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Weekly Current Affairs Quiz for Odisha Competitive Exams | June 1st Week 2024

Weekly Current affairs play a very important role in the competitive examinations and hence, aspirants have to give undivided attention to it while doing preparation for the government examinations. The CGLRE, OCS examinations comprise a section of “Current Affairs” to evaluate how much the aspirant is aware of the daily happenings taking place around the world. To complement your preparation, we are providing you with a compilation of  Weekly Current affairs.

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  1. What is the primary purpose of Exercise Red Flag 24?
    A. To promote tourism
    B. To enhance combat readiness and interoperability
    C. To conduct humanitarian missions
    D. To showcase new air force technologies
    Answer: B. To enhance combat readiness and interoperability
  2. Which country organizes Exercise Red Flag 24?
    A. United Kingdom
    B. India
    C. United States
    D. Australia
    Answer: C. United States
  3. Where is Exercise Red Flag 24 held?
    A. Eielson Air Force Base, Alaska, USA
    B. Ramstein Air Base, Germany
    C. Nellis Air Force Base, Nevada, USA
    D. Edwards Air Force Base, California, USA
    Answer: A. Eielson Air Force Base, Alaska, USA
  4. Which Indian entity is participating in Exercise Red Flag 24?
    A. Indian Navy
    B. Indian Army
    C. Indian Air Force
    D. Indian Coast Guard
    Answer: C. Indian Air Force
  5. Exercise Red Flag provides realistic air-combat training in what type of environment?
    A. Simulated combat zones
    B. Urban areas
    C. Controlled environment
    D. Natural disaster zones
    Answer: C. Controlled environment
  6. What was a major agenda at the KAZA 2024 Heads of State Summit?
    A. Expansion of urban areas
    B. Withdrawal from CITES
    C. Establishing trade agreements
    D. Building new infrastructure
    Answer: B. Withdrawal from CITES
  7. Where was the KAZA 2024 Summit held?
    A. Angola
    B. Botswana
    C. Zambia
    D. Zimbabwe
    Answer: C. Zambia
  8. What is the theme of KAZA Summit 2024?
    A. “Conserving Wildlife for Future”
    B. “Leveraging KAZA’s natural capital and cultural heritage resources as catalysts for inclusive socio-economic development of the eco-region”
    C. “Advancing Technological Innovation in Conservation”
    D. “Economic Development through Urbanization”
    Answer: B. “Leveraging KAZA’s natural capital and cultural heritage resources as catalysts for inclusive socio-economic development of the eco-region”
  9. The KAZA region spans across how many countries?
    A. Four
    B. Five
    C. Six
    D. Seven
    Answer: B. Five
  10. Which countries are part of the KAZA region?
    A. Angola, Botswana, Namibia, Zambia, Zimbabwe
    B. Angola, Botswana, Mozambique, Zambia, Zimbabwe
    C. Angola, Botswana, South Africa, Zambia, Zimbabwe
    D. Angola, Botswana, Namibia, Zambia, Malawi
    Answer: A. Angola, Botswana, Namibia, Zambia, Zimbabwe
  11. Who introduced the Framework for Recognising SRO-FT?
    A. Securities and Exchange Board of India
    B. Reserve Bank of India
    C. Ministry of Finance
    D. National Stock Exchange
    Answer: B. Reserve Bank of India
  12. What is a key responsibility of the SRO-FT?
    A. Establishing new fintech companies
    B. Promoting ethical conduct
    C. Providing loans to consumers
    D. Regulating stock markets
    Answer: B. Promoting ethical conduct
  13. What must applicants for SRO-FT be? A. Government organizations
    B. For-profit companies
    C. Not-for-profit companies
    D. Educational institutions
    Answer: C. Not-for-profit companies
  14. What sector does the SRO-FT framework specifically target? A. Information Technology
    B. Agriculture
    C. FinTech
    D. Real Estate
    Answer: C. FinTech
  15. The framework for SRO-FT aims to enhance what among its members?
    A. Financial gains
    B. Compliance and self-governance
    C. Technological innovation
    D. Customer satisfaction
    Answer: B. Compliance and self-governance
  16. Who released the Global Food Policy Report 2024?
    A. World Health Organization
    B. International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI)
    C. Food and Agriculture Organization
    D. United Nations
    Answer: B. International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI)
  17. What major dietary concern does the report highlight for India?
    A. Increasing vegetarianism
    B. Rising consumption of unhealthy foods
    C. Decline in food production
    D. High cost of staple foods
    Answer: B. Rising consumption of unhealthy foods
  18. What was the percentage increase in overweight adults in India from 2006 to 2016?
