regarding tribal institutions?
    (a) Centralize control over tribal resources
    (b) Build and strengthen tribal institutions
    (c) Merge tribal institutions with urban bodies
    (d) Replace traditional tribal practices with modern ones
    Answer: (b) Build and strengthen tribal institutions
  21. When was ECOWAS established?
    (a) May 28, 1975
    (b) June 15, 1980
    (c) April 22, 1965
    (d) March 3, 1973
    Ans: (a) May 28, 1975
  22. What is the primary aim of ECOWAS?
    (a) Military cooperation
    (b) Economic integration
    (c) Cultural exchange
    (d) Environmental protection
    Ans: (b) Economic integration
  23. Where is the headquarters of ECOWAS located?
    (a) Lagos, Nigeria
    (b) Accra, Ghana
    (c) Dakar, Senegal
    (d) Abuja, Nigeria
    Ans: (d) Abuja, Nigeria
  24. Which of the following is not a member state of ECOWAS?
    (a) Ghana
    (b) Mali
    (c) Kenya
    (d) Niger
    Ans: (c) Kenya
  25. Which languages are officially used in ECOWAS?
    (a) English and French
    (b) French and Portuguese
    (c) English, French, and Portuguese
    (d) English and Spanish
    Ans: (c) English, French, and Portuguese
  26. Which country is hosting the Birlestik-2024 military drills?
    (a) Uzbekistan
    (b) Azerbaijan
    (c) Kazakhstan
    (d) Turkmenistan
    Ans: (c) Kazakhstan
  27. Which country is absent from the Birlestik-2024 drills?
    (a) Kyrgyzstan
    (b) Turkmenistan
    (c) Tajikistan
    (d) Azerbaijan
    Ans: (b) Turkmenistan
  28. Where are the Birlestik-2024 drills taking place?
    (a) Caspian Sea
    (b) Black Sea
    (c) Aral Sea
    (d) Mediterranean Sea
    Ans: (a) Caspian Sea
  29. Which of the following countries is not a participant in Birlestik-2024?
    (a) Azerbaijan
    (b) Kyrgyzstan
    (c) Turkmenistan
    (d) Tajikistan
    Ans: (c) Turkmenistan
  30. When was the Treaty of Peace and Friendship between India and the Soviet Union signed?
    (a) 1965
    (b) 1971
    (c) 1980
    (d) 1993
    Ans: (b) 1971
  31. What is the status of the relationship between India and Russia as of 2010?
    (a) Strategic Partnership
    (b) Special and Privileged Strategic Partnership
    (c) Treaty of Friendship and Cooperation
    (d) Economic Alliance
    Ans: (b) Special and Privileged Strategic Partnership
  32. Which missile system is a flagship cooperation between India and Russia?
    (a) Agni Missile
    (b) BrahMos Missile
    (c) Prithvi Missile
    (d) Trident Missile
    Ans: (b) BrahMos Missile
  33. Which Indian nuclear power plant is built with Russian cooperation?
    (a) Tarapur Nuclear Power Plant
    (b) Kakrapar Atomic Power Station
    (c) Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant
    (d) Narora Atomic Power Station
    Ans: (c) Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant
  34. Which program designates biosphere reserves under UNESCO?
    (a) Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme
    (b) World Heritage Sites Programme
    (c) International Biosphere Network
    (d) Global Nature Conservation Programme
    Ans: (a) Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme
  35. How many biosphere reserves in India are recognized under the MAB Programme?
    (a) 8
    (b) 10
    (c) 12
    (d) 18
    Ans: (c) 12
  36. Which was the first biosphere reserve designated in India?
    (a) Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve
    (b) Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve
    (c) Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve
    (d) Simlipal Biosphere Reserve
    Ans: (b) Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve
  37. What significant climate record was reported by C3S for June 2023?
    (a) Coldest June on record
    (b) Most average June on record
    (c) Warmest June on record
    (d) Wettest June on record
    Ans: (c) Warmest June on record
  38. By how much was June 2023 warmer compared to the 1991-2020 average, according to C3S?
    (a) 0.57°C
    (b) 0.67°C
    (c) 0.77°C
    (d) 0.87°C
    Ans: (b) 0.67°C
  39. Which organization implements the Copernicus Climate Change Service (C3S) on behalf of the European Commission?
    (a) European Space Agency (ESA)
    (b) European Centre for Medium-Range Weather Forecasts (ECMWF)
    (c) European Environmental Agency (EEA)
    (d) European Union Satellite Centre (SatCen)
    Ans: (b) European Centre for Medium-Range Weather Forecasts (ECMWF)
