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Weekly Current Affairs Quiz for Odisha Competitive Exams | July 4th Week 2024

Weekly Current affairs play a very important role in the competitive examinations and hence, aspirants have to give undivided attention to it while doing preparation for the government examinations. The CGLRE, OCS examinations comprise a section of “Current Affairs” to evaluate how much the aspirant is aware of the daily happenings taking place around the world. To complement your preparation, we are providing you with a compilation of  Weekly Current affairs.

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  1. When did the Indian Army contingent depart for the Multinational Military Exercise KHAAN QUEST?
    (a) July 19, 2024
    (b) July 25, 2024
    (c) July 27, 2024
    (d) August 9, 2024
    Ans. (b) July 25, 2024
  2. Where is the KHAAN QUEST exercise taking place in 2024?
    (a) New Delhi, India
    (b) Washington, USA
    (c) Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia
    (d) Tokyo, Japan
    Ans. (c) Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia
  3. In what year did KHAAN QUEST begin as a bilateral exercise?
    (a) 2000
    (b) 2003
    (c) 2006
    (d) 2010
    Ans. (b) 2003
  4. Which two countries initially started KHAAN QUEST as a bilateral exercise?
    (a) India and Mongolia
    (b) USA and India
    (c) USA and Mongolia
    (d) Mongolia and Russia
    Ans. (c) USA and Mongolia
  5. How many personnel are in the Indian Army contingent for KHAAN QUEST 2024?
    (a) 30
    (b) 40
    (c) 50
    (d) 60
    Ans. (b) 40
  6. Which regiment primarily constitutes the Indian Army contingent in KHAAN QUEST 2024?
    (a) Punjab Regiment
    (b) Madras Regiment
    (c) Rajputana Rifles
    (d) Garhwal Rifles
    Ans. (b) Madras Regiment
  7. What is one of the key focuses of the training in KHAAN QUEST?
    (a) Establishment of static and mobile checkpoints
    (b) Building bridges
    (c) Underwater diving operations
    (d) Desert survival skills
    Ans. (a) Establishment of static and mobile checkpoints
  8. Which chapter of the United Nations Charter does KHAAN QUEST align its operations with?
    (a) Chapter I
    (b) Chapter VII
    (c) Chapter IX
    (d) Chapter XI
    Ans. (b) Chapter VII
  9. How many women are included in the Indian Army contingent for KHAAN QUEST 2024?
    (a) One woman officer and one woman soldier
    (b) Two women officers and one woman soldier
    (c) One woman officer and two women soldiers
    (d) Two women officers and two women soldiers
    Ans. (c) One woman officer and two women soldiers
  10. Which of the following is NOT a focus area in the KHAAN QUEST training exercises?
    (a) Cordon and search operations
    (b) Counter-IED drills
    (c) Mountain climbing
    (d) Civilian evacuation from hostile areas
    Ans. (c) Mountain climbing
  11. What organization conducted the successful flight test of the Phase-II Ballistic Missile Defence System?
    (a) ISRO
    (b) DRDO
    (c) HAL
    (d) BARC
    Ans: (b) DRDO
  12. The Phase-II AD Endo-atmospheric Missile is designed to neutralize threats in which atmospheric regions?
    (a) Exo-atmospheric
    (b) Endo-atmospheric
    (c) Both endo and low exo-atmospheric
    (d) Upper-atmospheric
    Ans: (c) Both endo and low exo-atmospheric
  13. What type of propulsion does the Phase-II AD missile use?
    (a) Liquid-propelled
    (b) Hybrid-propelled
    (c) Solid-propelled
    (d) Electric-propelled
    Ans: (c) Solid-propelled
  14. What is the overall dropout rate in secondary education in Odisha as per the Economic Survey 2023-24?
    (a) 27.3%
    (b) 30.5%
    (c) 25.4%
    (d) 33.2%
    Ans: (a) 27.3%
  15. What is the dropout rate among tribal boys at the secondary level in Odisha?
    (a) 30.9%
    (b) 35.3%
    (c) 33.0%
    (d) 29.4%
    Ans: (b) 35.3%
  16. What is the dropout rate among Scheduled Caste boys at the secondary level in Odisha?
    (a) 30.9%
    (b) 35.3%
    (c) 33.0%
    (d) 29.4%
    Ans: (c) 33.0%
  17. How many residential schools are there in Odisha for ST and SC students?
    (a) 1,737
    (b) 2,000
    (c) 1,500
    (d) 1,600
    Ans: (a) 1,737
  18. What percentage of the total enrolment among tribal and Dalit students is constituted by boys?