    A. 1%
    B. 3.5%
    C. 4.5%
    D. 6%
    Answer: C. 4.5%
  19. What are relatively cheap in South Asia, according to the report?
    A. Fresh fruits
    B. Micronutrient-rich foods
    C. Cereals, fats and oils, sugar, and sugary and salty snacks
    D. Organic foods
    Answer: C. Cereals, fats and oils, sugar, and sugary and salty snacks
  20. What recent recognition did Ajrakh, the resist-dyeing craft from Kutch, receive?
    A. National Craft Award
    B. UNESCO Cultural Heritage status
    C. Geographical Indication (GI) tag
    D. International Design Excellence Award
    Answer: C. Geographical Indication (GI) tag
  21. What recent scientific analysis has revised the origin date of the Tamil-Brahmi script?
    A. Carbon Dating
    B. Accelerator Mass Spectrometry (AMS) Dating
    C. Potassium-Argon Dating
    D. Thermoluminescence Dating
    Answer: B. Accelerator Mass Spectrometry (AMS) Dating
  22. The new AMS dating suggests the Tamili script originated in which century?
    A. 8th Century BCE
    B. 6th Century BCE
    C. 7th Century BCE
    D. 5th Century BCE
    Answer: C. 7th Century BCE
  23. Where was the earliest date of 685 BCE for the Tamili script discovered?
    A. Chennai
    B. Madurai
    C. Kanchipuram
    D. Sivagalai in Thoothukudi district
    Answer: D. Sivagalai in Thoothukudi district
  24. What does the widespread use of inscribed potsherds in Tamil Nadu indicate?
    A. Trade Relations
    B. Agricultural Practices
    C. Level of Literacy and Script Use
    D. Military Campaigns
    Answer: C. Level of Literacy and Script Use
  25. How has the new dating of the Tamili script impacted India’s historical timeline?
    A. It confirmed the previously known timeline.
    B. It pushed back the Sangam era by three hundred years.
    C. It established a connection with Egyptian scripts.
    D. It suggested a later date for the script’s origin.
    Answer: B. It pushed back the Sangam era by three hundred years.
  26. Which country’s long-standing support for the two-state solution is highlighted?
    A. United States
    B. United Kingdom
    C. India
    D. China
    Answer: C. India
  27. The two-state solution proposes the establishment of which two separate states?
    A. Israel and Jordan
    B. Israel and Lebanon
    C. Israel and Palestine
    D. Israel and Syria
    Answer: C. Israel and Palestine
  28. Which historical document first proposed the creation of independent Arab and Jewish states?
    A. 1937 Peel Commission
    B. 1947 UN Partition Plan
    C. Balfour Declaration
    D. Camp David Accords
    Answer: B. 1947 UN Partition Plan
  29. The Oslo Accords aimed to achieve a peace treaty based on which UN Resolutions?
    A. 181 and 194
    B. 242 and 338
    C. 155 and 333
    D. 199 and 331
    Answer: B. 242 and 338
  30. What was a major goal of the Roadmap for Peace proposed in 2003?
    A. Establishing economic ties
    B. A two-state solution by 2005
    C. Increasing military aid
    D. Building a security wall
    Answer: B. A two-state solution by 2005
  31. Where is Pampa Lake located?
    A. Kerala
    B. Karnataka
    C. Tamil Nadu
    D. Andhra Pradesh
    Answer: B. Karnataka
  32. Which legend from the Ramayana is associated with Pampa Lake?
    A. Hanuman’s Flight
    B. Rama and Sita’s Meeting
    C. Shabari Offering Berries to Rama
    D. Building of the Rama Setu
    Answer: C. Shabari Offering Berries to Rama
  33. Pampa Lake is one of how many sacred sarovars mentioned in Hindu scriptures?
    A. Three
    B. Four
    C. Five
    D. Six
    Answer: C. Five
  34. What is the primary focus of the Colombo Process?
    A. Economic Development
    B. Management of Overseas Employment and Contractual Labor
    C. Environmental Conservation
    D. Cultural Exchange
    Answer: B. Management of Overseas Employment and Contractual Labor
  35. How many member countries are part of the Colombo Process?
    A. 8
    B. 10
    C. 11
    D. 13
    Answer: C. 11
  36. Which organization serves as the secretariat for the Colombo Process?
    A. International Labour Organization (ILO)
    B. United Nations (UN)
    C. International Organization for Migration (IOM)
    D. World Bank
    Answer: C. International Organization for Migration (IOM)
  37. What is one of the key areas of focus for the Colombo Process?
    A. Climate Change Mitigation
    B. Pre-departure Orientation and Empowerment
    C. Infrastructure Development
    D. Digital Innovation
    Answer: B. Pre-departure Orientation and Empowerment
  38. In which Indian state are canopy bridges being built to aid Hoolock Gibbons?
    A. Assam
    B. Meghalaya
    C. Arunachal Pradesh
    D. Manipur
    Answer: A. Assam
  39. Hoolock Gibbons primarily inhabit which type of forests?
    A. Deciduous Forests