  40. What is one of the main objectives of the Copernicus Climate Change Service (C3S)?
    (a) To provide weather forecasts
    (b) To support European climate policies and actions
    (c) To monitor space weather
    (d) To manage natural disasters
    Ans: (b) To support European climate policies and actions
  41. When was the PM SHRI scheme launched?
    (a) August 15, 2021
    (b) September 7, 2022
    (c) January 26, 2023
    (d) October 2, 2020
    Ans: (b) September 7, 2022
  42. What is the total cost of the PM SHRI project over 5 years?
    (a) Rs. 20,000 crore
    (b) Rs. 25,000 crore
    (c) Rs. 27,360 crore
    (d) Rs. 30,000 crore
    Ans: (c) Rs. 27,360 crore
  43. How many schools will be upgraded to PM SHRI schools in Odisha?
    (a) 500
    (b) 600
    (c) 700
    (d) 800
    Ans: (d) 800
  44. Which department sponsors the PM SHRI scheme?
    (a) Department of Higher Education
    (b) Department of School Education & Literacy
    (c) Ministry of Women and Child Development
    (d) Ministry of Science and Technology
    Ans: (b) Department of School Education & Literacy
  45. Which of the following is a pillar of PM SHRI schools?
    (a) Technological Infrastructure
    (b) Sports Facilities
    (c) Curriculum, Pedagogy and Assessment
    (d) International Collaboration
    Ans: (c) Curriculum, Pedagogy and Assessment
  46. Which bird is NOT mentioned as a nesting bird in Bhitarkanika National Park?
    (a) Open-billed stork
    (b) Little Cormorant
    (c) Indian Peafowl
    (d) Median Egret
    Ans: (c) Indian Peafowl
  47. What natural event revitalizes Bhitarkanika National Park?
    (a) Cyclones
    (b) Monsoon showers
    (c) Summer heat
    (d) Winter snowfall
    Ans: (b) Monsoon showers
  48. Which season do migratory birds arrive in Bhitarkanika National Park?
    (a) Spring
    (b) Summer
    (c) Autumn
    (d) Winter
    Ans: (d) Winter
  49. Who proposed to open the Ratna Bhandar on July 14?
    (a) Justice Biswanath Rath Committee
    (b) Chief Minister of Odisha
    (c) Ministry of Culture
    (d) Temple Management Board
    Ans: (a) Justice Biswanath Rath Committee
  50. Which temple houses the Ratna Bhandar?
    (a) Lingaraja Temple
    (b) Konark Sun Temple
    (c) Jagannath Temple
    (d) Mukteswara Temple
    Ans: (c) Jagannath Temple
  51. What is a unique feature of pervious concrete pavements?
    (a) High durability
    (b) High reflectivity
    (c) Interconnected voids with at least 15% porosity
    (d) Low cost
    Ans: (c) Interconnected voids with at least 15% porosity
  52. Which organization developed pervious concrete pavements in Bhubaneswar?
    (a) NIT Rourkela
    (b) IIT Bhubaneswar
    (c) Utkal University
    (d) OUAT
    Ans: (b) IIT Bhubaneswar
  53. How much water can pervious concrete pavements store without causing runoff?
    (a) 10 cubic meters
    (b) 15 cubic meters
    (c) 20 cubic meters
    (d) 25 cubic meters
    Ans: (c) 20 cubic meters
  54. Which effect do pervious concrete pavements help reduce?
    (a) Urban flooding
    (b) Soil erosion
    (c) Air pollution
    (d) Noise pollution
    Ans: (a) Urban flooding
  55. What is the funding pattern between Centre and State Governments for PM SHRI?
    (a) 50:50
    (b) 60:40
    (c) 70:30
    (d) 80:20
    Ans: (b) 60:40
  56. For how many years is the PM SHRI scheme planned?
    (a) 3 years
    (b) 4 years
    (c) 5 years
    (d) 6 years
    Ans: (c) 5 years
  57. Which state is implementing the PM SHRI scheme with 800 schools?
    (a) West Bengal
    (b) Odisha
    (c) Bihar
    (d) Andhra Pradesh
    Ans: (b) Odisha
  58. What is the central share of the total cost for the PM SHRI project?
    (a) Rs. 15,000 crore
    (b) Rs. 18,128 crore
    (c) Rs. 20,000 crore
    (d) Rs. 22,500 crore
    Ans: (b) Rs. 18,128 crore
  59. What is the role of the Justice Biswanath Rath Committee regarding the Ratna Bhandar?
    (a) Inventory and conservation of the temple’s treasures
    (b) Construction of new facilities
    (c) Financial management
    (d) Event organization
    Ans: (a) Inventory and conservation of the temple’s treasures
  60. Which urban issue does pervious concrete pavements address?
    (a) Traffic congestion
    (b) Water pollution
    (c) Heat island effect
    (d) Air quality
    Ans: (c) Heat island effect
  61. Why was the Regional Analysis of Indian Ocean (RAIN) system recently in the news?
    (a) It was discontinued
    (b) It was upgraded by INCOIS
    (c) It failed to deliver accurate data
    (d) It was merged with another system
    Ans: (b) It was upgraded by INCOIS
  62. What additional parameter is included in the upgraded version of RAIN?
    (a) Sea surface temperature
    (b) Sea surface height and Sea Surface Height Anomaly (SSHA)
    (c) Wind speed
    (d) Salinity
    Ans: (b) Sea surface height and Sea Surface Height Anomaly (SSHA)