    (a) 50%
    (b) 45%
    (c) 35%
    (d) Less than 40%
    Ans: (d) Less than 40%
  19. How much money was allocated for pre-matric scholarships for SC/ST students in 2023-24?
    (a) ₹500 crore
    (b) ₹600 crore
    (c) ₹762.4 crore
    (d) ₹800 crore
    Ans: (c) ₹762.4 crore
  20. What is the gross enrolment ratio for higher secondary education in Odisha?
    (a) 50.0%
    (b) 43.6%
    (c) 60.5%
    (d) 70.1%
    Ans: (b) 43.6%
  21. What is the projected growth rate of Odisha’s economy for 2023-24?
    (a) 6.5%
    (b) 7.9%
    (c) 8.5%
    (d) 9.1%
    Ans: (c) 8.5%
  22. What is the estimated per capita income for Odisha in 2023-24?
    (a) Rs 1,61,437
    (b) Rs 1,50,000
    (c) Rs 1,84,205
    (d) Rs 1,70,000
    Ans: (a) Rs 1,61,437
  23. By how much did the multidimensional poverty headcount ratio decrease between 2015-16 and 2019-21 in Odisha?
    (a) 10%
    (b) 15%
    (c) 13.6%
    (d) 12.4%
    Ans: (c) 13.6%
  24. What is the expected growth rate of the agriculture sector in Odisha for 2023-24?
    (a) 5.2%
    (b) 4.1%
    (c) 3.5%
    (d) 2.8%
    Ans: (c) 3.5%
  25. What percentage of GSVA does the industrial sector account for in Odisha?
    (a) 35.2%
    (b) 40.1%
    (c) 43.2%
    (d) 38.4%
    Ans: (c) 43.2%
  26. What is the projected growth rate of the service sector in Odisha for 2023-24?
    (a) 8.2%
    (b) 9.2%
    (c) 10.2%
    (d) 7.2%
    Ans: (b) 9.2%
  27. What is the labour force participation rate (LFPR) in Odisha for 2022-23?
    (a) 51.2%
    (b) 58.3%
    (c) 61.3%
    (d) 54.6%
    Ans: (c) 61.3%
  28. How much was allocated for capital outlay in Odisha’s budget for 2023-24?
    (a) INR 45,000 crore
    (b) INR 51,683 crore
    (c) INR 48,500 crore
    (d) INR 50,000 crore
    Ans: (b) INR 51,683 crore
  29. How much did fish production surge in Odisha since 2014-15?
    (a) 10%
    (b) 11%
    (c) 12%
    (d) 15%
    Ans: (b) 11%
  30. How much revenue did the mineral sector generate for Odisha in 2022-23?
    (a) INR 35,000 crore
    (b) INR 36,500 crore
    (c) INR 38,075 crore
    (d) INR 37,500 crore
    Ans: (c) INR 38,075 crore
  31. Why was Greenium recently in the news?
    (a) India’s low greenium on sovereign green bond offerings
    (b) Launch of new greenium investment fund
    (c) Greenium tax incentives by the government
    (d) Greenium achieving record high yields
    Ans. (a)
  32. What does Greenium refer to?
    (a) Additional returns from green bonds
    (b) Savings on coupon payments from green bonds
    (c) Penalties on non-green investments
    (d) Costs associated with green certifications
    Ans. (b)
  33. Which of the following is an example of a project funded by green bonds?
    (a) Highway construction
    (b) Renewable energy projects
    (c) Urban housing schemes
    (d) Traditional fossil fuel plants
    Ans. (b)
  34. Why do investors accept lower returns on green bonds?
    (a) They are guaranteed by the government
    (b) Green projects reduce long-term risks
    (c) They offer higher immediate profits
    (d) Green bonds are less risky than conventional bonds
    Ans. (b)
  35. Why were magnetotactic bacteria recently in the news?
    (a) Their role in climate change
    (b) Their use in medical research
    (c) Discovery of their fossil remains in Ladakh
    (d) Development of new biotechnology
    Ans. (c)
  36. What characteristic is unique to magnetotactic bacteria?
    (a) They emit bioluminescence
    (b) They align along the Earth’s magnetic field
    (c) They photosynthesize in low light
    (d) They produce large amounts of methane
    Ans. (b)
  37. Where are magnetotactic bacteria typically found?
    (a) Desert regions
    (b) Freshwater and marine habitats
    (c) Arctic ice
    (d) Underground caves
    Ans. (b)
  38. Why is the study of magnetotactic bacteria significant?
    (a) They are used in renewable energy
    (b) They provide insights into early life on Earth
    (c) They have applications in space travel
    (d) They are a source of antibiotics
    Ans. (b)
  39. What is the Clarion-Clipperton Zone known for?
    (a) High biodiversity
    (b) Oil reserves
    (c) Polymetallic nodules
    (d) Coral reefs
    Ans. (c)
  40. 10. Which minerals are found in the polymetallic nodules of the Clarion-Clipperton Zone?