    B. Evergreen and Semi-Evergreen Forests
    C. Mangrove Forests
    D. Temperate Forests
    Answer: B. Evergreen and Semi-Evergreen Forests
  40. What is the conservation status of the Western Hoolock Gibbon according to the IUCN?
    A. Vulnerable
    B. Endangered
    C. Critically Endangered
    D. Near Threatened
    Answer: B. Endangered
  41. What unique initiative has Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary in Odisha introduced?
    A) Bird Watching
    B) Stargazing
    C) Wildlife Safari
    D) Trekking
    Answer: B) Stargazing
  42. How many stargazing cottages with glass roofs has Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary developed?
    A) Four
    B) Five
    C) Six
    D) Seven
    Answer: C) Six
  43. What is the area covered by Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary?
    A) 353 square kilometers
    B) 400 square kilometers
    C) 500 square kilometers
    D) 600 square kilometers
    Answer: A) 353 square kilometers
  44. How much dark sky area does Debrigarh offer for stargazing?
    A) 500 square kilometers
    B) 700 square kilometers
    C) 900 square kilometers
    D) 1,000 square kilometers
    Answer: D) 1,000 square kilometers
  45. Which planet can visitors observe from Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary?
    A) Mars
    B) Venus
    C) Jupiter
    D) Saturn
    Answer: C) Jupiter
  46. Who recommended the dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly in Odisha?
    A) The Chief Justice
    B) The Governor
    C) The Odisha Cabinet
    D) The President
    Answer: C) The Odisha Cabinet
  47. Who chaired the meeting for recommending the dissolution of the Odisha Legislative Assembly?
    A) Naveen Patnaik
    B) Amit Shah
    C) Ram Nath Kovind
    D) M. Venkaiah Naidu
    Answer: A) Naveen Patnaik
  48. How long can the House of the People continue according to Article 83(2) of the Constitution?
    A) Four years
    B) Five years
    C) Six years
    D) Seven years
    Answer: B) Five years
  49. Which ministry is responsible for the dissolution of the House of the People as per the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961?
    A) Ministry of Home Affairs
    B) Ministry of External Affairs
    C) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
    D) Ministry of Law and Justice
    Answer: C) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
  50. How many lightning strikes were recorded in Koraput district within seven minutes?
    A) 10,000
    B) 12,000
    C) 15,000
    D) 18,000
    Answer: C) 15,000
  51. Which app confirmed the lightning strikes in Koraput district?
    A) Varuna
    B) Damini
    C) Vayu
    D) Agni
    Answer: B) Damini
  52. Which phenomenon is described as a potent and visible electrical occurrence due to charge accumulation within clouds and between clouds and the ground?
    A) Earthquake
    B) Cyclone
    C) Tornado
    D) Lightning
    Answer: D) Lightning
  53. Which type of lightning poses a significant danger to people?
    A) Intracloud lightning
    B) Cloud-to-cloud lightning
    C) Cloud-to-ground lightning
    D) Ground-to-cloud lightning
    Answer: C) Cloud-to-ground lightning
  54. How many fatalities were attributed to lightning in India in 2021?
    A) 1,880
    B) 2,280
    C) 2,880
    D) 3,280
    Answer: C) 2,880
  55. Which state in India experienced an astonishing 15,000 lightning strikes within seven minutes?
    A) Bihar
    B) West Bengal
    C) Odisha
    D) Jharkhand
    Answer: C) Odisha
  56. Renowned puppeteer Maguni Charan Kuanr was a recipient of which prestigious award in 2023?
    A) Bharat Ratna
    B) Padma Shri
    C) Padma Bhushan
    D) Padma Vibhushan
    Answer: B) Padma Shri
  57. Which troupe did Maguni Charan Kuanr found?
    A) Utkal Biswakarma Kalakunja Kandhei Nacha
    B) Odisha Puppetry Arts
    C) Keonjhar Puppet Theatre
    D) Ramayana Puppetry Troupe
    Answer: A) Utkal Biswakarma Kalakunja Kandhei Nacha
  58. How many puppetry productions did Kuanr develop based on mythological stories?
    A) 15
    B) 20
    C) 25
    D) 30
    Answer: B) 20
  59. How many puppetry plays did Kuanr stage across the country?
    A) 200
    B) 300
    C) 400
    D) 500
    Answer: D) 500
  60. In which year did Kuanr receive the Central Sangeet Natak Akademi award?
    A) 2002
    B) 2004
    C) 2006
    D) 2008
    Answer: B) 2004
  61. What is the main reason the opposition urged the Election Commission to prioritize the counting of postal ballots?
    a) To ensure quicker election results
    b) To address concerns over guideline changes from 2019
    c) To reduce the workload on polling staff
    d) To prevent electronic voting machine tampering
    Answer: b) To address concerns over guideline changes from 2019