  63. The observation range of RAIN spans from the surface to depths of:
    (a) 10 to 500 meters
    (b) 50 to 1000 meters
    (c) 3 to 2000 meters
    (d) 1 to 100 meters
    Ans: (c) 3 to 2000 meters
  64. Which organization developed the RAIN system?
    (a) ISRO
    (b) INCOIS
    (c) NASA
    (d) IMD
    Ans: (b) INCOIS
  65. The primary focus of the CubeSat Radio Interferometry Experiment (CURIE) mission is:
    (a) Earth’s weather patterns
    (b) Ocean currents
    (c) Solar radio waves
    (d) Satellite communication
    Ans: (c) Solar radio waves
  66. What frequency range does CURIE measure radio waves in?
    (a) 0.1 to 19 MHz
    (b) 1 to 100 MHz
    (c) 10 to 50 MHz
    (d) 5 to 30 MHz
    Ans: (a) 0.1 to 19 MHz
  67. Which organization sponsors the CURIE mission?
    (a) ISRO
    (b) ESA
    (c) NASA
    (d) ROSCOSMOS
    Ans: (c) NASA
  68. The Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve is located in which state?
    (a) Maharashtra
    (b) Madhya Pradesh
    (c) Rajasthan
    (d) Gujarat
    Ans: (b) Madhya Pradesh
  69. Which two wildlife sanctuaries are included in the Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve?
    (a) Kanha and Bandhavgarh
    (b) Nauradehi and Durgavati
    (c) Pench and Satpura
    (d) Panna and Bori
    Ans: (b) Nauradehi and Durgavati
  70. The Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) increased to what value in March 2024?
    (a) 60.1
    (b) 64.2
    (c) 70.5
    (d) 55.3
    Ans: (b) 64.2
  71. Which parameter holds the highest weight in the FI-Index?
    (a) Access
    (b) Usage
    (c) Quality
    (d) Availability
    Ans: (b) Usage
  72. In which year was the FI-Index introduced?
    (a) 2019
    (b) 2020
    (c) 2021
    (d) 2022
    Ans: (c) 2021
  73. The Prime Minister’s Science, Technology & Innovation Advisory Council (PM-STIAC) is chaired by:
    (a) Minister of Science and Technology
    (b) Prime Minister
    (c) Principal Scientific Adviser
    (d) President of India
    Ans: (b) Prime Minister
  74. Which of the following is NOT one of the ‘9 National Missions’ under PM-STIAC?
    (a) Electric vehicles
    (b) Renewable energy
    (c) Quantum frontier
    (d) Artificial intelligence
    Ans: (b) Renewable energy
  75. The ‘AGNIi’ initiative under PM-STIAC focuses on:
    (a) Space exploration
    (b) Defense technology
    (c) Innovation and incubation
    (d) Agricultural technology
    Ans: (c) Innovation and incubation
  76. What is the role of the PM-STIAC council?
    (a) Implement government policies
    (b) Advise the Prime Minister on science and technology
    (c) Conduct scientific research
    (d) Manage public health programs
    Ans: (b) Advise the Prime Minister on science and technology
  77. The Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve is named after:
    (a) A famous freedom fighter
    (b) A local deity
    (c) The queen of the Gondi people
    (d) A renowned environmentalist
    Ans: (c) The queen of the Gondi people
  78. Which river basins are part of the Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve?
    (a) Ganga and Yamuna
    (b) Godavari and Krishna
    (c) Narmada and Yamuna
    (d) Tapi and Mahi
    Ans: (c) Narmada and Yamuna
  79. What is the primary vegetation type in the Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve?
    (a) Evergreen forest