    (a) Gold and silver
    (b) Iron and aluminum
    (c) Manganese, nickel, copper, and cobalt
    (d) Uranium and thorium
    Ans. (c)
  41. What recent action did India plan regarding the Clarion-Clipperton Zone?
    (a) Ban on mining activities
    (b) Apply for exploration licenses
    (c) Establish a marine park
    (d) Conduct marine biodiversity studies
    Ans. (b)
  42. Why is the Clarion-Clipperton Zone important for future technology?
    (a) It has rare earth elements needed for electronics
    (b) It provides a habitat for endangered species
    (c) It is a potential site for renewable energy projects
    (d) It contains minerals essential for electric vehicles and solar panels
    Ans. (d)
  43. What did the Finance Minister announce regarding climate finance during the Union Budget 2024-25?
    (a) Introduction of a carbon tax
    (b) Development of a climate finance taxonomy
    (c) Creation of a green investment fund
    (d) Implementation of stricter emissions regulations
    Ans. (b)
  44. What is the purpose of a climate finance taxonomy?
    (a) To classify economic activities as sustainable investments
    (b) To set carbon emission limits
    (c) To provide subsidies for green projects
    (d) To regulate the financial sector
    Ans. (a)
  45. How does climate finance taxonomy help in achieving a net-zero economy?
    (a) By reducing energy consumption
    (b) By balancing produced and removed greenhouse gases
    (c) By increasing fossil fuel usage
    (d) By promoting traditional investments
    Ans. (b)
  46. What risk does the climate finance taxonomy aim to reduce?
    (a) Market volatility
    (b) Greenwashing
    (c) Political instability
    (d) Currency devaluation
    Ans. (b)
  47. What is the objective of the Electric Mobility Promotion Scheme (EMPS) 2024?
    (a) To increase the production of petrol vehicles
    (b) To promote green mobility and electric vehicles
    (c) To subsidize public transportation
    (d) To improve road infrastructure
    Ans. (b)
  48. Which category of vehicles is eligible for incentives under the EMPS 2024?
    (a) Diesel trucks
    (b) Electric two-wheelers and three-wheelers
    (c) Hybrid cars
    (d) Gas-powered buses
    Ans. (b)
  49. How are the incentives provided under the EMPS 2024?
    (a) Through tax rebates
    (b) As upfront reduced purchase prices
    (c) As low-interest loans
    (d) Through direct cash transfers to consumers
    Ans. (b)
  50. Which ministry is the nodal agency for the Electric Mobility Promotion Scheme?
    (a) Ministry of Finance
    (b) Ministry of Environment
    (c) Ministry of Heavy Industries
    (d) Ministry of Transportation
    Ans. (c)