     

  62. Who are considered service voters in the context of postal ballots?
    a) Railway workers
    b) Members of the armed forces
    c) Authorized media personnel
    d) Senior citizens aged 80 and above
    Answer: b) Members of the armed forces

     

  63. Which of the following is NOT eligible for postal ballot voting?
    a) Government employees on election duty away from home
    b) Polling staff working at home polling stations
    c) Electors under preventive detention orders
    d) Healthcare workers
    Answer: b) Polling staff working at home polling stations

     

  64. In which election were senior citizens aged 80 and above first made eligible for postal ballots?
    a) 2019 General Elections
    b) 2020 Delhi Assembly elections
    c) 2018 State Elections
    d) 2021 Panchayat Elections
    Answer: b) 2020 Delhi Assembly elections

     

  65. What convenience does the postal ballot system provide?
    a) Faster voting process
    b) In-person voting options
    c) Voting via mail for those unable to visit polling places
    d) Online voting facilities
    Answer: c) Voting via mail for those unable to visit polling places

     

  66. Which organization developed the PraVaHa software?
    a) Election Commission of India
    b) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
    c) All India Bank Employees’ Association (AIBEA)
    d) Institute of Advanced Virology (IAV)
    Answer: b) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)

     

  67. What is the primary purpose of the PraVaHa software?
    a) Assist bank customers with grievance redressal
    b) Generate non-infectious Nipah virus-like particles
    c) Conduct aerodynamic analysis of aerospace vehicles
    d) Facilitate postal voting
    Answer: c) Conduct aerodynamic analysis of aerospace vehicles

     

  68. What are Virus-like Particles (VLPs)?
    a) Infectious virus particles
    b) Non-infectious particles resembling viruses
    c) Particles used in postal ballots
    d) Software for space vehicle analysis
    Answer: b) Non-infectious particles resembling viruses

     

  69. Which mission is associated with China’s recent moon mission announcement?
    a) Chang’e-4
    b) Chang’e-5
    c) Chang’e-6
    d) Chang’e-3
    Answer: c) Chang’e-6

     

  70. What was the objective of the Chang’e-6 mission?
    a) To conduct a manned mission to Mars
    b) To return samples from the far side of the moon
    c) To explore the sun’s surface
    d) To study the Earth’s atmosphere
    Answer: b) To return samples from the far side of the moon

     

  71. Which group launched the “Bank Clinic” initiative?
    a) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
    b) Election Commission of India
    c) All India Bank Employees’ Association (AIBEA)
    d) Institute of Advanced Virology (IAV)
    Answer: c) All India Bank Employees’ Association (AIBEA)

     

  72. What is the primary goal of the “Bank Clinic” initiative?
    a) Facilitate online banking
    b) Help bank customers with grievance redressal
    c) Develop new banking software
    d) Conduct aerodynamic analysis
    Answer: b) Help bank customers with grievance redressal

     