    (b) Tropical rainforest
    (c) Dry deciduous forest
    (d) Mangrove forest
    Ans: (c) Dry deciduous forest
  80. Which critically endangered bird species can be found in the Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve?
    (a) Great Indian Bustard
    (b) Siberian Crane
    (c) White-Rumped Vulture
    (d) Sarus Crane
    Ans: (c) White-Rumped Vulture
  81. What is the primary objective of BIMSTEC?
    (a) To establish a free trade zone in Southeast Asia
    (b) To promote regional cooperation and economic development
    (c) To create a military alliance among member countries
    (d) To regulate maritime borders and fishing rights
    Answer: (b) To promote regional cooperation and economic development
  82. When was BIMSTEC established?
    (a) 6 June 1997
    (b) 15 August 1998
    (c) 12 July 1999
    (d) 1 January 2000
    Answer: (a) 6 June 1997
  83. Which of the following is not a member country of BIMSTEC?
    (a) Bangladesh
    (b) Maldives
    (c) Sri Lanka
    (d) Thailand
    Answer: (b) Maldives
  84. Where is the BIMSTEC Secretariat located?
    (a) New Delhi, India
    (b) Colombo, Sri Lanka
    (c) Dhaka, Bangladesh
    (d) Kathmandu, Nepal
    Answer: (c) Dhaka, Bangladesh
  85. What is the focus of the BIMSTEC Grid Interconnection initiative?
    (a) Enhancing trade relations
    (b) Promoting coastal shipping
    (c) Boosting energy cooperation and electricity grid connectivity
    (d) Developing tourism infrastructure
    Answer: (c) Boosting energy cooperation and electricity grid connectivity
  86. What is one criterion for declaring a language as classical?
    (a) High antiquity in early texts over 1,000 years
    (b) A body of literature considered valuable by generations
    (c) A high number of native speakers
    (d) Official status in multiple countries
    Answer: (b) A body of literature considered valuable by generations
  87. Which Indian language was declared classical in 2004?
    (a) Sanskrit
    (b) Tamil
    (c) Telugu
    (d) Malayalam
    Answer: (b) Tamil
  88. How many classical languages have been declared in India as of 2024?
    (a) 4
    (b) 5
    (c) 6
    (d) 7
    Answer: (c) 6
  89. What benefit does a language receive when declared classical?
    (a) Increased funding for language translation services
    (b) Creation of professional chairs in central universities
    (c) Automatic UNESCO World Heritage status
    (d) Global recognition in international languages curriculum
    Answer: (b) Creation of professional chairs in central universities
  90. Which language was declared classical in 2014?
    (a) Kannada
    (b) Malayalam
    (c) Odia
    (d) Telugu
    Answer: (c) Odia
  91. When is World Population Day observed?
    (a) July 1
    (b) July 11
    (c) August 15
    (d) October 5
    Answer: (b) July 11
  92. What was the theme for World Population Day 2024?
    (a) Empowering Youth
    (b) Family Planning for All
    (c) Leave No One Behind; Count Everyone
    (d) Sustainable Development for Future Generations
    Answer: (c) Leave No One Behind; Count Everyone
  93. Who established World Population Day?
    (a) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
    (b) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
    (c) World Health Organization (WHO)
    (d) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)