  51. What is the primary goal of the IndiaAI Mission?
    a) To develop AI for defense purposes
    b) To establish computing capacity of over 10,000 GPUs
    c) To import AI technology from abroad
    d) To focus on AI research only in the healthcare sector
    Ans: b) To establish computing capacity of over 10,000 GPUs
  52. How many GPUs is the IT Ministry looking to procure for private sector AI development?
    a) 100-200
    b) 300-500
    c) 600-800
    d) 900-1000
    Ans: b) 300-500
  53. What is the amount earmarked for building computing infrastructure under the IndiaAI Mission?
    a) Rs 1,564 crore
    b) Rs 2,000 crore
    c) Rs 4,564 crore
    d) Rs 5,000 crore
    Ans: c) Rs 4,564 crore
  54. How much funding is allocated for deeptech startup financing in the IndiaAI Mission?
    a) Rs 1,000 crore
    b) Rs 1,500 crore
    c) Rs 2,000 crore
    d) Rs 2,500 crore
    Ans: c) Rs 2,000 crore
  55. Which of the following sectors are the AI models expected to cover?
    a) Healthcare and defense
    b) Agriculture and governance
    c) Healthcare, agriculture, and governance
    d) Governance and entertainment
    Ans: c) Healthcare, agriculture, and governance
  56. How many foundational AI models are planned to be developed under the IndiaAI Mission?
    a) 50 billion parameters
    b) 100 billion parameters
    c) 150 billion parameters
    d) 200 billion parameters
    Ans: b) 100 billion parameters
  57. What is the focus of the IndiaAI Innovation Research Centre?
    a) Importing AI technology
    b) Developing and deploying large foundational AI models
    c) Exporting AI services
    d) Building AI hardware
    Ans: b) Developing and deploying large foundational AI models
  58. How many BTech candidates will receive financial support for AI studies under the IndiaAI Mission?
    a) 2,000
    b) 3,000
    c) 4,000
    d) 5,000
    Ans: c) 4,000
  59. How many PhD candidates will be supported for AI research under the IndiaAI Mission?
    a) 200
    b) 400
    c) 600
    d) 800
    Ans: c) 600
  60. What percentage of viability gap funding is provided for computing infrastructure in the IndiaAI Mission?
    a) 30%
    b) 40%
    c) 50%
    d) 60%
    Ans: c) 50%
  61. Which Indian state hosts the Moidams inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List?
    a) Assam
    b) Kerala
    c) Tamil Nadu
    d) Rajasthan
    Ans: a) Assam
  62. When was Mission Karmayogi launched?
    a) January 2020
    b) March 2020
    c) September 2020
    d) December 2020
    Ans: c) September 2020
  63. What is the primary objective of Mission Karmayogi?
    a) To train IT professionals
    b) To enhance civil servants’ capacity and competency
    c) To support AI startups
    d) To fund infrastructure projects
    Ans: b) To enhance civil servants’ capacity and competency
  64. What does “dark oxygen” refer to?
    a) Oxygen produced in the absence of sunlight
    b) A new type of pollutant
    c) Oxygen from the upper atmosphere
    d) Artificially created oxygen
    Ans: a) Oxygen produced in the absence of sunlight
  65. What significant discovery challenges traditional views of oxygen production?
    a) Oxygen from plants
    b) Oxygen from photosynthesis
    c) Oxygen produced by electrolysis on the ocean floor
    d) Oxygen from space
    Ans: c) Oxygen produced by electrolysis on the ocean floor
  66. Where is Fermilab, the location of the NOvA experiment, situated?
    a) New York
    b) California
    c) Illinois
    d) Texas
    Ans: c) Illinois
  67. What is the purpose of the NOvA experiment?
    a) To study black holes
    b) To explore the mass of neutrinos
    c) To examine the structure of the atom
    d) To investigate dark matter
    Ans: b) To explore the mass of neutrinos
  68. How far does Fermilab’s neutrino beam travel to Ash River, Minnesota?
    a) 300 miles
    b) 400 miles
    c) 500 miles
    d) 600 miles
    Ans: c) 500 miles
  69. What type of models will the IndiaAI Innovation Research Centre focus on?
    a) Large Multimodal Models
    b) Small Neural Networks
    c) Simple Regression Models
    d) Basic Statistical Models
    Ans: a) Large Multimodal Models
  70. Which traditional literature documents the Moidams?
    a) Vedas
    b) Changrung Phukan
    c) Upanishads
    d) Ramayana
    Ans: b) Changrung Phukan
  71. What is the total allocation for public healthcare in Odisha for the fiscal year 2024-25?
    (a) Rs 16,048 crore
    (b) Rs 21,200 crore
    (c) Rs 18,500 crore
    (d) Rs 20,000 crore
    Ans: (b)
  72. By what percentage has the healthcare budget increased from the previous year?
    (a) 25%
    (b) 30%
    (c) 32%
    (d) 35%
    Ans: (c)
  73. What is the new name of the Biju Swasthya Kalyan Yojana?
    (a) CM-Kisan Yojana
    (b) Panchasakha Sikshya Setu Abhiyaan
    (c) Gopabandhu Jana Arogya Yojana
    (d) Shree Anna Yojana
    Ans: (c)
  74. How much has been allocated for the Gopabandhu Jana Arogya Yojana?
    (a) Rs 500 crore
    (b) Rs 1000 crore
    (c) Rs 5450 crore
    (d) Rs 1935 crore
    Ans: (c)