  73. What was a significant achievement at the Institute of Advanced Virology (IAV) recently?
    a) Launch of a new spacecraft
    b) Development of the PraVaHa software
    c) Generation of non-infectious Nipah virus-like particles
    d) Establishment of the “Bank Clinic”
    Answer: c) Generation of non-infectious Nipah virus-like particles

     

  74. How do Virus-like Particles (VLPs) help in vaccine development?
    a) By infecting the body with a virus
    b) By resembling viruses without causing infection
    c) By speeding up the immune response
    d) By providing genetic material for vaccines
    Answer: b) By resembling viruses without causing infection

     

  75. What does the PraVaHa software simulate?
    a) Voting processes
    b) Grievance redressal mechanisms
    c) Aerodynamic and aerothermal loads on aerospace vehicles
    d) Virus-like particle generation
    Answer: c) Aerodynamic and aerothermal loads on aerospace vehicles

     

  76. Who are considered absentee voters in postal ballot voting?
    a) Armed forces personnel
    b) Government employees on election duty
    c) Individuals unable to vote in person due to work commitments, illness, or disability
    d) Senior citizens aged 80 and above
    Answer: c) Individuals unable to vote in person due to work commitments, illness, or disability

     

  77. What does the “Bank Clinic” initiative provide to customers?
    a) Direct resolution of banking issues
    b) Advisory and guidance on remedies as per RBI guidelines
    c) Online voting services
    d) Aerospace vehicle analysis
    Answer: b) Advisory and guidance on remedies as per RBI guidelines

     

  78. In what conditions can PraVaHa simulate airflow?
    a) Perfect Gas and Real Gas conditions
    b) Liquid and Solid conditions
    c) High and Low temperatures
    d) Vacuum and Atmospheric conditions
    Answer: a) Perfect Gas and Real Gas conditions

     

  79. What aspect of aerospace vehicles does Computational Fluid Dynamics (CFD) primarily analyze?
    a) Electrical systems
    b) Structural integrity
    c) Aerodynamic and aerothermal loads
    d) Software systems
    Answer: c) Aerodynamic and aerothermal loads

     

  80. What specific problem does the “Bank Clinic” initiative address for bank customers?
    a) Voting irregularities
    b) Aerodynamic design issues
    c) Grievance redressal
    d) Virus infections
    Answer: c) Grievance redressal
  81. When is the Odisha state government planning to implement the Khan Academy mathematics programme?
    a) 2022-23
    b) 2023-24
    c) 2024-25
    d) 2025-26
    Answer: c) 2024-25

     

  82. For which classes is the Khan Academy mathematics programme being implemented in Odisha?
    a) Class VIII and IX
    b) Class IX and X
    c) Class X and XI
    d) Class XI and XII
    Answer: b) Class IX and X

     

  83. How many government high schools in Odisha will be covered under the Khan Academy programme?
    a) 3,000
    b) 4,000
    c) 5,000
    d) 6,000
    Answer: b) 4,000

     

  84. What subjects does the Khan Academy programme aim to enhance in Odia medium high schools?
    a) Mathematics and Science
    b) Science and English
    c) Mathematics and English
    d) Science and Social Studies
    Answer: a) Mathematics and Science

     

  85. Which competitive exams does the initiative aim to prepare Odia medium students for?
    a) State level exams only
    b) National level exams only
    c) Both state and national level exams
    d) International exams
    Answer: c) Both state and national level exams

     

  86. Who has been appointed as the Regional Employees Provident Fund Commissioner for the Odisha zone?
    a) Ananya Mishra
    b) Sunita Rani
    c) Maushumi Lata Padhi
    d) Priya Sharma
    Answer: c) Maushumi Lata Padhi

     

  87. How many years of experience does Maushumi Lata Padhi bring to her new role?
    a) 20 years
    b) 25 years
    c) 30 years
    d) 35 years
    Answer: c) 30 years

     

  88. In which area has Maushumi Lata Padhi worked extensively?
    a) Education reforms
    b) Women’s welfare schemes
    c) Infrastructure development
    d) Technological advancements
    Answer: b) Women’s welfare schemes

     

  89. What system has Maushumi Lata Padhi managed as part of her public service?
    a) Public distribution system
    b) Transportation system
    c) Education system
    d) Health system
    Answer: a) Public distribution system

     

  90. What is one of Maushumi Lata Padhi’s personal missions?
    a) Promoting technological innovations
    b) Empowering women
    c) Enhancing digital literacy
    d) Improving transportation
    Answer: b) Empowering women