    Answer: (b) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
  94. What significant milestone did the world population reach on November 15, 2022?
    (a) 7 billion
    (b) 8 billion
    (c) 9 billion
    (d) 10 billion
    Answer: (b) 8 billion
  95. What was the event “Five Billion Day”?
    (a) The day the world population reached 5 billion
    (b) A UN conference on population control
    (c) The launch of a global family planning initiative
    (d) A day to celebrate population growth
    Answer: (a) The day the world population reached 5 billion
  96. What is the primary goal of the GRSE Accelerated Innovation Nurturing Scheme (GAINS 2024)?
    (a) To increase defense budgets
    (b) To find solutions to shipyard-related problems and promote technology development
    (c) To establish new shipyards across India
    (d) To promote international naval cooperation
    Answer: (b) To find solutions to shipyard-related problems and promote technology development
  97. Which government policy is aligned with the GAINS 2024 scheme?
    (a) Digital India
    (b) Make in India
    (c) Skill India
    (d) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
    Answer: (b) Make in India
  98. Who is the target audience for the GAINS 2024 scheme?
    (a) Large multinational corporations
    (b) Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) and Start-Ups
    (c) Government defense contractors
    (d) Foreign shipbuilders
    Answer: (b) Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) and Start-Ups
  99. What does the GAINS 2024 scheme aim to enhance in the maritime sector?
    (a) Shipyard labor force
    (b) Ship design and construction technology
    (c) International shipping routes
    (d) Maritime tourism
    Answer: (b) Ship design and construction technology
  100. In which city was the GAINS 2024 scheme launched?
    (a) Delhi
    (b) Mumbai
    (c) Kolkata
    (d) Chennai
    Answer: (c) Kolkata
  101. When will nominations for the National Gopal Ratna Award for 2024 open?
    (a) July 10
    (b) July 15
    (c) August 1
    (d) August 15
    Answer: (b) July 15
  102. What is the primary objective of the National Gopal Ratna Award?
    (a) To honor best dairy farmers and cooperatives
    (b) To promote dairy products globally
    (c) To support milk importers
    (d) To recognize achievements in dairy research
    Answer: (a) To honor best dairy farmers and cooperatives
  103. Under which mission is the National Gopal Ratna Award conferred?
    (a) Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM)
    (b) National Dairy Development Mission (NDDM)
    (c) Dairy Development Scheme (DDS)
    (d) Integrated Dairy Development Program (IDDP)
    Answer: (a) Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM)
  104. Which category is not part of the National Gopal Ratna Award?
    (a) Best Dairy Cooperative Society
    (b) Best Milk Producer Company
    (c) Best Dairy Research Institution
    (d) Best Artificial Insemination Technician (AIT)
    Answer: (c) Best Dairy Research Institution
  105. What special award was introduced to encourage dairy development in the North Eastern Region (NER)?
    (a) North Eastern Dairy Excellence Award
    (b) Special NER Dairy Development Award
    (c) NER Best Dairy Cooperative Award
    (d) NER Dairy Farmer Award
    Answer: (b) Special NER Dairy Development Award
  106. What recent issue has Odisha faced according to the National Centre for Vector Borne Diseases Control (NCVBDC)?
    (a) Increase in dengue cases
    (b) Decrease in malaria cases
    (c) Outbreak of Japanese Encephalitis
    (d) Elimination of Kala-azar
    Ans: (a) Increase in dengue cases
  107. Which vector-borne disease does Odisha lead in nationally, as reported by NCVBDC?
    (a) Dengue
    (b) Chikungunya
    (c) Malaria
    (d) Lymphatic Filariasis
    Ans: (c) Malaria
  108. What umbrella programme does the National Centre for Vector Borne Diseases Control (NCVBDC) administer?
    (a) National Health Protection Scheme
    (b) National Vector Borne Diseases Control Programme (NVBDCP)
    (c) National Disease Surveillance Project
    (d) National Malaria Eradication Programme
    Ans: (b) National Vector Borne Diseases Control Programme (NVBDCP)