  75. What is the aim of the Surendra Sai Divya Drushti Yojana?
    (a) Universal free eye care
    (b) Free healthcare for all
    (c) Cashless treatment in private hospitals
    (d) Financial aid for sports persons
    Ans: (a)
  76. Which eye disorders are included in the Surendra Sai Divya Drushti Yojana?
    (a) Cataract and glaucoma
    (b) Diabetic retinopathy
    (c) Corneal disorders
    (d) All of the above
    Ans: (d)
  77. What is the original name of the Gopabandhu Jana Arogya Yojana?
    (a) Ayushman Bharat
    (b) Biju Swasthya Kalyan Yojana
    (c) CM-Kisan Yojana
    (d) Viksit Gaon Viksit Odisha
    Ans: (b)
  78. How many new categories were added to the Biju Patnaik Sports Award?
    (a) Two
    (b) Three
    (c) Four
    (d) Five
    Ans: (b)
  79. Which new scheme aims to provide urban amenities in rural areas?
    (a) CM-Kisan Yojana
    (b) Viksit Gaon Viksit Odisha
    (c) Shree Anna Yojana
    (d) Panchasakha Sikshya Setu Abhiyaan
    Ans: (b)
  80. What is the new name of the KALIA scheme?
    (a) CM-Kisan Yojana
    (b) Shree Anna Yojana
    (c) Gopabandhu Jana Arogya Yojana
    (d) Panchasakha Sikshya Setu Abhiyaan
    Ans: (a)
  81. How much has been allocated to the CM-Kisan Yojana?
    (a) Rs 1000 crore
    (b) Rs 5450 crore
    (c) Rs 1935 crore
    (d) Rs 500 crore
    Ans: (c)
  82. What is the new name for the Make in Odisha Conclave?
    (a) Utkarsha Utkal
    (b) Viksit Gaon Viksit Odisha
    (c) Panchasakha Sikshya Setu Abhiyaan
    (d) Setu Bandhan Yojana
    Ans: (a)
  83. How much foreign direct investment (FDI) does the Utkarsha Utkal aim to attract by 2029?
    (a) 1 billion USD
    (b) 2 billion USD
    (c) 3 billion USD
    (d) 4 billion USD
    Ans: (b)
  84. What is the budget allocation for the Setu Bandhan Yojana?
    (a) Rs 1000 crore
    (b) Rs 1935 crore
    (c) Rs 1990 crore
    (d) Rs 1085 crore
    Ans: (c)
  85. Which scheme has been renamed as Gramanchal Paribahan?
    (a) Biju Setu Yojana
    (b) LAccMI Scheme
    (c) KALIA Scheme
    (d) Millet Mission
    Ans: (b)
  86. What is the primary purpose of the E-Upahaar Portal?
    a) To sell ancient artifacts
    b) To auction gift items presented to the President and former Presidents of India
    c) To auction artworks from Indian artists
    d) To sell surplus government assets
    Answer: b) To auction gift items presented to the President and former Presidents of India
  87. When was the E-Upahaar Portal launched?
    a) July 25, 2023
    b) July 25, 2024
    c) August 15, 2024
    d) January 1, 2024
    Answer: b) July 25, 2024
  88. Which organization conceptualized and developed the E-Upahaar Portal?
    a) Ministry of External Affairs
    b) National Informatics Centre (NIC)
    c) Rashtrapati Bhavan
    d) Ministry of Culture
    Answer: b) National Informatics Centre (NIC)
  89. What is the primary objective of the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP)?
    a) To eradicate all diseases in India
    b) To strengthen and maintain a decentralized laboratory-based IT-enabled disease surveillance system
    c) To provide free healthcare to all citizens
    d) To conduct national health surveys
    Answer: b) To strengthen and maintain a decentralized laboratory-based IT-enabled disease surveillance system
  90. Which Indian state reported the highest number of disease outbreaks last year according to the IDSP?
    a) Tamil Nadu
    b) Maharashtra
    c) Kerala
    d) Uttar Pradesh
    Answer: c) Kerala
  91. When was the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP) launched?
    a) November 2000
    b) November 2002
    c) November 2004
    d) November 2006
    Answer: c) November 2004
  92. What is the main aim of the Cultural Property Agreement signed between India and the USA?
    a) To enhance cultural exchanges between the two countries
    b) To prevent and curb the illicit trafficking of antiquities from India to the USA
    c) To promote tourism in both countries
    d) To establish a cultural heritage fund
    Answer: b) To prevent and curb the illicit trafficking of antiquities from India to the USA