     

  91. Who emphasized the significance of the ‘Agnipath’ scheme?
    a) General Bipin Rawat
    b) General Anil Chauhan
    c) Admiral Karambir Singh
    d) Air Chief Marshal RKS Bhadauria
    Answer: b) General Anil Chauhan

     

  92. When was the Agnipath scheme introduced?
    a) 2020
    b) 2021
    c) 2022
    d) 2023
    Answer: c) 2022

     

  93. How long are the contracts under the Agnipath scheme?
    a) 2 years
    b) 3 years
    c) 4 years
    d) 5 years
    Answer: c) 4 years

     

  94. What is the primary objective of the Agnipath scheme?
    a) Increasing the number of officers
    b) Maintaining a youthful profile for the armed forces
    c) Enhancing technology in civilian sectors
    d) Reducing military expenditures
    Answer: b) Maintaining a youthful profile for the armed forces

     

  95. Which branches are included in the Agnipath scheme?
    a) Only Army
    b) Army and Navy
    c) Army, Navy, and Indian Air Force
    d) Only Indian Air Force
    Answer: c) Army, Navy, and Indian Air Force

     

  96. What was the percentage increase in GST collection in Odisha in May 2024?
    a) 10%
    b) 12%
    c) 14%
    d) 16%
    Answer: c) 14%

     

  97. How much GST collection was reported in Odisha in May 2024?
    a) Rs 4,027 crore
    b) Rs 4,398 crore
    c) Rs 5,027 crore
    d) Rs 5,398 crore
    Answer: c) Rs 5,027 crore

     

  98. What was the GST collection in Odisha in May 2023?
    a) Rs 4,027 crore
    b) Rs 4,398 crore
    c) Rs 5,027 crore
    d) Rs 5,398 crore
    Answer: b) Rs 4,398 crore

     

  99. What national trend was observed in GST revenue growth in May 2024?
    a) 5%
    b) 8%
    c) 10%
    d) 12%
    Answer: c) 10%

     

  100. What was the percentage increase in domestic transactions contributing to the GST revenue growth?
    a) 12.3%
    b) 13.3%
    c) 14.3%
    d) 15.3%
    Answer: d) 15.3%
  101. What is the main objective of the Phenome India project?
    A. To develop global risk prediction models for cardio-metabolic diseases.
    B. To create risk prediction models tailored to the Indian population for cardio-metabolic diseases.
    C. To study infectious diseases in India.
    D. To monitor the health of children in India.
    Answer: B

     

  102. Which organization launched the Phenome India project?
    A. Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
    B. Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)
    C. World Health Organization (WHO)
    D. National Institute of Health (NIH)
    Answer: B

     

  103. What type of study is Phenome India primarily focused on?
    A. Cross-sectional study
    B. Longitudinal health monitoring study
    C. Experimental study
    D. Case-control study
    Answer: B

     

  104. Which diseases are the focus of the Phenome India project?
    A. Infectious diseases
    B. Respiratory diseases
    C. Cardio-metabolic diseases
    D. Neurological diseases
    Answer: C

     

  105. What concept does the Phenome India project promote in healthcare?
    A. Traditional medicine
    B. P4 healthcare (Predictive, Personalized, Participatory, and Preventive)
    C. Emergency healthcare
    D. Alternative medicine
    Answer: B

     

  106. When was the International Air Transport Association (IATA) founded?
    A. 1935
    B. 1945
    C. 1955
    D. 1965
    Answer: B

     

  107. Where are the headquarters of IATA located?
    A. New York, USA
    B. Geneva, Switzerland
    C. Montreal, Canada
    D. London, UK
    Answer: C

     

  108. How many airlines does IATA represent?
    A. 100
    B. 200
    C. 300
    D. 330
    Answer: D

     

  109. What percentage of global air traffic is covered by IATA members?
    A. 50%
    B. 60%
    C. 70%
    D. 80%
    Answer: D

     

  110. How often is the IATA Annual General Meeting held?
    A. Monthly
    B. Quarterly
    C. Annually
    D. Biennially
    Answer: C

     

  111. What organisms primarily form stromatolites?
    A. Fungi
    B. Cyanobacteria
    C. Algae
    D. Protozoa
    Answer: B

     

  112. During which era were stromatolites most common?
    A. Mesozoic
    B. Cenozoic
    C. Paleozoic
    D. Precambrian
    Answer: D