  109. Who has been appointed as the new chief administrator of the Shree Jagannath Temple Administration (SJTA)?
    (a) Veer Vikram Yadav
    (b) Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
    (c) Arabinda Kumar Padhee
    (d) Narendra Modi
    Ans: (c) Arabinda Kumar Padhee
  110. What was the reason for the recent change in the chief administrator of SJTA?
    (a) Routine administrative restructuring
    (b) Public outcry due to an incident involving Lord Balabhadra’s idol
    (c) Completion of term by the previous administrator
    (d) Appointment of a new temple priest
    Ans: (b) Public outcry due to an incident involving Lord Balabhadra’s idol
  111. Which ceremony was involved in the mishap with the idol of Lord Balabhadra at Gundicha temple?
    (a) Rath Yatra
    (b) Pahandi
    (c) Maha Shivaratri
    (d) Diwali Puja
    Ans: (b) Pahandi
  112. Where did Prime Minister Narendra Modi highlight Odisha’s recent electoral achievements?
    (a) New Delhi
    (b) Moscow
    (c) New York
    (d) Tokyo
    Ans: (b) Moscow
  113. What traditional attire did PM Modi wear during his address to the Indian diaspora in Moscow?
    (a) A silk saree
    (b) A Sambalpuri Bandha Uttariya
    (c) A kurta-pajama
    (d) A Nehru jacket
    Ans: (b) A Sambalpuri Bandha Uttariya
  114. What cultural gesture did Modi make during his address in Moscow to celebrate Odisha’s heritage?
    (a) Reciting a poem
    (b) Wearing traditional jewelry
    (c) Chanting “Jai Jagannath”
    (d) Performing a dance
    Ans: (c) Chanting “Jai Jagannath”
  115. What significant symbol did Modi use to highlight Indian heritage at the G20 summit?
    (a) A replica of the Taj Mahal
    (b) A replica of the Konark Wheel of the Sun Temple
    (c) The Indian tricolor flag
    (d) A model of the Lotus Temple
    Ans: (b) A replica of the Konark Wheel of the Sun Temple
  116. Which award did Centurion University of Technology and Management (CUTM) receive recently?
    (a) Best Innovative University Award
    (b) Outstanding Skill University Award
    (c) Most Sustainable University Award
    (d) Top Research University Award
    Ans: (b) Outstanding Skill University Award
  117. Who inaugurated the World Education Summit where Centurion University was recognized?
    (a) Narendra Modi
    (b) Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
    (c) Veer Vikram Yadav
    (d) Arabinda Kumar Padhee
    Ans: (b) Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
  118. What rank did Centurion University achieve in the Times Higher Education University Impact Rankings?
    (a) 10th
    (b) 15th
    (c) 18th
    (d) 25th
    Ans: (c) 18th
  119. What has Centurion University been included in by the University Grants Commission?
    (a) Top Research Institutions List
    (b) Eligible List for foreign academic collaborations
    (c) List of National Heritage Universities
    (d) National Excellence in Education Award List
    Ans: (b) Eligible List for foreign academic collaborations
  120. Which state has the responsibility of implementing the strategies of the National Vector Borne Diseases Control Programme (NVBDCP)?
    (a) Central Government
    (b) Union Territory Administration
    (c) State Government
    (d) Local Municipalities
    Ans: (c) State Government
  121. What was the cause of the injuries during the ‘pahandi’ ceremony at the Gundicha temple?
    (a) Structural collapse
    (b) Idol fall
    (c) Fire accident
    (d) Flooding
    Ans: (b) Idol fall
  122. Who will Arabinda Kumar Padhee replace as the chief administrator of SJTA?
    (a) Narendra Modi
    (b) Veer Vikram Yadav
    (c) Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
    (d) Rajnath Singh
    Ans: (b) Veer Vikram Yadav
  123. Which ceremony does Modi’s gesture of chanting “Jai Jagannath” coincide with?
    (a) Deepavali
    (b) Holi
    (c) Rath Yatra
    (d) Ganesh Chaturthi
    Ans: (c) Rath Yatra
  124. Which of the following is not a vector-borne disease listed under NVBDCP?
    (a) Japanese Encephalitis
    (b) Lymphatic Filariasis
    (c) Tuberculosis
    (d) Dengue
    Ans: (c) Tuberculosis
  125. What significant position does Arabinda Kumar Padhee hold in addition to his new role with SJTA?
    (a) Principal Secretary in the Finance Department
    (b) Principal Secretary in the Agriculture and Farmers’ Empowerment Department
    (c) Chief Secretary of Odisha
    (d) Director of the Health Services
    Ans: (b) Principal Secretary in the Agriculture and Farmers’ Empowerment Department
Weekly Current Affairs Quiz for Odisha Competitive Exams | July 2nd Week 2024_3.1