  93. Which convention is the Cultural Property Agreement aligned with?
    a) 1954 Hague Convention
    b) 1970 UNESCO Convention
    c) 1980 UN Convention on Biodiversity
    d) 1992 UN Framework Convention on Climate Change
    Answer: b) 1970 UNESCO Convention
  94. What does the Climate Finance Action Fund aim to mobilize?
    a) Governmental financial resources for climate adaptation
    b) Private sector investment and de-risk investment for climate projects
    c) Donations from individuals for climate change research
    d) Funds for international climate change conferences
    Answer: b) Private sector investment and de-risk investment for climate projects
  95. Which country is a founding contributor to the Climate Finance Action Fund?
    a) Saudi Arabia
    b) Russia
    c) Azerbaijan
    d) United Arab Emirates
    Answer: c) Azerbaijan
  96. How much initial fundraising is required for the Climate Finance Action Fund to become operational?
    a) $500 million
    b) $750 million
    c) $1 billion
    d) $1.5 billion
    Answer: c) $1 billion
  97. What percentage of the Climate Finance Action Fund is allocated towards climate projects in developing countries?
    a) 25%
    b) 40%
    c) 50%
    d) 75%
    Answer: c) 50%
  98. Which organization has assumed the Chair of the Asian Disaster Preparedness Centre (ADPC) for 2024-25?
    a) Thailand
    b) Bangladesh
    c) India
    d) Sri Lanka
    Answer: c) India
  99. When was the Asian Disaster Preparedness Centre (ADPC) established?
    a) 1982
    b) 1986
    c) 1990
    d) 1995
    Answer: b) 1986
  100. 15. Where is the headquarters of the Asian Disaster Preparedness Centre (ADPC) located?
    a) New Delhi, India
    b) Bangkok, Thailand
    c) Dhaka, Bangladesh
    d) Manila, Philippines
    Answer: b) Bangkok, Thailand
  101. Which countries are part of the founding members of the ADPC?
    a) India, Bangladesh, Cambodia
    b) India, China, Nepal
    c) Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Thailand
    d) All of the above
    Answer: d) All of the above
  102. What is one of the objectives of the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP)?
    a) To increase hospital infrastructure
    b) To train medical staff on disease surveillance
    c) To provide health insurance to citizens
    d) To create new health policies
    Answer: b) To train medical staff on disease surveillance
  103. 18. What type of material does the Cultural Property Agreement restrict from being imported into the USA?