     

  113. In which country can modern living marine stromatolites be found?
    A. Brazil
    B. Australia
    C. India
    D. USA
    Answer: B

     

  114. What is the significance of stromatolites in geological history?
    A. They indicate the presence of ancient volcanoes.
    B. They provide evidence of early microbial life on Earth.
    C. They show the history of Earth’s magnetic field.
    D. They are used to date meteorite impacts.
    Answer: B

     

  115. Where were recently discovered living stromatolites found?
    A. Great Barrier Reef, Australia
    B. Sheybarah Island, Saudi Arabia
    C. Amazon River Basin, Brazil
    D. Lake Baikal, Russia
    Answer: B

     

  116. What does DSR stand for in agriculture?
    A. Direct Seeded Rice
    B. Dry Seed Rotation
    C. Direct Soil Rehabilitation
    D. Dry Soil Reclamation
    Answer: A

     

  117. Which organization commercialized herbicide-tolerant basmati rice varieties for DSR?
    A. International Rice Research Institute (IRRI)
    B. Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)
    C. Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
    D. Ministry of Agriculture, India
    Answer: B

     

  118. What is one major benefit of Direct Seeded Rice (DSR)?
    A. Increased labor requirements
    B. Higher water consumption
    C. Reduced methane emissions
    D. Lower crop yield
    Answer: C

     

  119. Which type of DSR involves sowing seeds in dry fields?
    A. Wet DSR
    B. Dry DSR
    C. Aerobic DSR
    D. Semi-dry DSR
    Answer: B

     

  120. What is one advantage of DSR over traditional transplanting methods?
    A. Higher water use
    B. Earlier crop maturity
    C. Increased methane emissions
    D. More labor-intensive
    Answer: B
  121. Which two ministries have signed an MoU to collaborate on operating a special cell of Tele MANAS?
    A) Ministry of Home Affairs and Ministry of Defence
    B) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and Ministry of Defence
    C) Ministry of Education and Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
    D) Ministry of Labour and Employment and Ministry of Defence
    Answer: B) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and Ministry of Defence

     

  122. On which date was Tele MANAS launched?
    A) January 26, 2022
    B) October 10, 2022
    C) December 25, 2022
    D) March 8, 2022
    Answer: B) October 10, 2022

     

  123. What is the main objective of Tele MANAS?
    A) To provide educational support
    B) To provide financial aid
    C) To provide mental health support and care
    D) To provide employment opportunities
    Answer: C) To provide mental health support and care

     

  124. How can individuals access Tele MANAS services?
    A) Through a toll-free helpline number and a mobile app
    B) By visiting a physical center
    C) By sending an email
    D) By attending a local community meeting
    Answer: A) Through a toll-free helpline number and a mobile app

     

  125. Which space agencies are collaborating on the TRISHNA mission?
    A) ISRO and NASA
    B) ISRO and CNES
    C) ISRO and JAXA
    D) ISRO and ESA
    Answer: B) ISRO and CNES

     

  126. What is the main aim of the TRISHNA mission?
    A) To study ocean currents
    B) To monitor water usage and management
    C) To explore outer space
    D) To provide satellite communication
    Answer: B) To monitor water usage and management

     

  127. In which orbit will TRISHNA be placed?
    A) Geostationary Orbit (GEO)
    B) Medium Earth Orbit (MEO)
    C) Low Earth Orbit (LEO)
    D) High Earth Orbit (HEO)
    Answer: C) Low Earth Orbit (LEO)

     

  128. When was NOTA first used in Indian elections?
    A) 2004 Assembly elections
    B) 2013 Assembly elections
    C) 2019 General elections
    D) 2021 Assembly elections
    Answer: B) 2013 Assembly elections

     

  129. What is the primary objective of the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC)?
    A) To promote economic, security, cultural, and social cooperation
    B) To conduct space research
    C) To manage international trade
    D) To provide global health services
    Answer: A) To promote economic, security, cultural, and social cooperation

     

  130. Which researchers discovered the novel protein “Neo”?
    A) Stephen Tang and Samuel Sternberg
    B) Marie Curie and Albert Einstein
    C) Thomas Edison and Nikola Tesla
    D) James Watson and Francis Crick
    Answer: A) Stephen Tang and Samuel Sternberg
Weekly Current Affairs Quiz for Odisha Competitive Exams | June 1st Week 2024_3.1