    a) Modern artworks
    b) Certain archaeological and ethnological materials
    c) Textiles and clothing
    d) Contemporary sculptures
    Answer: b) Certain archaeological and ethnological materials
  104. Which facility is involved in the operation of the Climate Finance Action Fund?
    a) Special facilities with concessional and grant-based support
    b) International aid agencies
    c) Private investment banks
    d) Government research institutions
    Answer: a) Special facilities with concessional and grant-based support
  105. What is the primary focus of the Asian Disaster Preparedness Centre (ADPC)?
    a) Economic development in Asia
    b) Disaster risk reduction and climate resilience
    c) Educational programs in disaster management
    d) Cultural heritage preservation
    Answer: b) Disaster risk reduction and climate resilience
  106. What is the official name of the Wagner Group?
    (a) Wagner Mercenaries
    (b) PMC Wagner
    (c) Wagner Security
    (d) Russian Mercenary Group
    Ans: (b) PMC Wagner 
  107. In which year did the Wagner Group emerge?
    (a) 2012
    (b) 2014
    (c) 2016
    (d) 2018
    Ans: (b) 2014 
  108. Who are the founders of the Wagner Group?
    (a) Yevgeny Prigozhin and Dmitry Utkin
    (b) Sergei Shoigu and Dmitry Medvedev
    (c) Vladimir Putin and Sergei Lavrov
    (d) Alexei Navalny and Leonid Volkov
    Ans: (a) Yevgeny Prigozhin and Dmitry Utkin 
  109. Where did the Wagner Group first operate?
    (a) Libya
    (b) Sudan
    (c) Crimea
    (d) Central African Republic
    Ans: (c) Crimea 
  110. What is the legal status of mercenary forces in Russia?
    (a) Legal
    (b) Technically illegal
    (c) Fully regulated
    (d) Encouraged by the state
    Ans: (b) Technically illegal 
  111. When did Wagner register as a “private military company”?
    (a) 2020
    (b) 2021
    (c) 2022
    (d) 2023
    Ans: (c) 2022 
  112. In which African countries has Wagner operated?
    (a) Libya, Sudan, Mozambique, Mali, and Central African Republic
    (b) Algeria, Egypt, Morocco, Tunisia, and Libya
    (c) Nigeria, Ghana, Kenya, Uganda, and Tanzania
    (d) South Africa, Namibia, Botswana, Zimbabwe, and Zambia
    Ans: (a) Libya, Sudan, Mozambique, Mali, and Central African Republic 
  113. What type of services does Wagner Group provide?
    (a) Commercial trading
    (b) Security services based on client needs
    (c) Legal consulting
    (d) Educational training
    Ans: (b) Security services based on client needs 
  114. How is Wagner Group funded?
    (a) Through government grants
    (b) By direct payment and resource concessions
    (c) By selling arms
    (d) By running charities
    Ans: (b) By direct payment and resource concessions 
  115. Which Russian intelligence community is Wagner closely tied to?
    (a) FSB
    (b) SVR
    (c) GRU
    (d) KGB
    Ans: (c) GRU 
  116. In which year did Wagner Group start its operations in Syria?
    (a) 2011
    (b) 2014
    (c) 2015
    (d) 2017
    Ans: (c) 2015 
  117. Who was the first known commander of the Wagner Group?
    (a) Sergei Surovikin
    (b) Dmitry Utkin
    (c) Igor Girkin
    (d) Alexander Zakharchenko
    Ans: (b) Dmitry Utkin 
  118. What was Wagner’s role in Libya?
    (a) Supporting the Government of National Accord
    (b) Supporting the Libyan National Army
    (c) Neutral peacekeeping
    (d) Providing humanitarian aid
    Ans: (b) Supporting the Libyan National Army 
  119. Which event led to the establishment of the Wagner Group?
    (a) Russia-Georgia War
    (b) Annexation of Crimea
    (c) Syrian Civil War
    (d) Ukraine Crisis
    Ans: (b) Annexation of Crimea 
  120. What kind of military support does Wagner provide?
    (a) Air defense systems
    (b) Infantry and ground operations
    (c) Naval support
    (d) Cybersecurity
    Ans: (b) Infantry and ground operations 
  121. In which country did Wagner face severe losses recently?
    (a) Libya
    (b) Sudan
    (c) Mozambique
    (d) Mali
    Ans: (d) Mali 
  122. Which Wagner founder has a background in special forces?
    (a) Yevgeny Prigozhin
    (b) Dmitry Utkin
    (c) Alexander Dugin
    (d) Sergei Shoigu
    Ans: (b) Dmitry Utkin 
  123. What is a common characteristic of Wagner’s operations?
    (a) They are officially sanctioned by the UN.
    (b) They operate openly and transparently.
    (c) They are clandestine and often unacknowledged by the Russian government.
    (d) They operate exclusively within Russia.
    Ans: (c) They are clandestine and often unacknowledged by the Russian government. 
  124. What type of clients does Wagner Group serve?
    (a) Only legitimate governments
    (b) Both rebel groups and regimes
    (c) International corporations
    (d) Non-governmental organizations
    Ans: (b) Both rebel groups and regimes 
  125. What is the primary aim of the Wagner Group’s operations?
    (a) Humanitarian aid
    (b) Commercial development
    (c) Military and security services based on client needs
    (d) Diplomatic negotiations
    Ans: (c) Military and security services based on client needs
  126. What is the full form of PMAY-G?
    (a) Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Grameen
    (b) Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana-Gramin
    (c) Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojna-Gramin
    (d) Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Gramin
    Ans. (b) 
  127. When was PMAY-G approved?
    (a) March 2016
    (b) March 2017
    (c) April 2016
    (d) April 2017
    Ans. (a) 
  128. Which areas are excluded from the PMAY-G scheme?
    (a) Delhi and Chandigarh
    (b) Delhi and Mumbai
    (c) Kolkata and Chandigarh
    (d) Mumbai and Delhi
    Ans. (a) 
  129. What is the main goal of PMAY-G?
    (a) Housing for all by 2025
    (b) Housing for all by 2023
    (c) Housing for all by 2022
    (d) Housing for all by 2024
    Ans. (c) 
  130. Which village near Malkangiri experienced a major landslide?
    (a) Tumba Padar
    (b) Dumka Padar
    (c) Tumka Padar
    (d) Dumma Padar
    Ans. (a) 
  131. How many villages were cut off due to the landslide in Malkangiri?
    (a) 10
    (b) 18
    (c) 20
    (d) 25
    Ans. (b) 
  132. Which of the following is not a natural cause of landslides?
    (a) Earthquakes
    (b) Rainfall
    (c) Construction
    (d) Erosion
    Ans. (c) 
  133. Which type of landslide involves the free fall of earth material from a steep slope?
    (a) Slides
    (b) Flows
    (c) Falls
    (d) Topples
    Ans. (c) 
  134. When was the second vote-on-account presented in Odisha?
    (a) July 30, 2024
    (b) July 25, 2024
    (c) August 1, 2024
    (d) July 15, 2024
    Ans. (a) 
  135. How much was the vote-on-account presented for?
    (a) ₹85,000 crore
    (b) ₹90,000 crore
    (c) ₹95,000 crore
    (d) ₹100,000 crore
    Ans. (c) 
  136. Under which article of the Indian Constitution is the vote on account covered?
    (a) Article 112
    (b) Article 113
    (c) Article 114
    (d) Article 116
    Ans. (d) 
  137. What is the Consolidated Fund of India defined under?
    (a) Article 266
    (b) Article 267
    (c) Article 268
    (d) Article 269
    Ans. (a) 
  138. How many Scheduled Tribes (ST) and other forest dwellers have been displaced since 1973 due to Project Tiger?
    (a) 500,000
    (b) 550,000
    (c) 600,000
    (d) 650,000
    Ans. (b) 
  139. What is the increase in the displacement rate per tiger reserve between 2021 and 2017?
    (a) 800%
    (b) 900%
    (c) 967%
    (d) 1000%
    Ans. (c) 
  140. Which national park was highlighted for its concerning displacement practices?
    (a) Sundarbans
    (b) Kaziranga
    (c) Corbett
    (d) Ranthambore
    Ans. (b) 
  141. How many tiger reserves were noted for displacing tribal families despite not having significant tiger populations?
    (a) 4
    (b) 5
    (c) 6
    (d) 7
    Ans. (b) 
  142. Which tiger reserve is recognized for successful coexistence between tigers and the Soliga tribe?
    (a) Bandipur
    (b) Nagarhole
    (c) Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple
    (d) Periyar
    Ans. (c) 
  143. What did the report call for regarding current displacements?
    (a) Immediate continuation
    (b) Immediate halt
    (c) Gradual reduction
    (d) Increased funding
    Ans. (b) 
  144. Which Act’s recent amendment is criticized for promoting commercialization under the guise of eco-tourism?
    (a) Wildlife Protection Act
    (b) Forest Conservation Amendment Act
    (c) Environment Protection Act
    (d) Biodiversity Conservation Act
    Ans. (b) 
  145. What is the main argument of the report regarding the balance between wildlife conservation and human rights?
    (a) Prioritizing wildlife over human rights
    (b) Ignoring human rights for conservation
    (c) Balancing wildlife conservation with human rights
    (d) Halting all conservation projects
    Ans. (c)
  146. Which rule mandates the requirement of a Pollution Under Control (PUC) certificate for vehicles in India?
    (a) Motor Vehicles Act 1988
    (b) Central Motor Vehicles Rule 1989
    (c) Road Transport Rule 1990
    (d) Air Pollution Control Act 1981
    Answer: (b) Central Motor Vehicles Rule 1989 
  147. What is the primary purpose of indexation in the context of long-term capital gains?
    (a) To increase the purchase price of an asset
    (b) To adjust the purchase price of an asset for inflation
    (c) To decrease the purchase price of an asset
    (d) To fix the purchase price of an asset
    Answer: (b) To adjust the purchase price of an asset for inflation 
  148. What is the target age group for the NIPUN Bharat Mission?
    (a) 2 to 8 years
    (b) 3 to 9 years
    (c) 4 to 10 years
    (d) 5 to 11 years
    Answer: (b) 3 to 9 years 
  149. Which organization lists Aquilaria malaccensis (agarwood) in Appendix II?
    (a) IUCN
    (b) UNEP
    (c) CITES
    (d) WWF
    Answer: (c) CITES 
  150. Who founded Tell Umm Amer, also known as the Monastery of Saint Hilarion?
    (a) Saint Augustine
    (b) Hilarion the Great
    (c) Saint Benedict
    (d) Saint Francis of Assisi
    Answer: (b) Hilarion the Great
Weekly Current Affairs Quiz for Odisha Competitive Exams | July 4th Week 2024_3.1